Worksheetshtmle-draft1
Total questions: 83
Worksheet time: 42mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
"Bios" means
a)
Life
b)
Appearance
c)
Self
d)
Death
2.
"Opsy" means
a)
Life
b)
Appearance
c)
Self
d)
Death
3.
"Auto" means
a)
Life
b)
Appearance
c)
Self
d)
Death
4.
Study of de-squamate cells from surface of epithelial surfaces
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
5.
Which of the following is considered as the most reliable biopsy, as it allows examination of the whole tumor lesion?
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
6.
FNAB is an example of which kind of biopsy?
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
7.
This type of biopsy is preferred if the tumor is a "feeder" or basically, characterized as attached to a major blood vessel
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
8.
Cytocentrifugation involves centrifuging at...
a)
15000 RPM for 2 minutes
b)
2000 RPM for 3 minutes
c)
2000 RPM for 1 minute
d)
2000 RPM for 2 minutes
e)
15000 RPM for 3 minutes
9.
Routinely used fixative for cytologic smears
a)
Isopropyl alcohol
b)
95% ethyl alcohol
c)
75% ethyl alcohol
d)
Alcohol ether
e)
95% isopropyl alcohol
10.
NOT recommended to be used as a fixative for cytologic smears because it is flammable
a)
Isopropyl alcohol
b)
95% ethyl alcohol
c)
75% ethyl alcohol
d)
Alcohol ether
e)
95% isopropyl alcohol
11.
Which of the following types of biopsy is preferred for examining large tumors that can’t be excised completely?
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
12.
Which of the following types of biopsy is simple, inexpensive, and doesn't require for hospitalization?
a)
Exfoliative Cytology
b)
Excisional Biopsy
c)
Incisional Biopsy
d)
Needle Biopsy
13.
Which of the following types of biopsy falls under incisional Biopsy, and has small pieces of tumor removed using special forceps?
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
14.
Skin biopsy
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
15.
How many mL of of peritoneal fluid is collected for culture and smear preparation?
a)
10 mL
b)
20 mL
c)
30 mL
d)
40 mL
e)
50 mL
16.
How many mL of of pleural fluid is collected for chemical analysis?
a)
10 mL
b)
20 mL
c)
30 mL
d)
40 mL
e)
50 mL
17.
Which of the following types of biopsy involves obtaining a deeper skin sample that removes a short cylinder or “apple core” of tissue?
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
18.
Also known as core needle biopsy
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
19.
Which of the following types of biopsy involves removing the top layers of the skin by shaving it off? This is performed with local anesthetic
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
20.
Incision biopsy from solid organs, wedge shaped.
a)
Bite biopsy
b)
Cutaneous biopsy
c)
Punch biopsy
d)
Shave biopsy
e)
Wedge biopsy
21.
- The systematic examination of a cadaver for study or for determining the cause of death.
a)
Autopsy
b)
Biopsy
c)
Necropsy
d)
Cytology
22.
- Excision and Examination of adequate tissue sampling taken from a living person
a)
Autopsy
b)
Biopsy
c)
Necropsy
d)
Cytology
23.
- Used to diagnose malignancies
a)
Autopsy
b)
Biopsy
c)
Necropsy
d)
Cytology
24.
- Scrutinize both anterior and posterior surfaces
a)
External inspection
b)
Internal inspection
25.
- Observe for signs of violence, lacerations, identifying marks, edema, distention, hemorrhages and jaundice
a)
External inspection
b)
Internal inspection
26.
- Primary incision of the abdomen and thorax
a)
External inspection
b)
Internal inspection
27.
- a “Y” incision is done for both male and female to expose the abdomen
a)
External inspection
b)
Internal inspection
28.
How to obtain the culture of heart's blood?
a)
Collect using a sterile syringe with needle gauge (18-20) 20ml, on the ventricle or atrium by aspiration
b)
Sterilize by searing the surface and collect by plunging a sterile applicator stick on the organ.
c)
Collect 50 ml for culture and smear preparation
d)
Collect 50 ml for chemical analysis
29.
How to obtain the culture of solid organs?
a)
Collect using a sterile syringe with needle gauge (18-20) 20ml, on the ventricle or atrium by aspiration
b)
Sterilize by searing the surface and collect by plunging a sterile applicator stick on the organ.
c)
Collect 50 ml for culture and smear preparation
d)
Collect 50 ml for chemical analysis
30.
How to obtain the culture of peritoneal fluid?
a)
Collect using a sterile syringe with needle gauge (18-20) 20ml, on the ventricle or atrium by aspiration
b)
Sterilize by searing the surface and collect by plunging a sterile applicator stick on the organ.
c)
Collect 50 ml for culture and smear preparation
d)
Collect 50 ml for chemical analysis
31.
How to obtain the culture of pleural fluid?
a)
Collect using a sterile syringe with needle gauge (18-20) 20ml, on the ventricle or atrium by aspiration
b)
Sterilize by searing the surface and collect by plunging a sterile applicator stick on the organ.
c)
Collect 50 ml for culture and smear preparation
d)
Collect 50 ml for chemical analysis
32.
examination of the organs of the three major cavities of the body (Abdomen, Chest and the Head)
a)
Complete autopsy
b)
Partial autopsy
c)
Complete biopsy
d)
Partial biopsy
e)
Xray
33.
- Spinal cord is not removed and examined
a)
Complete autopsy
b)
Partial autopsy
c)
Complete biopsy
d)
Partial biopsy
e)
Xray
34.
- Blood vessels of the arms and legs aren’t examined.
a)
Complete autopsy
b)
Partial autopsy
c)
Complete biopsy
d)
Partial biopsy
e)
Xray
35.
– Organs are removed one by one
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
36.
widely used; Originally the first step is to expose the cranial cavity and from the back, the spinal cord, followed by the thoracic cavity, cervical cavity and abdominal organs.
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
37.
– IN SITU dissection, in part combined with EN BLOC removal
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
38.
– removal of cervical, abdominal and urogenital system organs as organ blocks/en bloc
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
39.
– organs are removed en masse
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
40.
- Thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed en masse and then followed by dissection into organ blocks
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
41.
- best for routine inspection and preservation of connections between organs and organ systems.
a)
Virchow's technique
b)
Rokitansky technique
c)
Ghon's technique
d)
Letulle's technique
42.
- Simply means microscopic examination of cells from different body sites for diagnostic purposes
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
43.
- This includes Exfoliative cytology and Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy.
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
44.
- Study of cells des-quamated from epithelial surfaces
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
45.
- Cells may be found on smears that have been spontaneously been shed or physically removed from epithelial surfaces and mucous membranes (Like the vagina, buccal mucosa and from bodily fluids like sputum, urine, pleural fluid, peritoneal (ascitic fluid), gastric juice and cerebrospinal fluid.
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
46.
- Spontaneous exfoliation is observed in normal cells due to constant growth and replacement with new cells
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
47.
– more readily observed in malignant tumor cells.
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
48.
Cervical carcinomas and precancerous lesions of the cervix arises from the junction of endocervical/ectocervical mucosa (Transformation zone or T-ZONE)
- Therefore, sampling of T-ZONE is extremely important for the detection of dysplasia and carcinoma of the cervix
- An optimal sample should include squamous, columnar and metaplastic cells
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Gynecological sampling
d)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
49.
- Relatively inexpensive
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Gynecological sampling
d)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
50.
- Best taken from the upper lateral third of the vaginal wall. (More accessible and less likely to be contaminated with cellular debris or vaginal discharge. First reading is on LPO. Assess the quality of staining and smea
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Gynecological sampling
d)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
51.
- To detect the presence of RBCs and Leukocytes and the type of exfoliated cell. To give a rough assessment of the proportion of the mature superficial pyknotic acidophilic cells. This test is not commonly used today in the practice of gynecology
a)
Diagnostic cytology
b)
Exfoliative cytology
c)
Gynecological sampling
d)
Vaginal hormonal cytology
52.
Which equipment for gynecological sampling is used for sampling of endocervical canal?
a)
Endocervical brush
b)
Vaginal Scrape
c)
Lateral Vaginal Scrape
d)
Four Quadrant Vaginal Scrape
e)
Vulvar Scrape
53.
Which equipment for gynecological sampling is used on patients with hysterectomy?
a)
Endocervical brush
b)
Vaginal Scrape
c)
Lateral Vaginal Scrape
d)
Four Quadrant Vaginal Scrape
e)
Vulvar Scrape
54.
Which equipment for gynecological sampling is used for hormonal evaluation?
a)
Endocervical brush
b)
Vaginal Scrape
c)
Lateral Vaginal Scrape
d)
Four Quadrant Vaginal Scrape
e)
Vulvar Scrape
55.
Which equipment for gynecological sampling is used for localization of vaginal adenosis?
a)
Endocervical brush
b)
Vaginal Scrape
c)
Lateral Vaginal Scrape
d)
Four Quadrant Vaginal Scrape
e)
Vulvar Scrape
56.
Which equipment for gynecological sampling is used for detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma?
a)
Endocervical brush
b)
Vaginal Scrape
c)
Lateral Vaginal Scrape
d)
Four Quadrant Vaginal Scrape
e)
Vulvar Scrape
57.
Which of the following is the staining of Choice for Exfoliative Cytology?
a)
Papanicolau staining
b)
Modified papanicolau staining
c)
Gram stain
58.
Which of the following kind of PAPS staining has the following ADVANTAGES
- Transparent blue staining of the cytoplasm is obtained due to action of high alcoholic content of the cytoplasmic counterstain, allowing overlapping cells to be seen and identified
- Excellent nuclear detail is produced
- Color range is predictable and of great value when identifying and classifying cells. Producing a good differential coloring of basophilic and acidophilic cells.
- Valuable in comparing cellular appearances in smears and their counterpart in similarly stained sections.
a)
Papanicolau staining
b)
Modified papanicolau staining
c)
Gram stain
59.
Which of the following PAPS staining provides optimal nuclear detail information, which is important for cytologic evaluation of pap smears, non-gynecological and FNAB cytologic specimens
Also, skl For Pap smears prepared with liquid based technique, use the automated technique.
a)
Papanicolau staining
b)
Modified papanicolau staining
c)
Gram stain
60.
polygonal squamous cells. (40-45 um in diameter) Pale, pink staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei (<6um in diameter)
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
61.
True Acidophillia is characteristic of these cells. (Under Estrogen influence) But not a reliable index of maturation
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
62.
Pseudo-acidophillia – caused by drying of smears especially before fixation, prolapse and drying of vaginal epithelium, infection and chemicals.
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
63.
medium sized, polyhedral or elongated cells with basophilic vacuolated cytoplasm
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
64.
round to oval cells, with small dense basophilic cytoplasm (15-30um in diameter)
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
65.
Smaller than parabasal cells. Larger vesicular nucleus
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
66.
Normally seen from two weeks of age to puberty, after childbirth, abortions and after menopause.
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
67.
boat shaped intermediate cells that has a strong tendency to fold or curl.
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
68.
These cells suggest a combined estrogen-progesterone effect.
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
69.
Found in the latter half of the menstrual cycle, during pregnancy and menopause
a)
Mature superficial cells
b)
Intermediate cells
c)
Parabasal cells
d)
Navicular cells
70.
Characteristic of mature superficial cells under estrogen influence.
a)
True acidophilia
b)
Pseudo-acidophilia
71.
not a reliable index of maturation
a)
True acidophilia
b)
Pseudo-acidophilia
72.
caused by drying of smears especially before fixation, prolapse and drying of vaginal epithelium, infection and chemicals.
a)
True acidophilia
b)
Pseudo-acidophilia
73.
round, oval or boat shaped cells with translucent basophilic cytoplasm observed greatest at the center of the cell due to glycogen accumulation
a)
Pregnancy cells
b)
Endometrial cells
c)
Endocervical glandular cells
74.
small cells, slightly cylindrical with less basophilic cytoplasm. Occurring in tightly packed groups of 3 or more
a)
Pregnancy cells
b)
Endometrial cells
c)
Endocervical glandular cells
75.
. Found during and in 1-10 days after menstruation. Shed in response to ovarian hormones. Smear taken during menstrual cycle will contain Endometrial cells and numerous RBCs and Leukocytes (renders the smear unsatisfactory for reliable assessment)
a)
Pregnancy cells
b)
Endometrial cells
c)
Endocervical glandular cells
76.
occurs in large groups or small sheets. Honeycomb appearance when viewed on end.
a)
Pregnancy cells
b)
Endometrial cells
c)
Endocervical glandular cells
77.
- Directly smeared onto 2 labeled slides by pull apart technique.
- Sprayed with fixative immediately or immediately immersed in the fixative jar of 95% alcohol
- Failure to fix immediately, unsatisfactory cytologic results due to air drying effect
a)
Bronchial Brushing
b)
Bronchial Washing
c)
Bronchial Aspirate
78.
Freshly collected in the bronchoscopy collection container and hand delivered to the lab
a)
Bronchial Brushing
b)
Bronchial Washing
c)
Bronchial Aspirate
79.
- Collected by either aspiration into a glass suction apparatus or by washing bronchi with 1-2cc Saline into a cup. Specimens must be taken directly from the bronchus, to ensure that the smear contain epithelial cells (ciliated bronchial cells) from the bronchial mucosa. Not just RBCs and WBC.
a)
Bronchial Brushing
b)
Bronchial Washing
c)
Bronchial Aspirate
80.
Presence of alveolar macrophage confirms that the sample is definitely...
a)
Saliva
b)
Bronchioalveolar lavage
c)
Sputum
d)
Endotracheal aspirate
81.
Seen in samples from AIDS or HIV px.
a)
Acinetobacter baumanii
b)
Pneumocystis jirovecci or carinii
c)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
d)
Actinomyces spp.
82.
To observe for the presence of Pneumocytis jirovecci, how many times do you have to obtain sputum sample?
a)
2 consecutive 3 morning samples
b)
3 consecutive 2 morning samples
c)
3 consecutive 3 morning samples
d)
Any of the choices
e)
None of the choices
83.
FOr extensive studies of non-gynecologic spx, you have to prepare slides which are stained by Giemsa and PAPS how many times?
a)
2 stained with Giemsa and 1 Pap smear
b)
2 stained with Giemsa and 3 Pap smear
c)
1 stained with Giemsa and 3 Pap smear
d)
4 stained with Giemsa and 2 Pap smear
e)
1 stained with Giemsa and 2 Pap smear
100 %
