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Worksheets

Day 8 54-61

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available (referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc.)

a)

Depreciation

b)

depletion

c)

inflation

d)

incremental cost

2.

Is the simplest form a business organization

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Enterprise

d)

Corporation

3.

An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

4.

A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do

a)

Sole of proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

5.

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

a)

Sole partnership

b)

Partner

c)

Corporation

d)

Enterprise

6.

Which is NOT a type of business organization?

a)

Sole of proprietor

b)

Corporation

c)

Enterprise

d)

Partnership

7.

What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

8.

In case of bankruptcy of a partnership

a)

the partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership

b)

The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities

c)

The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership

d)

The partners may sell stock to general additional capital

9.

Which is TRUE about partnership?

a)

It has a perpetual life

b)

It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership

c)

It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another

d)

Its capitalization must be equal for each partner

10.

Which is true about corporation?

a)

It is the not best form of business organization

b)

The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three

c)

Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators

d)

The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments

11.

Represent ownership, and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock

a)

Authorized capital stock

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Common stock

d)

Incorporator’s stock

12.

Represent the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled

a)

Authorized capital stock

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Incorporators stock

d)

Common stock

13.

The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders

a)

Dividend

b)

Return

c)

Share stock

d)

Par value

14.

A certificate of indebtness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation

a)

Bond

b)

T-bill

c)

Preferred stock

d)

Common stock

15.

A form of fixed-interest security issued by central or local government, companies, banks or other institutions. They are usually a form of long-term security, but may be irredeemable, secured or unsecured

a)

Bond

b)

T-bills

c)

Certificate of deposit

d)

All of these

16.

A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns (i.e., stocks, bonds of its subsidiaries).

a)

Mortgage

b)

Registered bond

c)

Coupon bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

17.

A type of bond which does not have security except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation

a)

Mortgage bond

b)

Registered bond

c)

Collateral trust bond

d)

Debenture bond

18.

A type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations

a)

Joint bond

b)

Debenture bond

c)

Registered bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

19.

A type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment

a)

Equipments’ obligations bond

b)

Debenture bond

c)

Registered bond

d)

Infrastructure bond

20.

If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this bond is classified as

a)

Registered bond

b)

Mortgage bond

c)

Coupon bond

d)

Joint bond

21.

A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it

a)

Registered bond

b)

Preferred bond

c)

Incorporators bond

d)

All of these

22.

Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid

a)

Registered bond

b)

Coupon bond

c)

Mortgage bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

23.

An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately

a)

4 years

b)

5 years

c)

6 years

d)

7 years

24.

The 72 rule of thumb is used to determine

a)

how many years money will triple

b)

how many years money will double

c)

how many years to amass 1 million

d)

how many years to quadruple the money

25.

To triple the principal, one must use

a)

integration

b)

derivatives

c)

logarithms

d)

implicit functions

26.

A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply

a)

Money market

b)

Hard currency

c)

Treasury bill

d)

Certificate of deposit

27.

Everything a company owns and which has a money value is classified as an asset. Which of the following is classified as an asset

a)

Intangible assets

b)

Fixed assets

c)

Trade investments

d)

All of these

28.

Which an example of an intangible asset?

a)

Cash

b)

Furniture

c)

Investment in subsidiary companies

d)

Patents

29.

Land, buildings, plant and machinery are examples of

a)

current assets

b)

trade investments

c)

fixed assets

d)

intangible assets

30.

An increase in the value of a capital asset is called

a)

profit

b)

capital gain

c)

capital expenditure

d)

capital stock

31.

The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called

a)

capital expenditure

b)

capital loss

c)

loss

d)

deficit

32.

Is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit

a)

Time deposit

b)

Bond

c)

Capital gain

d)

Certificate of deposit

33.

Any particular raw material or primary product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called

a)

utility

b)

necessity

c)

commodity

d)

stock

34.

It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term usually applies to floating exchange rates

a)

currency appreciation

b)

currency devaluation

c)

currency float

d)

currency depreciation

35.

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound)

a)

currency appreciation

b)

currency devaluation

c)

currency float

d)

currency depreciation

36.

The residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) has been allowed for

a)

Dividend

b)

Equity

c)

Return

d)

Per value

37.

A saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than the consumer really want to save

a)

compulsory saving

b)

consumer saving

c)

forced saving

d)

all of these

38.

A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security

a)

bond

b)

bank notes

c)

coupon

d)

check

39.

Defined as the capacity of commodity to satisfy human want

a)

Discount

b)

Necessity

c)

Luxuries

d)

Utility

40.

It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher price than its original purchase price

a)

Debenture

b)

Goodwill

c)

Capital gain

d)

Internal rate of return

41.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and place

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Utility

d)

Market

42.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Market

d)

Utility

43.

When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand.

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of supply

c)

Law of demand

d)

Law of supply and demand

44.

When one of the factors or production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of supply

c)

Law of demand

d)

Law of supply and demand

45.

The place where sellers and buyers come together

a)

Department store

b)

Market

c)

Mall

d)

Shopping center

46.

GATT stands for

a)

General Agreement of Tariff and Trade

b)

General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

c)

Global Agreement of Tariff and Trade

d)

Global Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

47.

The letter D in the Roman numerals is

a)

50

b)

100

c)

500

d)

1000

48.

To comply with the requirement of the Mechanical Engineering Law on the minimum complement of mechanical engineers, a mechanical plant with a combine prime movers rating of 373 KW must have in its employ the following:

a)

1 PME, 1 RME, and 1 CPM

b)

1 RME, 2 CPM

c)

1 PME, 2 RME

d)

1 RME is charge of every shift

49.

Mechanical Plant Engineer (MPE) may be allowed to take the licensure examination for PME if

a)

he has 4 years practice as MPE

b)

if he graduated with a BSME degree and has a 4 years of practice as a RME

c)

if he has a BSME degree, passed the examinations for RME and has 4 years practice as RME

d)

none of these

50.

The only country that recognizes the mechanical engineering licensure of Filipinos issued by the Professional Regulation Commission and allowed to used the practice as RME

a)

America

b)

Canada

c)

Japan

d)

none of these

51.

The ratio between the average load and total available capacity

a)

load factor

b)

power factor

c)

demand factor

d)

Capacity factor

52.

In Roman numerals, the doorframe written with the letter indicates that the number equivalent to the letter is to be multiplied by

a)

100

b)

1,000

c)

100,000

d)

1,000,000

53.

In Roman numerals, the bar written above the letter indicates that number equivalent to the letter is to be multiplied by

a)

100

b)

1,000

c)

10,000

d)

100,000

54.

Indicate the false statement about rules of divisibility

a)

The number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9

b)

The number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by 4 and 3

c)

The number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by the last 2 digits by the last 2 digits is divisible by 3

d)

The number is divisible is divisible by 5 if it ends with 5 or 0

55.

The base number of the number system

a)

Index

b)

Radix

c)

Cologarithm

d)

Logarithm

56.

What is another name of octal number system?

a)

Octonary number system

b)

Octenary number system

c)

Octonumber system

d)

Octonumerals

57.

A number system using a plane value or base of 20

a)

Sexagesimal number system

b)

Duodecimal number system

c)

Bidecimal number system

d)

Vigesimal number system

58.

A number system using a place value (or base) of 60

a)

Sexagesimal number system

b)

Septenary number system

c)

Senary number system

d)

Sexadecimal number system

59.

A number system using a place value (or base) of 10

a)

Decimal number system

b)

Denary number system

c)

Denary number system

d)

All of the above

60.

What is the radix of the binary number system?

a)

10

b)

16

c)

8

d)

2

61.

A number system which needs sixteen symbols, the 10 numerals and the letters A, B, C, D, E and F is called

a)

Octal number system

b)

Duodecimal number system

c)

Vigesimal number system

d)

Hexadecimal number system

62.

The terms “dozen” and “gross” used what number system?

a)

Decimal number system

b)

Duodecimal number decimal

c)

Bidecimal number system

d)

Vigesimal number system

63.

1 gross is equivalent to

a)

10 dozens

b)

144 pieces

c)

5 dozens

d)

100 pieces

64.

The number 1 followed by 100 zeros or 10^100 is called

a)

centillion

b)

chiliagon

c)

milliagon

d)

google

65.

The speed of 10 exponent google or 10^google is called

a)

miligoogle

b)

centigoogle

c)

googleplex

d)

myriad

66.

The speed of light is nearly

a)

3 x 10^5 km/s

b)

3 x 10^6 km/s

c)

3 x 10^4 km/s

d)

30,000,000 m/s

67.

If deka means 10^1 and kilo means 10^3, then 10^2 is

a)

Deci

b)

tera

c)

hector

d)

atto

68.

1 cubic meter is equivalent to 1

a)

span

b)

section

c)

scruple

d)

stere

69.

The number 1 followed by 15 zeros is known as

a)

one billion

b)

one trillion

c)

one quadrillion

d)

one quintillion

70.

100 kilograms is equivalent to 1

a)

ton

b)

quintal

c)

section

d)

stere

71.

One section is equivalent to 1

a)

square foot

b)

square meter

c)

square nautical mile

d)

square statute mile

72.

One foot is equivalent to how many hands?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

73.

The radius of the Earth’s orbit around the Sun (the average distance between the Sun and Earth) is known as

a)

lightyear

b)

astronomical orbit

c)

astronomical unit

d)

steradian

74.

An astronomical unit is approximately equal to

a)

100 million km

b)

125 million km

c)

150 million km

d)

175 million km

75.

Absolute zero is

a)

0°C

b)

0°F

c)

0 R

d)

0 K

76.

The gravitational constant G is equivalent to _____ (N.m^2)/kg^2

a)

6.67 x 10^-8

b)

6.67 x 10^-10

c)

6.67 x 10^-11

d)

6.67 x 10^-12

77.

1 Btu is equivalent to how many Joules?

a)

1054

b)

1045

c)

1036

d)

1064

78.

The pressure of 1 torr is equivalent to how many Pascals?

a)

100.0

b)

133.3

c)

166.7

d)

200.0

79.

1 horsepower is equivalent to how many Watts?

a)

764

b)

476

c)

674

d)

746

80.

1 electron volt is equivalent to how many Joules?

a)

1.603 x 10^-19

b)

1.602 x 10^-16

c)

1.602 x 10^-14

d)

1.602 x 10^-12

81.

Which is not equivalent to 1 atm?

a)

1.013 x 10^6 Pa

b)

1.013 bar

c)

14.7 psi

d)

1000 kg/cm^2

82.

The value of (3^3)^3 is

a)

54

b)

81

c)

243

d)

729

83.

The number of board feet in a plank 3 inches thick, 1 foot wide and 20 foot length is

a)

60

b)

120

c)

360

d)

720

84.

The following type item, which is common to both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is

a)

interest

b)

depreciation

c)

taxes

d)

supplies

85.

The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose height H is on the median line

a)

2/3 from the vertex

b)

1/3 H from the vertex

c)

2/3 H from the vertex

d)

3/4 H from the vertex

86.

The number of board feet in a plank 2 inches thick, one foot wide and 20 feet long is

a)

400

b)

20

c)

40

d)

power

87.

The nearest whole number to the value of 2/3 (700)^(2/3) is:

a)

312

b)

1,243

c)

12,433

d)

54

88.

Ninety degrees is equal to

a)

1,500 radians

b)

3.142 rad

c)

1.57 rad

d)

1,000 rad

89.

The standard acceleration due to gravity, g is equal to:

a)

64.34 ft/sec^2

b)

32.2 ft^2/sec

c)

980 ft/sec

d)

35.30 km/hr/sec

90.

Point “A” in an irregular shaped rotating body is 10 ft. from an instantaneous axis. At the same instant a point “B” in the body is to have twice the velocity

a)

5 ft.

b)

240 inches

c)

305 cm

d)

6.2 meters

91.

Circular pitch times diametral pitch equals

a)

π

b)

1/π

c)

1.0

d)

π^2

92.

A general principle in the motion of a body can be stated as follows (F = force, M = mass, V = velocity, Δ = change, T = time)

a)

FT = MV

b)

FΔT = MV^2

c)

FT = MΔV

d)

FΔV = MΔT

93.

Which of the following is the definition of the Joule?

a)

a unit of power

b)

a Newton meter

c)

a kg m/s^2

d)

a rate of change of energy

94.

What is the equivalent expression for sin2x?

a)

1/2 sinx cosx

b)

2sinx cos(1/2 x)

c)

2sinx / secx

d)

-2 sinx cosx

95.

The series expansion for cos x contains which power of x?

a)

0, 2, 4, 6, 8, ...

b)

1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ...

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...

d)

1/2, 3/2, 5/2, 7/2, ...

96.

All of the following statements about photons are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Photons are small quanta of electromagnetic energy

b)

Energy of photons varies according to E = hf, where h is Planck’s

c)

Photon energy varies with source intensity, i.e. a bright light source emits photons of higher energy than a dim source

d)

Velocity of photons in vacuum is c, the speed of light, 3 x 10^10 cm/sec

97.

A one-candle power light source radiates luminous flux at the rate of

a)

1 lumens

b)

2 lumens

c)

π lumens

d)

4π lumens

98.

A principal sum P is invested at a normal interest rate r, compounded m times a year, for n years. The accumulated amount at the end of this period will be

a)

P(1 + r/m)^r

b)

P(1 + r/m)^(n/m)

c)

P(1 + r/m)^m

d)

none of these

99.

In the formula P = F(1 + i)^-n the factor (1 + i)^-n is called the

a)

sinking fund factor

b)

single payment present worth factor

c)

single payment compound amount factor

d)

capital recovery factor

100.

A fund established to produced a desired amount at the end or a given period by means of series of payments throughout the period is called a sinking fund, and is represented by the formula:

a)

A = F [ i / ((1 + i)^n -1) ]

b)

A = P (1 + i)^-n

c)

A = F [ ((1 + i)^n -1) / (i (1 + i)^n) ]

d)

A = F [ ((1 + i)^n) / i ]

101.

Which of the following relationships between compound interest factors is NOT correct?

a)

Single payment compound amount factor and single payment present worth factor are reciprocals

b)

Sinking fund factor and uniform series compound amount factor are reciprocals

c)

Capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor are reciprocals

d)

Capital recovery factor equals sinking fund factor plus the interest rate

102.

In determining the average annual cost of a project, the formula (P-S)/n + (P-S)(i/2)((n+1)/n) + Si represents the economic method of

a)

Sinking fund depreciation plus interest on first cost

b)

Straight line depreciation plus interest on first cost

c)

Straight line depreciation plus average interest

d)

Capital recovery with a return

103.

An “annuity” is defined as

a)

Earned interest due at the end of each interest period

b)

Cost of producing a product or rendering a service

c)

A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time

d)

Total annual overhead assigned to a unit of production

104.

If the sine of angle A is given as K, what would be the tangent of angle A?

a)

aK/h

b)

hK/a

c)

ha/K

d)

oK/a

105.

In finding the distance, d, between two points, which equation is the appropriate one to use?

a)

d = √ (x1 – x2)^2 + (y1 – y2)^2

b)

d = √ (x1^2 – x2^2) + (y1^2 – y2^2)

c)

d = √ (x1 – y1)^2 + (x2 – y2)^2

d)

d = √ (x2 – x1)^2 + (y2 – y1)^2

106.

The equation y = a1 + a2.x is an algebraic expression for which the following choices?

a)

a cosine expansion series

b)

projectile motion

c)

projectile energy

d)

a straight line

107.

What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?

a)

scalar

b)

resultant

c)

tensor

d)

moment

108.

What type of curve is generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion about an axis, while travelling with a constant speed, v, parallel to the axis?

a)

a cycloid

b)

an epicycloid

c)

a hypocycloid

d)

a helix

109.

All of the following statements about the electron structure of atom are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Electrons of highest energy are located in the outer orbitals

b)

Each orbital can contain one electron

c)

K, L, M, etc. shells are designation representing the principal quantum number n = 1, 2, 3 etc.

d)

Each shell may contain up to n^2 orbitals, but not exceeding

110.

All of the following are characteristics of waves, EXCEPT:

a)

Energy of a wave varies with the square of its amplitude

b)

Interference is interaction of waves. The observed effect is based on the principle of superposition

c)

Wave frequency changes on entering a medium where the velocity of propagation is changed

d)

Diffraction, or bending of a wave, occurs around the edges of obstacles

111.

All of the statements about electromagnetic waves are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves that consist of mutually coupled, changing eclectic and magnetic fields

b)

Directions of the electric field, of the magnetic field, and of propagation are mutually perpendicular

c)

Field intensity changes take place, but no displacement of mass occurs in the path of electromagnetic waves

d)

Electric field maxima and minima occur out of phase with those of the associated magnetic field

112.

All of the following statements about sound are correct. EXCEPT:

a)

Sound is propagated by longitudinal compressional waves

b)

Velocity of sound in solids may be calculated from their elastic modulus and density

c)

Velocity of sound in gases is independent of pressure

d)

Sound waves do not exhibit refraction in passing between media

113.

Frequency f of monochromatic yellow light which as a wavelength λ of 589 nm (nanometers) in vacuum is nearest to:

a)

295, 000 Ghz

b)

510, 000 Ghz

c)

589, 000 Ghz

d)

1, 020, 000 Ghz

114.

What is a possible outcome of an experiment called?

a)

a sample space

b)

a random point

c)

an event

d)

a finite set

115.

In probability theory, what is the set of all possible outcomes of an experiment called?

a)

a set of random events

b)

a fuzzy set

c)

a cumulative distributive

d)

a sample space

116.

How can the values of a random variable defined over a sample space be described?

a)

always continuous

b)

always numerical

c)

strictly nonzero

d)

defined only over a finite horizon

117.

If two random variables are independently distributed, what is their relationship?

a)

They are not identically distributed

b)

They are mutually exclusive

c)

They are uncorrelated

d)

(A) or (B)

118.

Which of the following probability is not valid?

a)

The probability of an event is always positive and less than or equal to one

b)

If E_0 is an event which cannot occur in the sample space, the probability of E_0 is zero

c)

If events E_1 and E_2 are mutually exclusive, then the probability of both events occurring is zero

d)

If events E_1 and E_2 are mutually exclusive, then P (E_1 + E_2) = P(E_1) + P(E_2) – P(E_1 E_2)

119.

If y = cos x, what is dy/dx?

a)

sec x

b)

–sec x

c)

csc x

d)

–sin x

120.

Which of the following does not illustrate the effect of temperature or pressure on gas solubility?

a)

Air bubbles form on the sides of a warm glass of water

b)

Soda pop is bottled under pressure

c)

Boiling frees water of gases

d)

Air is more humid on rainy days

121.

The chemical process which occurs when water is added to cement is

a)

oxidation

b)

Brownian movement

c)

plastic flow

d)

hydration

122.

An amphoteric hydroxide is one which:

a)

has a valence of -2

b)

has been craed by bombardment with high energy protons

c)

reacts violently with water

d)

may act as either a base or an acid in chemical reactions

123.

The element tin has ten different stable isotopes. The atomic nuclei of all isotopes have the same:

a)

number neutrons

b)

number of protons

c)

radius

d)

mass

124.

If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is proportional to the negative of the equation of the same curve, what is the curve?

a)

a hyperbola

b)

a square wave

c)

a sinusoid

d)

a cycloid

125.

Consider a strictly convex function of one variable, x, with a lower bound and upper bound on x. For what value(s) of x will the function be minimized?

a)

at the upper bound of x

b)

strictly between the upper and lower bounds of x

c)

at the lower bound of x

d)

(A) or (B) or (C)

126.

Consider a strictly concave function in one variable, x, with a lower bound an upper bound on x. For what value(s) of x will the function be minimized?

a)

at the upper bound of x

b)

at the lower bound of x

c)

strictly between the upper and lower bounds of x

d)

(A) or (B)

127.

Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at 100°C?

a)

aluminum

b)

bismuth

c)

copper

d)

iron