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ile 1 - obesity part 1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which parts of the brain are primarily involved in the neural network controlling appetite?

a)

Cerebellum, medulla, thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus, limbic system, brainstem

c)

Occipital lobe, parietal lobe, cerebellum

d)

Frontal lobe, temporal lobe, amygdala

2.

What role do neurotransmitters and neuropeptides play in the brain's appetite network?

a)

They only stimulate the appetite network.

b)

They have no effect on caloric intake.

c)

They can stimulate or inhibit the appetite network.

d)

They only inhibit the appetite network.

3.

Which hormones are involved in modifying hypothalamic hunger and satiety mechanisms?

a)

Insulin and cortisol

b)

Leptin and ghrelin

c)

Adrenaline and noradrenaline

d)

Estrogen and testosterone

4.

What role does the hypothalamus play in energy balance?

a)

It stores energy as fat.

b)

It generates signals that modify food intake and energy expenditure.

c)

It directly burns calories.

d)

It produces glucose.

5.

What role does leptin play in the regulation of hunger and satiety?

a)

Increases hunger by stimulating the hypothalamus

b)

Suppresses hunger by acting on the hypothalamus

c)

Has no effect on hunger or satiety

d)

Directly increases glucose metabolism

6.

How does leptin influence peripheral targets in the body?

a)

It only affects the brain and has no peripheral targets

b)

It influences beta cells, immune cells, and others

c)

It solely targets muscle cells

d)

It only affects glucose metabolism

7.

What is the primary function of the hypothalamus in neurohormonal regulation?

a)

Coordinating the gastrointestinal and nervous systems to the endocrine system

b)

Stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas

c)

Suppressing appetite

d)

Increasing gastric acid secretion

8.

What is the role of enteroendocrine cells in the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

They are responsible for gastric acid secretion.

b)

They cause increased appetite by releasing GLP-1RA.

c)

They are specialized endocrine cells that release incretin.

d)

They suppress appetite by releasing GLP-1RA.

9.

What is the function of incretin in the body?

a)

It causes appetite suppression.

b)

It stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.

c)

It increases gastric acid secretion.

d)

It is another name for the orexins.

10.

Which of the following hormones is known to exert anorexigenic responses in the brain?

a)

Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

b)

Ghrelin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Adrenaline

11.

What is the primary function of anorexigenic hormones released from the gut?

a)

Stimulate appetite

b)

Suppress appetite

c)

Increase heart rate

d)

Enhance digestion

12.

Which hormone is released from the stomach and impacts hunger sensations?

a)

Leptin

b)

Insulin

c)

Ghrelin

d)

PYY

13.

What is the role of PYY in the hormonal circuit?

a)

It binds to receptors on orexigenic neurons only.

b)

It binds to receptors on anorexigenic neurons only.

c)

It binds to receptors on both orexigenic and anorexigenic neurons.

d)

It does not bind to any receptors.

14.

What is the ultimate effect of the peptide hormone-receptor interactions in the hypothalamus?

a)

Increase in blood sugar levels

b)

Changes in the sensation of hunger and satiety

c)

Decrease in metabolic rate

d)

Increase in fat storage

15.

Which hormone is mentioned as decreasing appetite and increasing metabolism?

a)

Ghrelin

b)

Insulin

c)

Leptin

d)

CCK

16.

How does leptin affect appetite when a person is thin?

a)

Leptin levels are higher, decreasing appetite

b)

Leptin levels are lower, increasing appetite

c)

Leptin levels are unchanged

d)

Leptin levels are higher, increasing appetite

17.

What happens to leptin levels in obesity, and what is the body's response?

a)

Leptin levels decrease, and the body becomes more sensitive

b)

Leptin levels increase, and the body becomes resistant

c)

Leptin levels remain constant, and the body becomes more sensitive

d)

Leptin levels decrease, and the body becomes resistant

18.

What is the consequence of losing leptin in mice? (shoutout to dr. amin's fat mice) (sorry mice carrying heavy weight)

a)

The mice become underweight.

b)

The mice show no change in weight.

c)

The mice become overweight.

d)

The mice become more active.

19.

Which hormone is associated with increased levels in obesity?

a)

Leptin

b)

Insulin

c)

PYY

d)

CCK

20.

What is a common failure in the body's response to leptin in obesity?

a)

Increased sensitivity

b)

Leptin resistance

c)

Decreased production

d)

Enhanced response

21.

Which hormone's levels are increased in obesity and is known to stimulate appetite?

a)

Ghrelin

b)

Insulin

c)

PYY

d)

CCK

22.

What happens to anorexigenic hormones in obesity?

a)

They increase

b)

They remain unchanged

c)

They reduce

d)

They fluctuate

23.

What is one of the benefits of reducing weight by 5%?

a)

Increased triglycerides

b)

Lowered blood glucose (A1C)

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Increased need for medications

24.

Why does the FDA require most medications indicated for obesity to induce a 5% body weight reduction?

a)

Increase in mortality

b)

Increase in hypertension

c)

Decrease in mortality

d)

Increase in triglycerides

25.

According to the BMI classification, what range is considered normal weight?

a)

25-29.9

b)

18.5-24.9

c)

30-34.9

d)

Over 40

26.

Which of the following BMI values indicates extreme obesity?

a)

18.5

b)

25

c)

35

d)

Over 40

27.

Based on the classification of overweight and obesity by BMI, what is the BMI range for someone classified as "Overweight"?

a)

18.5-24.9

b)

25-29.9

c)

30.0-34.9

d)

35.0-39.9

28.

What role do adipocytes play in the context of obesity and inflammation?

a)

Adipocytes only store fat and have no other functions.

b)

Adipocytes are involved in hormone production and inflammation.

c)

Adipocytes are responsible for muscle contraction.

d)

Adipocytes are only involved in energy storage.

29.

Which of the following is a cytokine associated with adipocytes?

a)

Leptin

b)

TNF-α

c)

Aromatase

d)

Glycerol

30.

Are all diabetes type 2 patients obese?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

d)

Always

31.

Are all obese patients diabetic?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only in severe cases

d)

Depends on age

32.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for NAFLD?

a)

Male gender

b)

Age

c)

High fiber diet

d)

Obesity

33.

What is the relationship between obesity and MAFLD/NASH as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Obesity leads directly to cirrhosis without any intermediate stages.

b)

Obesity is linked to fatty liver, which can progress to inflammation and cirrhosis.

c)

Obesity has no impact on liver health.

d)

Obesity only affects the liver if combined with drug toxicity.

34.

Which of the following factors is NOT shown as contributing to the progression of liver disease?

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Mitochondrial dysfunction

c)

High carbohydrate diet

d)

Oxidative stress

35.

Which factor is involved in the secretion of pro-fibrogenic factors during the progression to liver cancer?

a)

PDGF, TGFB, TNFα and IL-1

b)

Lipid metabolites

c)

Hyperinsulinemia

d)

ROS

36.

What is the primary function of Resmetirom?

a)

It acts as a pain reliever.

b)

It selectively binds to thyroid hormone response elements.

c)

It increases blood pressure.

d)

It reduces insulin sensitivity.

37.

What is one of the outcomes of Resmetirom's action in the liver?

a)

Increased hepatic triglyceride accumulation

b)

Reduced hepatic triglyceride accumulation

c)

Increased cholesterol levels

d)

Decreased mitochondrial activity

38.

What is one of the effects of GLP-1 on the liver in the context of pharmacological interventions on MASH & MASLD?

a)

Decrease insulin sensitivity

b)

Increase fat oxidation

c)

Reduce lipolysis

d)

Increase lipogenesis

39.

What is one of the mechanisms by which Resmetirom increases energy production in cells?

a)

By increasing lipophagy and β-oxidation

b)

By decreasing mitochondrial biogenesis

c)

By inhibiting lipase activity

d)

By reducing ATP production

40.

How does Resmetirom contribute to reducing oxidative stress in cells?

a)

By increasing ROS production

b)

By limiting ROS

c)

By enhancing cholesterol synthesis

d)

By decreasing mitophagy

41.

Which process is enhanced by Resmetirom to manage damaged mitochondria?

a)

Lipophagy

b)

Mitophagy

c)

Cholesterol synthesis

d)

ROS production

42.

What is a potential consequence of obesity and diabetes on the heart?

a)

Improved cardiac function

b)

Compensated cardiac hypertrophy

c)

Decompensated cardiac hypertrophy

d)

Increased systolic ejection fraction

43.

What happens to the heart as it progresses to failure due to left ventricular enlargement?

a)

Increased systolic and diastolic EF

b)

Reduced systolic and diastolic EF

c)

Unchanged systolic and diastolic EF

d)

Enhanced systolic and diastolic EF

44.

Which of the following hormones induces satiety?

a)

Ghrelin

b)

Leptin

c)

GLP1

d)

Insulin

45.

What is the minimum BMI required for considering adjunct to behavioral modification if there is at least one associated comorbid medical condition?

a)

25 kg/m²

b)

27 kg/m²

c)

30 kg/m²

d)

35 kg/m²

46.

According to the guidelines, what should be done if a patient is motivated to lose weight and has secondary obesity?

a)

Counsel regarding health risks

b)

Medical workup of cause and initiate treatment

c)

Weight maintenance

d)

Weight loss surgery

47.

What is recommended by the guidelines for a patient with a BMI ≥ 30 < 35 with or without risk factors?

a)

Weight maintenance

b)

Weight loss (LCD/exercise/lifestyle modification) lifestyle therapy

c)

Weight loss drug therapy

d)

Weight loss surgery

48.

According to the NIH, what is recommended as the first-line therapy for the treatment of overweight and obesity in adults?

a)

Pharmacological intervention

b)

Non-pharmacological therapy

c)

Surgical procedures

d)

Dietary supplements

49.

How does a GLP1 agonist help in weight loss?

a)

Makes me hungry

b)

Enhances satiety in the brain

c)

Increases GI motility

d)

Decreases metabolism

50.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of GLP1 agonists on weight loss?

a)

Reduces GI motility

b)

Increases metabolism

c)

Increases satiety

d)

Increases lipid metabolism

51.

Which of the following treatments for obesity acts by interfering with fat absorption in the gut?

a)

Phentermine

b)

Orlistat

c)

Bariatric Surgery

d)

Caloric Restriction

52.

What is the primary mechanism by which bariatric surgery aids in obesity treatment?

a)

Suppressing appetite

b)

Limiting food intake

c)

Increasing physical activity

d)

Enhancing fat tissue maintenance

53.

Which of the following is a lipase inhibitor used for the chronic management of obesity?

a)

Phentermine-topiramate

b)

Liraglutide

c)

Orlistat

d)

Bupropion ER/naltrexone ER

54.

Which agent is a GLP-1 receptor agonist approved for obesity management?

a)

Orlistat

b)

Liraglutide

c)

Lorcaserin

d)

Bupropion ER/naltrexone ER

55.

Which combination is found in the product Contrave for obesity management?

a)

Phentermine and topiramate

b)

Bupropion ER and naltrexone ER

c)

Orlistat and liraglutide

d)

Lorcaserin and phentermine

56.

Which of the following agents is approved by the FDA for short-term weight loss?

a)

Phentermine

b)

Metformin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Atorvastatin

57.

What is the maximum recommended duration for using noradrenergic agents for weight loss?

a)

4 weeks

b)

8 weeks

c)

12 weeks

d)

16 weeks

58.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of sympathomimetic amines used in short-term weight loss therapy?

a)

Inhibit serotonin reuptake

b)

Stimulate CNS activity and suppress appetite

c)

Block dopamine receptors

d)

Increase insulin sensitivity

59.

Which of the following is NOT a common adverse drug reaction (ADR) of noradrenergic agents?

a)

Xerostomia

b)

Insomnia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Dizziness

60.

Which condition is a contraindication for the use of noradrenergic agents in weight loss therapy?

a)

Controlled hypertension

b)

Active coronary disease

c)

Mild anxiety

d)

Seasonal allergies

61.

What is the primary site of action for Orlistat in anti-obesity treatment?

a)

Brain

b)

Stomach

c)

Pancreas

d)

Small intestine

62.

What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of Orlistat?

a)

Inhibits carbohydrate absorption

b)

Inhibits pancreatic and intestinal lipase activity

c)

Increases protein synthesis

d)

Enhances glucose uptake

63.

What should be monitored in patients taking Orlistat to assess potential hepatotoxicity?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Liver function tests (LFTs)

c)

Heart rate

d)

Respiratory rate

64.

Why might supplementation with fat-soluble vitamins be necessary for patients taking Orlistat?

a)

Increased absorption of vitamins

b)

Decreased absorption of vitamins

c)

Enhanced vitamin metabolism

d)

Reduced vitamin excretion

65.

What is the minimum BMI required for adults to be prescribed Orlistat if they have at least one weight-related condition?

a)

25 kg/m²

b)

27 kg/m²

c)

30 kg/m²

d)

35 kg/m²

66.

Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with Orlistat?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Fatty/oily stools

c)

Improved digestion

d)

Increased energy levels

67.

What is the mechanism of action of phentermine in the medication Qsymia?

a)

Blocks sodium channels

b)

Acts as an appetite suppressant

c)

Enhances GABA(A) activity

d)

Inhibits carbonic anhydrase

68.

Which adverse drug reaction (ADR) is associated with the use of Qsymia?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hyperkalemia

69.

What is a contraindication for the use of Qsymia?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperlipidemia

70.

Which of the following is a monitoring parameter for patients taking Qsymia?

a)

Liver enzymes

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Cholesterol levels

d)

White blood cell count

71.

Which of the following conditions would prevent a patient from using Phentermine/Topiramate ER?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Overactive thyroid

c)

Diabetes

d)

Dyslipidemia

72.

What is the primary mechanism of action for Naltrexone in the medication Contrave?

a)

It enhances POMC cell production.

b)

It reduces cravings by acting as an opioid antagonist.

c)

It increases the release of alpha-MSH and beta-endorphin.

d)

It suppresses appetite by increasing A1C levels.

73.

How does Bupropion contribute to the mechanism of action in Contrave?

a)

It reduces cravings by acting as an opioid antagonist.

b)

It enhances POMC cell production and release of alpha-MSH and beta-endorphin.

c)

It decreases the feeling of fullness.

d)

It increases the incidence of food cravings.

74.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Naltrexone/bupropion ER (Contrave)?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Insomnia

d)

Headache

75.

What is one of the adverse drug reactions (ADRs) associated with Naltrexone/bupropion ER (Contrave)?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Constipation

c)

Weight gain

d)

Hypotension

76.

Which monitoring parameter is important for patients taking Naltrexone/bupropion ER (Contrave)?

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Renal and hepatic function

c)

Cholesterol levels

d)

Vision acuity

77.

For which condition is Victoza primarily used?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes

c)

Obesity

d)

High cholesterol

78.

What is the required weight loss percentage after 16 weeks of using Saxenda to continue its use?

a)

2%

b)

4%

c)

5%

d)

10%

79.

Which of the following is a mechanism of action for Liraglutide (Saxenda)?

a)

Increases food intake

b)

Slows gastric emptying

c)

Increases body weight

d)

Reduces brain activity

80.

For which of the following conditions is liraglutide NOT used as a treatment?

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Obesity

c)

Overweight with comorbidities

d)

Type 2 diabetes

81.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Liraglutide (Saxenda)?

a)

Inhibits GLP-1 receptor in the brain

b)

Activates GLP-1 receptor in the brain

c)

Blocks GLP-1 receptor in the stomach

d)

Stimulates GLP-1 receptor in the liver

82.

Which of the following is a contraindication for using Liraglutide (Saxenda)?

a)

History of hypertension

b)

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

c)

Mild liver disease

d)

Type 1 diabetes

83.

What is one of the adverse drug reactions (ADRs) associated with Liraglutide (Saxenda)?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Nausea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Rash

84.

Which parameter should be monitored when a patient is on Liraglutide (Saxenda)?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Weight

c)

Vision

d)

Skin condition

85.

According to the guidelines, after how many weeks should the efficacy of Naltrexone/bupropion ER be reassessed?

a)

8 weeks

b)

12 weeks

c)

16 weeks

d)

20 weeks

86.

Under what condition should Liraglutide be discontinued according to the guidelines?

a)

If less than 5% baseline weight is lost

b)

If less than 4% baseline weight is lost

c)

If more than 5% baseline weight is lost

87.

Which of the following is a common adverse drug reaction (ADR) associated with GLP-1 agonists?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Nausea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Rash

88.

What is the primary function of tirzepatide (Mounjaro) as approved by the FDA?

a)

To treat type 1 diabetes

b)

To improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes

c)

To cure obesity

d)

To replace insulin therapy

89.

What is the secondary objective of using tirzepatide in treatment?

a)

Increase in insulin production

b)

Reduction in A1C and other cardiometabolic parameters

c)

Complete cure of diabetes

d)

Weight gain management

90.

Which medication contains the same active ingredient as Wegovy but at a lower dose?

a)

Mounjaro

b)

Ozempic

c)

Tirzepatide

d)

Semaglutide

91.

What is the role of the DPP-4 enzyme in the metabolism of GLP-1 and GIP?

a)

It metabolizes GLP-1 and GIP.

b)

It enhances the secretion of GLP-1 and GIP.

c)

It blocks the action of GLP-1 analogs.

d)

It increases insulin release.

92.

Which of the following is a function of GLP-1 in the pancreas?

a)

Stimulates insulin release.

b)

Increases fatty acid uptake.

c)

Slows gastric emptying.

d)

Suppresses hunger.

93.

How do DPP-4 inhibitors affect the DPP-4 enzyme?

a)

They block the DPP-4 enzyme.

b)

They enhance the DPP-4 enzyme activity.

c)

They convert DPP-4 into GLP-1.

d)

They stimulate glucagon secretion.

94.

What effect does GIP have on fat tissue?

a)

Increases fatty acid and glucose uptake.

b)

Suppresses glucagon secretion.

c)

Slows gastric emptying.

d)

Stimulates insulin release.

95.

What is the relationship between solubility and permeability in the context of drug absorption?

a)

High solubility ensures dissolution but hinders passage across lipophilic membranes.

b)

High solubility hinders dissolution and passage across all membranes.

c)

Low solubility ensures dissolution in the aqueous environment of the gut.

d)

Low solubility enhances passage across hydrophilic membranes.

96.

Which of the following is a physicochemical property that affects drug absorption?

a)

Age

b)

Gastric emptying time

c)

Lipophilicity of the drug

d)

Blood flow through GI tract

97.

How does gastric bypass surgery affect drug absorption?

a)

It increases drug solubility.

b)

It makes it harder to absorb drugs.

c)

It enhances the stereochemical nature.

d)

It stabilizes the drug.

98.

What type of drugs pass through easier to the liver and systemic circulation?

a)

Hydrophilic drugs

b)

Lipophilic drugs

c)

Ionic drugs

d)

Neutral drugs