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Pharmacology Quiz

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pharmacodynamics is defined as…

4 lines
2.

What is Pharmacokinetic?

4 lines
3.

The four main processes in pharmacokinetics are…

a)

ADME (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion)

b)

Administration, Dilution, Monitoring, Elimination

c)

Accumulation, Diffusion, Modification, Excretion

d)

None of the above

4.

Absorption is defined as…

a)

Passage of drug into urine

b)

Passage of drug into bile

c)

Passage of drug from site of administration into bloodstream

d)

Distribution of drug to tissues

5.

Which is an enteral route of drug administration?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Inhalation

6.

Which is a parenteral route of drug administration?

a)

Rectal

b)

Oral

c)

Intravenous

d)

Sublingual

7.

Which is a topical route of drug administration?

a)

Rectal

b)

Oral

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Skin ointment

8.

The cell membrane is mainly composed of…

a)

Proteins only

b)

Lipid bilayer with proteins

c)

Carbohydrates only

d)

RNA and DNA

9.

Water moves freely across cell membranes by…

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Pinocytosis

10.

Which is a type of passive transfer of drugs?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Pinocytosis

11.

Which process requires energy?

a)

Filtration

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Osmosis

12.

Which process involves engulfing particles into vesicles?

a)

Exocytosis

b)

Endocytosis (Pinocytosis)

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

13.

Simple diffusion occurs…

a)

Against concentration gradient

b)

Along concentration gradient

c)

Only with carriers

d)

Only with energy

14.

Which factor increases diffusion of a drug?

a)

High ionization

b)

High lipid solubility

c)

High polarity

d)

High hydrophilicity

15.

The greater the lipid/water partition coefficient…

a)

The slower the diffusion

b)

The greater the diffusion

c)

No effect on diffusion

d)

Stops the diffusion

16.

In alkaline urine, weak acids are…

a)

More unionized

b)

More ionized → excreted rapidly

c)

Unaffected

d)

Converted into bases

17.

In acidic urine, weak bases are…

a)

More ionized → excreted rapidly

b)

More unionized → retained

c)

Not excreted

d)

Absorbed again

18.

Cmax represents…

a)

Lowest plasma concentration

b)

Maximum plasma drug concentration (peak)

c)

Time to reach peak concentration

d)

Total drug absorbed

19.

Tmax represents…

a)

Total amount of drug absorbed

b)

Time to reach peak plasma concentration

c)

Maximum concentration of drug in plasma

d)

Bioavailability

20.

AUC represents…

a)

Peak concentration of drug

b)

Time of maximum concentration

c)

Total exposure of body to drug (extent of absorption)

d)

Elimination rate

21.

Bioavailability is defined as…

a)

Rate of drug distribution

b)

Proportion of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation

c)

Rate of drug elimination

d)

Binding of drug to protein

22.

Which factor decreases bioavailability of oral drugs?

a)

Hepatic first-pass metabolism

b)

IV administration

c)

High lipid solubility

d)

Absence of metabolism

23.

Which is an example of gut first-pass effect?

a)

Gastric acid destruction of drug

b)

Renal elimination

c)

Hepatic metabolism

d)

Biliary excretion

24.

Factors that may alter bioavailability include…

a)

Dosage form and drug formulation

b)

Particle size and dissolution rate

c)

Drug–drug interactions

d)

All of the above

25.

Weak acids are better absorbed in…

a)

Alkaline medium

b)

Acidic medium (stomach)

c)

Neutral medium

d)

Plasma only

26.

Weak bases are better absorbed in…

a)

Acidic medium

b)

Alkaline medium (intestine)

c)

Neutral medium

d)

Plasma only

27.

A drug with extensive first-pass metabolism will have…

a)

High oral bioavailability

b)

Low oral bioavailability

c)

100% bioavailability

d)

No systemic effect

28.

ADME stands for…

a)

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

b)

Administration, Dilution, Modification, Excretion

c)

Accumulation, Diffusion, Monitoring, Elimination

d)

Absorption, Dilution, Metabolism, Excretion

29.

The ionized form of a drug is usually…

a)

Lipid soluble

b)

Polar and water soluble

c)

Easily crosses membranes

d)

Nonpolar

30.

Drugs absorbed from GI tract first reach…

a)

Systemic circulation

b)

Portal circulation

c)

Lymphatic circulation

d)

Renal circulation

31.

After absorption, drugs are distributed into…

a)

Plasma, interstitial fluid, intracellular fluid

b)

Plasma only

c)

Bone only

d)

Fat only

32.

A drug confined only to blood compartment shows…

a)

Single compartment distribution

b)

Two compartment distribution

c)

Multi-compartment distribution

d)

Tissue reservoir distribution

33.

Drugs of high molecular weight, such as heparin and dextran, are mainly…

a)

Multi-compartment distributed

b)

Single compartment (intravascular)

c)

Tissue reservoir drugs

d)

Two compartment distributed

34.

Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) is defined as…

a)

Real anatomical volume of blood

b)

Hypothetical volume required to contain drug at plasma concentration

c)

Total body water

d)

Intracellular fluid only

35.

Total drug amount in the body can be calculated as…

a)

Dose ÷ Clearance

b)

Vd × Plasma concentration

c)

AUC ÷ Cmax

d)

Bioavailability × Tmax

36.

Vd is increased in all of the following EXCEPT…

a)

Renal failure

b)

Fluid retention

c)

Liver failure

d)

Dehydration

37.

A patient with dehydration will show…

a)

Increased Vd

b)

Decreased Vd

c)

No change in Vd

d)

Infinite Vd

38.

The major plasma protein binding drug is…

a)

Globulin

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Transferrin

39.

The free fraction of a drug is…

a)

Pharmacologically active

b)

Not filtered

c)

Not metabolized

d)

Inactive

40.

Highly protein-bound drugs include all EXCEPT…

a)

Phenylbutazone

b)

Dicoumarol

c)

Tolbutamide

d)

Penicillin

41.

Passage of drugs into CNS is limited by…

a)

Placental barrier

b)

Blood-brain barrier

c)

Mucosal barrier

d)

Lymphatic circulation

42.

Only which type of drugs cross BBB easily?

a)

Lipid soluble (non-ionized)

b)

Water soluble

c)

Large MW polar drugs

d)

Protein-bound drugs

43.

Placental barrier consists of…

a)

Lipid cellular barrier (fetal villi epithelium + capillary endothelium)

b)

Only maternal blood

c)

Bone marrow cells

d)

Amniotic fluid

44.

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of…

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Brain only

c)

Peripheral nerves

d)

Autonomic ganglia

45.

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes…

a)

Only cranial nerves

b)

Neurons outside brain and spinal cord

c)

Brain and spinal cord

d)

CNS glial cells

46.

The PNS is divided into…

a)

CNS and ANS

b)

Somatic and autonomic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

d)

Sensory and motor

47.

Somatic efferent neurons control…

a)

Involuntary smooth muscle contraction

b)

Voluntary skeletal muscle contraction

c)

Endocrine secretion

d)

Cardiac pacemaker

48.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates…

a)

Conscious skeletal muscle activity

b)

Vital body functions without conscious effort

c)

Higher cognitive functions

d)

Vision and hearing

49.

The ANS is divided into…

a)

Sympathetic and somatic systems

b)

Sympathetic, parasympathetic, enteric

c)

Parasympathetic only

d)

Motor and sensory

50.

The sympathetic division is mainly active in…

a)

Rest and digestion

b)

Stressful situations (fight or flight)

c)

Sleep regulation

d)

Immune response

51.

The parasympathetic division is mainly active in…

a)

Exercise

b)

Trauma

c)

Rest-and-digest situations

d)

Hypoglycemia

52.

Which division is essential for life (digestion and elimination)?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Enteric only

53.

Which ANS division usually balances sympathetic actions?

a)

Somatic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Enteric

d)

Central