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Worksheets

EMT Module 1 Chapters 7 & 8

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?

a)

Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

b)

Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head

c)

Standing in profile with the hands on the hips

d)

Standing, facing forward, with the arms at the side, palms forward

2.

A patient with bilateral radial fractures would have which of the following?

a)

Fractures in both forearms

b)

Fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh

c)

A fracture occurring with little or no trauma

d)

Two fractures in the same arm

3.

An 89-year-old female patient has fallen in her living room and is complaining of left hip pain. As you approach, you note that she is on her back and her left leg is turned inward. When relaying this information to the receiving hospital, which one of the following statements should you make regarding her position?

a)

Supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity

b)

Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity

c)

Lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg

d)

Supine with left rotation of the right leg

4.

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is not true?

a)

The mouth is superior to the nose.

b)

The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

c)

The umbilicus is located on the anterior (ventral) aspect of the body.

d)

The foot is distal to the knee.

5.

Under normal circumstances, CO2 is excreted from the body through the:

a)

Urinary tract

b)

Sweat ducts

c)

Kidneys

d)

Lungs

6.

A patient with a high fever has an accelerated metabolism and is producing abnormally large amounts of CO2 at the cellular level. To compensate for this effect, what will occur?

a)

Decreased depth of breathing

b)

Decreased respiratory rate

c)

Decreased levels of acid in the blood

d)

Increased respiratory rate

7.

The two major portions of the skull are the:

a)

atlas and axis.

b)

manubrium and mandible.

c)

cranium and face.

d)

frontal bone and ilium.

8.

The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the:

a)

Lumbar segment

b)

Sacral vertebrae

c)

Thoracic spine

d)

Cervical vertebrae

9.

A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk, thus requiring a wheelchair. Based on the fact that she cannot ambulate, you should recognize that the muscles affected are of which type?

a)

Involuntary

b)

Smooth

c)

Voluntary

d)

Cardiac

10.

What is the most inferior portion of the sternum?

a)

Body

b)

Xiphoid process

c)

Sternal notch

d)

Manubrium

11.

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm?

a)

Radius

b)

Acromion

c)

Fibula

d)

Ulna

12.

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm?

a)

Humerus

b)

Scapula

c)

Ulna

d)

Radius

13.

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs?

a)

Voluntary muscles

b)

Skeletal muscles

c)

Striated muscles

d)

Smooth muscles

14.

What is the ability of the heart muscle to generate its own electrical impulse called?

a)

Irritability

b)

Contractility

c)

Automaticity

d)

Conductivity

15.

The bronchioles are inflamed and constricted in a patient having an asthma attack. For which one of the following is the patient at risk?

a)

Increased movement of air into the lungs

b)

Collapse of the trachea and bronchi

c)

Decreased movement of the diaphragm

d)

Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body

16.

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Pharynx

d)

Diaphragm

17.

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?

a)

Inspiration

b)

Gas exchange

c)

Bifurcation

d)

Expiration

18.

Which of the following types of blood vessel allows the exchange of substances between the blood and the cells of the body?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Alveoli

c)

Venules

d)

Arterioles

19.

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae?

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

20.

What carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

Vena cava

c)

Pulmonary arteries

d)

Aorta

21.

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

22.

The pediatric airway differs from adult airways in that:

a)

The child's tongue takes up a smaller area in the mouth.

b)

The epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus.

c)

All respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed.

d)

The trachea is highly rigid and less flexible to movement.

23.

A patient who is hypoxic has a pulmonary disease that involves low lung compliance. With this condition, you realize that:

a)

O2 and CO2 cannot be exchanged across the alveolar wall

b)

Ventilation with a BVM will likely require more effort

c)

The lung tissue is easily inflated and can be damaged

d)

The patient has tremendous swelling of the small airways

24.

Which statement best describes the difference between cardiac and smooth muscle?

a)

Cardiac muscle can generate its own electrical impulse; smooth muscle cannot

b)

Cardiac muscle relies on an electrical impulse to be stimulated; smooth muscle does not

c)

Cardiac muscle does not need a blood supply; smooth muscle does

d)

Cardiac muscle is able to extend; smooth muscle can only contract

25.

A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. In regards to this condition, which one of the following might the EMT expect to find?

a)

Decreased radial pulse

b)

Swelling in the legs

c)

Difficulty moving the left arm

d)

Pale skin to the left foot

26.

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components?

a)

Platelets

b)

White blood cells

c)

Plasma

d)

Corpuscles

27.

A patient is complaining of extreme dizziness and headache. Which one of the following conditions is most likely responsible for the complaint?

a)

Rupture of the radial vein

b)

Occlusion of the carotid arteries

c)

Clot in the abdominal aorta

28.

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage?

a)

Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

b)

Decreased production of carbon dioxide

c)

Decrease in pulse rate

d)

Decreased ability to fight infection

29.

Following radiation therapy for the treatment of cancer, a patient has a low white blood cell count. For which one of the following conditions related to this type of cell is the patient at risk?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Bleeding

d)

Infection

30.

Which of the following best describes the medical condition of shock?

a)

A state of inadequate tissue perfusion

b)

Hypotension

c)

An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event

d)

Delayed capillary refill

31.

Which of the following are the components of the central nervous system?

a)

Brain, spinal cord

b)

Spinal cord and sensory nerves

c)

Brain and autonomic nerves

d)

Spinal cord and motor nerves

32.

A patient's glucose (sugar) level in his blood begins to drop. Which one of the following organs would be affected first?

a)

The brain

b)

The liver

c)

The kidneys

d)

The stomach

33.

Which of the following is a function of the skin?

a)

Protection from the environment

b)

Regulation of salt and water balance

c)

Regulation of body temperature

d)

All of the above

34.

Which of the following body systems produces hormones?

a)

Exocrine

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Gastrointestinal

d)

Endocrine

35.

Which organ secretes insulin after eating a large meal?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gallbladder

36.

Which of the following statements concerning veins is true?

a)

All veins carry deoxygenated blood.

b)

All veins carry blood to the heart.

c)

All veins return oxygenated blood to the heart.

d)

All veins carry oxygenated blood.

37.

What does the prefix "hypo" represent?

a)

Fast

b)

Below normal

c)

Greater than

d)

Above

38.

What would be a direct result of increasing a patient’s preload?

a)

Increased cardiac output

b)

Increased oxygen delivery into the lungs

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Decreased myocardial contraction

39.

You are assessing a patient with an obvious left midshaft femur fracture. The most immediate threat to this patient's well-being is:

a)

Infection

b)

Nerve Damage

c)

Blood Loss

d)

Pain

40.

Which one of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

a)

Providing structure to blood vessels

b)

Producing blood cells

c)

Forming the vital organs of the body

d)

Securing the abdominal organs

41.

Which one of the following substances is lacking in anaerobic metabolism?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Oxygen

c)

Protein

d)

Glucose

42.

When the cells undergo normal metabolism, which one of the following occurs?

a)

Lactic acid is produced and excreted by the kidneys.

b)

The cells do not require large amounts of oxygen.

c)

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is produced in small amounts.

d)

Heat, carbon dioxide, and water are produced

43.

A patient's brain cells are undergoing anaerobic metabolism. As a result, those cells:

a)

have too much adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to function properly.

b)

are becoming dysfunctional in a highly acidic environment.

c)

are producing significant amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2).

d)

cannot use the available oxygen to make energy.

44.

The right atrium:

a)

receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

b)

pumps blood to the lungs

c)

pumps blood to the body.

d)

receives blood from the veins of the body.

45.

A young patient is experiencing epiglottitis (swelling of the epiglottis). He is working hard to breathe, has stridorous respirations, and is extremely hypoxic. His skin is cyanotic and pulse rapid but strong. Which one of the following is the most immediate concern?

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Seizure activity

d)

Dehydration

46.

Which of the following conditions is the cause of poor delivery of oxygen to the cells?

a)

Partial occlusion of the airway

b)

Elevation of the heart rate

c)

Impaired transfer of O2 between the lungs and blood

d)

Poor function of the heart as a pump

47.

Assessment of a hypoxic patient with a history of lung disease reveals him to be using well developed accessory muscles to exhale. As an EMT, you should recognize that the patient:

a)

has a problem with the red blood cells in transporting oxygen.

b)

is inadequately exhaling oxygen from his lungs.

c)

is using energy to exhale and is in danger of respiratory failure.

d)

is adequately compensating for the problem with his breathing.

48.

A 20-year-old female has called 911 for chest pain. On scene you find that she has shallow breathing with an SpO2 reading of 91% on room air. She states she was in a car crash yesterday and diagnosed in the hospital with broken ribs. She says that her pain is right where the ribs are broken and rates it a 10/10. Breath sounds are present bilaterally. In this situation, the EMT should attribute the hypoxia to which one of the following?

a)

The fractured ribs have pierced the lung, causing it to collapse.

b)

Swelling from the rib fractures has compressed the lung.

c)

The patient is bleeding into the lungs, compressing the alveoli.

d)

Pain from rib injury prevents full expansion of the chest cage.

49.

Which one of the following best describes the ventilation-perfusion ratio?

a)

The ability of the red blood cells to offload oxygen to the cells of the body

b)

The amount of blood and the pressure at which it carries oxygen throughout the body

c)

The ability of the body to exchange gases across the alveolar capillary membrane

d)

The amount of air that is moved into and out of the lungs in one minute

50.

Which one of the following measurements indicates a narrowed pulse pressure?

a)

120/76

b)

116/82

c)

210/138

d)

108/88

51.

A drop in blood pressure below a critical threshold is a threat to the body because it directly impairs:

a)

airway patency.

b)

cellular perfusion

c)

sympathetic nervous system.

d)

anaerobic metabolism.

52.

The body will compensate for a decrease in cardiac output by:

a)

increasing the respiratory rate.

b)

decreasing the heart rate.

c)

dilating to arteries, veins, and capillaries.

d)

increasing systemic vascular resistance.

53.

Which one of the following statements about chemoreceptors in the human body is true?

a)

The central chemoreceptors are located in the lungs and provide the primary stimulus to breathe.

b)

The peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to oxygen than carbon dioxide.

c)

The peripheral chemoreceptors are extremely sensitive to oxygen and are located in the brain.

d)

The central chemoreceptors constantly monitor the oxygen levels in the body and increase the rate when more O2 is needed.

54.

Which one of the following conditions is most likely to cause acidosis?

a)

Depressed respirations

b)

Chronically irregular heart rhythm

c)

Low blood glucose level

d)

Hypothyroidism

55.

Which one of the following medical conditions would impair a patient's respiratory status by directly damaging the central chemoreceptors?

a)

Aerobic metabolism

b)

Lung cancer

c)

Collapsed lung

d)

Brainstem stroke

56.

What is the outer most layer of the skin?

a)

Epidermal and dermal layers

b)

Epidermis

c)

Dermal layer

d)

Dermal and subcutaneous layers

57.

Which one of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?

a)

The skin contains four layers: epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layer.

b)

The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.

c)

The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.

d)

The skin protects the body against bacteria and other organisms.

58.

The spinal column is composed of what sections as described from superior to inferior?

a)

Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral

b)

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

c)

Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral

d)

Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx

59.

A female patient has suffered a stroke to the right side of her brain and has paralysis to the contralateral portion of her body. Which description of this condition is correct?

a)

She is paralyzed on the right side of her body

b)

Her left and right leg are paralyzed

c)

She cannot move her left arm and leg

d)

She cannot move her legs or arms

60.

Which one of the following actions causes the patient to take a breath?

a)

Intercostal muscles relax.

b)

Pressure in the chest increases.

c)

Chest cavity decreases in size.

d)

Diaphragm contracts.

61.

A tachypneic patient is breathing:

a)

rapidly.

b)

irregularly.

c)

slowly.

d)

normally.

62.

An asthmatic is short of breath because her small airways are constricted. For this patient, the best medication is one that contains what sympathetic (adrenergic) properties?

a)

alpha-2

b)

beta-2

c)

beta-1

d)

alpha-1

63.

Which one of the following best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs?

a)

Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli

b)

Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

c)

Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

d)

Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx

64.

Involuntary or smooth muscles are found on which one of the following structures?

a)

Muscles of the arms and legs

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Blood vessels and intestines

d)

Heart and blood vessels

65.

In the healthy heart, the electrical impulses that cause contraction of the cardiac muscle are initiated in the:

a)

sinoatrial node.

b)

left atrium.

c)

ventricles.

d)

bundle branches.

66.

Which one of the following should the EMT expect when administering epinephrine to a patient?

a)

Generalized weakness

b)

Slowing of the heart rate

c)

Labored breathing

d)

Increased blood pressure

67.

Failure of the sodium potassium pump can result in:

a)

cellular damage, swelling, and rupture.

b)

large amounts of potassium inside the cell.

c)

accumulation of acidic wastes.

d)

excess amounts of sodium outside of the cell.

68.

What happens after a cell in anaerobic metabolism breaks down glucose and creates energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

a)

Lactic acid is formed.

b)

Oxygen and water are created.

c)

Electrolytes in the cell become balanced.

d)

Carbon dioxide and water are formed.

69.

Which one of the following is the primary stimulus to breathe in normal human beings?

a)

Amount of oxygen required by the body

b)

Amount of nitrogen in air

c)

Level of oxygen in the body

d)

Level of CO2 in the body

70.

Is this test going to be really hard?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

I do not know

d)

I sure as hell hope not