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Unit 3 Bioscience/Biotech

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. Proteins are large polymers made up of:

a)
Amino acids
b)
Fatty acids
c)
Nucleotides
d)
Monosaccharides
2.

The ___________ structure in the organization of proteins is caused by hydrogen bonding between hydrogens on amino groups and oxygens from carboxyl groups farther along the chain.

a)
primary
b)
tertiary
c)
quaternary
d)
secondary
3.

Which organelle is involved in joining amino acids to form a polypeptide chain?

a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Ribosome
d)
Mitochondria
4.

Much of the DNA of cells contains instructions to build proteins. Why are proteins so important?

a)
Proteins are only important for energy production.
b)
Proteins are not involved in any cellular processes.
c)
Proteins are primarily used for storing genetic information.
d)
Proteins are crucial for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.
5.

The process of building an mRNA molecule from the DNA molecule is called:

a)
Mutation
b)
Transcription
c)
Replication
d)
Translation
6.

Biomanufactured enzymes are often used in food production. How are these enzymes manufactured?

a)
Biomanufactured enzymes are manufactured through fermentation of microorganisms.
b)
Biomanufactured enzymes are synthesized using chemical processes.
c)
Biomanufactured enzymes are produced by heating animal tissues.
d)
Biomanufactured enzymes are extracted from plants.
7.

What enzyme is used in the food industry to modify oil and fat?

a)
Amylase
b)
Cellulase
c)
Lipase
d)
Protease
8.

What is a technique to detect a specific antigen or antibody?

a)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
b)
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
c)
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d)
Western blotting
9.

Why do domesticated animals produce antibodies in response to nonself antigens?

a)
To protect against foreign invaders.
b)
To increase their energy levels.
c)
To enhance their physical appearance.
d)
To attract potential mates.
10.

Which of the following is a true statement related to antigen testing?

a)

Cross-reactivity occurs when the reaction of an antibody is to an identical antigen.

b)

Most antibody-antigen reactions are very specific.

c)

Specificity is the tendency of an antibody to bind with many antigens.

d)

The greater the affinity, the less stable the reaction and the harder it is to detect.

11.

When testing enzyme activity, what would happen if the level of substrate concentration were reduced?

a)
The enzyme activity would remain unchanged.
b)
The enzyme would become inactive.
c)
The enzyme activity would decrease.
d)
The enzyme activity would increase.
12.

What is a lab method that uses electrical currents to separate proteins from each other?

a)
Chromatography
b)
Spectrophotometry
c)
Centrifugation
d)

SDS-PAGE

13.

What happens to the antibodies in an immunoassay kit if specific proteins (antigens) are being tested?

a)

Change color

b)

Change temperature

c)

Become denatured

d)

Release oxygen

14.

Bioprocessing a protein often involves growing cells in carefully controlled environments using containers called ________.

a)
fermenters
b)
incubators
c)
reactors
d)
bioreactors
15.

Misty uses a chemical compound to break down proteins in a sample. She is most likely using:

a)
nucleases
b)
carbohydrases
c)
lipases
d)
proteases
16.

Proteins developed by the immune system that recognize foreign molecules

a)
Vitamins
b)
Antibodies
c)
Hormones
d)
Enzymes
17.
  1. What does amylase do? 

a)
Amylase converts proteins into amino acids.
b)
Amylase synthesizes fats from sugars.
c)
Amylase helps in the absorption of vitamins.
d)
Amylase breaks down starches into sugars.
18.

X-ray crystallography was used to determine the complex ____________ structures of proteins

a)
two-dimensional
b)

linear-primary

c)

three-dimensional-tertiary

d)
flat
19.

In an ELISA assay, ________ and ________ are added to facilitate a color change.

a)
antibody-only solution, color reagent
b)
buffer solution, enzyme inhibitor
c)
antigen, colorimetric agent
d)

enzyme, substrate

20.

This reagent detects the presence of peptide bonds in order to determine if there are proteins in a sample

a)
Biuret reagent
b)
Acetic acid
c)
Sodium hydroxide
d)
  1. ELISA

21.

Which of the following techniques is designed for separating and purifying proteins according to their size?

a)
Size exclusion chromatography (SEC)
b)
Reverse phase chromatography
c)
Ion exchange chromatography
d)
Affinity chromatography
22.

Which of the following techniques uses an electrical current to separate and analyze proteins according to their size and charge?

a)
Mass Spectrometry
b)
Chromatography
c)
Western Blotting
d)
Electrophoresis
23.

How does heat denature proteins?

a)
  1. It breaks bonds involved in the folding of the proteins.

b)

It forces the creation of extra hydrogen bonds.

c)

It causes proteins to become tightly coiled and rigid.

d)

It oxidizes carbon atoms in the amino acid groups.

24.

What is the maximum dilution that gives visible agglutination called?

a)

avidity

b)

titer

c)

epitope

d)

guttation

25.

When are proteins functional?

a)

when a catalyst is present

b)

when in their folded configuration

c)

when in their primary configuration

d)

when the hydrogen bonds break

26.

How are chemical reactions in living things catalyzed?

a)

by collagens

b)

by enzymes

c)

by hormones

d)

by substrates

27.

What protein structure refers to the order and type of amino acids found in a polypeptide?

a)
Secondary structure
b)
Quaternary structure
c)
Tertiary structure
d)
Primary structure
28.

The structure of a protein resulting from the association of two or more polypeptide chains

a)
Quaternary structure
b)
Primary structure
c)
Secondary structure
d)
Tertiary structure
29.

Biomanufactured enzymes are often used in food production. How are these enzymes manufactured?

a)

they are extracted from plant sources

b)

they are grown from enzymatic seeds

c)

they are harvested from natural sources

d)

they are made from transgenic bacteria and fungi

30.

What is the strength of the reaction between the reactive sites on the antibody and antigen?  

a)

affinity

b)

agglutination

c)

avidity

d)

hemagglutination

31.

What is the primary function of an antigen?  

a)
To provide nutrients to cells.
b)

To identify cells as self or nonself.

c)
To transport oxygen in the blood.
d)
To act as a hormone in the body.
32.

What is a process used to obtain higher purity of proteins that involves running the protein mixture through a column of material that will allow the proteins to be separated as they flow through?

a)
Chromatography
b)
Electrophoresis
c)
Dialysis
d)
Precipitation
33.

If the 20 different amino acids have the same basic chemical arrangement, what causes them to be different?

a)
The presence of sulfur in some amino acids.
b)
The side chains (R groups) of the amino acids.
c)
The order of amino acids in a protein chain.
d)
The number of carbon atoms in the backbone.
34.

Lactase is an enzyme that breaks down:

a)
lactose
b)
sucrose
c)
fructose
d)
glucose
35.

What does amylase do?

a)

Breaks down starch

b)

Breaks down proteins

c)

Speeds up the chemical reactions

d)

Breaks down fat

36.

Which recombinant protein is widely used to digest milk proteins for making cheeses?

a)

Casein

b)

Chymosin (rennet)

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

DNA ligase

37.

Bioprocessing a protein often involves growing cells in carefully controlled environments using containers called ________.

a)

Bioreactors

b)

Proteomes

c)

Centrifuges

d)

Chromatography

38.

What is recombinant bovine somatotropin (rbST) used for?

a)

to increase milk production in dairy cattle

b)

to increase the size of newborn calves

c)

to prevent horns from forming on calves

d)

to produce high quality cheese at a lower price

39.

Electrophoresis is a process which enables the sorting of molecules based on size. In the process, agarose gels are submerged in a solution, which conducts electric current and controls the pH of the solution during electrophoresis. How is this solution classified?  

a)

solute

b)

reagent

c)

concentrate

d)

buffer

40.

What would be used to detect the presence of soluble proteins?  

a)

acid

b)

reagent

c)

base

d)

buffer

41.

What product was one of the first practical applications of bioengineering?

a)

Insulin

b)

cellulosic ethanol

c)

cloned dairy cattle

d)

strawberries engineered to remain on the shelf longer

42.

What enzyme used in the food industry modifies oil and fat?

a)
Lipase
b)
Amylase
c)
Protease
d)
Cellulase
43.

Alpha helices and β-pleated sheets represent the ________ structure of a protein.

a)
secondary
b)
tertiary
c)
quaternary
d)
primary
44.

Messenger RNA was discovered in 1961 by:

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Walter Gilbert

c)

Khorana and Nirenberg

d)
James Watson and Francis Crick
45.

An advantage of using bacterial cells to express proteins is that ________.

a)
they require complex growth conditions.
b)
they produce proteins with low yield.
c)
they are unable to fold proteins correctly.
d)
they can produce proteins quickly and in large quantities.
46.

Why are mammals like goats and cows often the best choice for producing certain human proteins?

a)

They can produce them in the milk without harming the animal

b)

The proteins grow best in mammal hair

c)

Bacteria reproduce too slowly to be effective

d)

They are easier to raise than reptiles

47.

Label the parts of the enzyme model

48.
Question Image

Match the following Enzyme Concepts

a)

Enzyme

1.

A protein that Speeds Up Chemical Reactions

b)

Active Site

2.

The Place where the Enzyme matches with the Substrate

c)

Substrate

3.

Material enzyme is going to do work on

d)

Protein

4.

The biomolecule enzymes are made of

e)

It takes more/less energy to do work when enzymes are present....

5.

Less, work is done faster (More Helpers)

49.

The order of ​ (a)   determines the ​ (b)   of a protein which determines the ​ (c)   of a protein

Choose from the below words
Shape
Amino Acids
Function
50.

Label the Following Diagram

51.

Label the diagram of transcription provided.

52.

A mutation occurs that creates a new DNA sequence. DNA: TAC-TCG GGA. What amino acid sequence would this produce?​​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Lys-Arg-Thr
Met-Val-Val
Met-Ser-Pro
53.

Click on the place where TRANSLATION is happening

54.

The mRNA leaves the ​ (a)   to find the ribosome to make proteins.

Choose from the below words
nucleus
cell
nucleotide
organelle
55.

The diagram shows a cellular process in which a double-stranded molecule of nucleic acid gives rise to a single-stranded molecule of nucleic acid.​ Place the terms that correctly describe the process: (a)   is ​ (b)   into ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
DNA
Transcribed
RNA
Translated
56.

In what part of the cell does translation occur?

57.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
Adding DNA from one organism into the DNA of another
b)
DNA which has been changed over generations by natural selection
c)
DNA that causes genetic disorders
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
58.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

59.

________ are used to ________ DNA pieces by ________

a)

Restriction enzymes, connect, fission

b)

Restriction enzymes, isolate, "snipping"

c)

Plasmids, connect, fission

d)

Plasmids, isolate, "snipping"

60.

The GloFish was created using which type of biotechnology?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

cloning

c)

artificial selection

61.
What is this
a)
plasmid
b)
recombinant bacterium
c)
recombinant DNA
d)
sticky ends
62.

Label the parts of the monomer

63.

The shape of DNA is called a ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Double Helix
single helix
64.

Match the following

a)

tRNA

1.

type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome

b)

mRNA

2.

type of RNA that carries instructions from the DNA to the ribosome

c)

rRNA

3.

type of RNA that makes up part of the ribosome