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Chapter 23 Review Updated - Fall 2024

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The two main components of the respiratory system are:

a)

lungs and airways

b)

heart and blood vessels

c)

stomach and intestines

d)

kidneys and bladder

2.

Which of the following lists the main functions of the respiratory system?

a)

passageway for air, conditions inhaled air, site for gas exchange

b)

Digestion, absorption, excretion, circulation

c)

Movement, support, heat production, protection

d)

Hormone production, metabolism, growth, reproduction

3.

The two ways we can organize the structures of the respiratory system are: (A) by anatomical division into upper and lower respiratory tracts, and (B) by functional division into conducting and respiratory zones. Which of the following correctly lists the structures in each category?

a)

Strucural with upper and lower respiratory track

Functional with conducting and respiratory zone.

b)

Upper: trachea, bronchi, lungs; Lower: nose, pharynx, larynx; Conducting: alveoli only; Respiratory: nose to terminal bronchioles.

c)

Upper: nose, trachea, lungs; Lower: pharynx, larynx, bronchi; Conducting: pharynx to alveoli; Respiratory: nose to bronchi.

d)

Upper: alveoli, bronchi; Lower: nose, larynx; Conducting: larynx to alveoli; Respiratory: nose to trachea.

4.

The terminal bronchiole is called “terminal” because:

a)

it is the last part of the conducting zone of the respiratory tract.

b)

it is the first part of the respiratory zone.

c)

it connects directly to the trachea.

d)

it is the largest airway in the lungs.

5.

The general structure of respiratory mucosa consists of which of the following?

a)

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells and underlying lamina propria

b)

Stratified squamous epithelium with keratinization

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli

d)

Transitional epithelium with umbrella cells

6.

The type of epithelium found in the upper respiratory system all the way to the lobar bronchi is:

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

d)

Transitional epithelium

7.

The epithelium changes from the upper respiratory system toward the alveoli in which of the following ways?

a)

It transitions from pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium to simple squamous epithelium.

b)

It remains pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium throughout.

c)

It transitions from simple squamous epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium.

d)

It becomes thicker and more layered toward the alveoli.

8.

The exceptions to the epithelium of the respiratory mucosa and the reasons for these exceptions are:

a)

Olfactory region and vocal cords, due to specialized function and protection from abrasion

b)

Trachea and bronchi, due to increased mucus production

c)

Alveoli and bronchioles, due to presence of cilia

d)

Nasal vestibule and pharynx, due to increased blood supply

9.

The function of goblet cells of the respiratory mucosa is:

a)

to secrete mucus

b)

to absorb oxygen

c)

to produce surfactant

d)

to filter dust particles

10.

The function of the cilia in the cells of the respiratory mucosa is to:

a)

move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract

b)

produce mucus to trap dust and microbes

c)

absorb oxygen from inhaled air

d)

secrete enzymes to break down pathogens

11.

The structures of the nose include which of the following?

a)

Bones, cartilage, and other tissue

b)

Only bones

c)

Only cartilage

d)

Muscles and tendons

12.

The three main regions of the nasal cavity are listed below. Which of these is the largest region?

a)

Olfactory region

b)

Respiratory region

c)

Vestibular region

d)

Nasolacrimal region

13.

The function of the nasal conchae is to:

a)

increase the surface area of the nasal cavity for warming and humidifying air

b)

produce sound for speech

c)

filter blood in the nasal cavity

d)

support the olfactory bulb

14.

The function of the nasal meatuses is to:

a)

increase the surface area for air filtration and humidification

b)

produce sound for speech

c)

control the movement of the tongue

d)

regulate blood pressure

15.

The narrow posterior opening of the nasal cavity (a pair of openings, one from each side) is known as the (a)   .

16.

The function of the paranasal sinuses is:

a)

to lighten the weight of the skull and produce mucus

b)

to aid in digestion

c)

to pump blood throughout the body

d)

to filter toxins from the blood

17.

List the three regions of the pharynx, starting with the superior portion, and as a reminder – what’s different about the mucosa in these regions.

a)

nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The mucosa changes from ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the nasopharynx to stratified squamous epithelium in the oropharynx and laryngopharynx.

b)

laryngopharynx, oropharynx, and nasopharynx. The mucosa remains the same throughout all regions.

c)

oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx. The mucosa is only ciliated in the laryngopharynx.

d)

nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, and oropharynx. The mucosa is stratified squamous epithelium in all regions.

18.

The function of the auditory tube openings into the nasopharynx is to:

a)

equalize air pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere

b)

produce mucus for the nasal cavity

c)

filter dust particles from inhaled air

d)

regulate the sense of smell

19.

How many pharyngeal tonsils do you have? What do we call them when they are enlarged?

a)

You have one pharyngeal tonsil, and when it is enlarged, it is called an adenoid.

b)

You have two pharyngeal tonsils, and when they are enlarged, they are called tonsillitis.

c)

You have three pharyngeal tonsils, and when they are enlarged, they are called polyps.

d)

You have four pharyngeal tonsils, and when they are enlarged, they are called nodules.

20.

The functions of the larynx include:

a)

Production of sound, protection of the airway, and passage of air to the lungs

b)

Digestion of food and absorption of nutrients

c)

Filtration of blood and production of urine

d)

Regulation of body temperature and hormone secretion

21.

The Valsalva maneuver is defined as which of the following, and what is its purpose?

a)

Abdominal muscles contract to increase abdominal pressure

b)

A rapid inhalation through the nose, used to clear nasal passages.

c)

A slow exhalation with pursed lips, used to improve oxygenation in COPD patients.

d)

A deep breath followed by coughing, used to clear the airways.

22.

The larynx is composed of which of the following structures?

a)

Thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, vocal cords

b)

Mandible, maxilla, zygomatic bone, nasal bone

c)

Trachea, bronchi, alveoli, diaphragm

d)

Esophagus, stomach, duodenum, jejunum

23.

The largest unpaired cartilage of the larynx is:

a)

Thyroid cartilage

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Arytenoid cartilage

d)

Corniculate cartilage

24.

Identify the two main types of ligaments found within the larynx and their function. One type is further subdivided; differentiate between those.

a)

Intrinsic and extrinsic ligaments; intrinsic ligaments are further subdivided into vocal and vestibular ligaments

b)

intrinsic and extrinsic ligaments; elastic ligaments are further subdivided into vocal and vestibular ligaments.

c)

Anterior and posterior ligaments; anterior ligaments are further subdivided into superior and inferior types.

d)

Medial and lateral ligaments; medial ligaments are further subdivided into superficial and deep layers.

25.

The difference between a ligament and a fold is:

a)

A ligament is a band of fibrous tissue connecting bones, while a fold is a ridge or crease in tissue.

b)

A ligament is a type of muscle, while a fold is a type of bone.

c)

A ligament is a blood vessel, while a fold is a nerve.

d)

A ligament is a joint, while a fold is a cartilage.

26.

The vocal ligaments are attached to which structures on each side of the larynx?

a)

Arytenoid and thyroid cartilages

b)

Cricoid and epiglottis

c)

Hyoid bone and cricoid cartilage

d)

Corniculate and cuneiform cartilages

27.

The glottis is defined as:

a)

The space closing over the larygneal to keep ingested things from entering trachea

b)

The space between the vestibular folds

c)

The space between the vocal folds

d)

The uppermost cartilage of the larynx

28.

The cricoid cartilage is unique because:

a)

it is the only complete ring of cartilage in the airway

b)

it is the largest cartilage in the larynx

c)

it is made entirely of elastic cartilage

d)

it is located above the thyroid cartilage

29.

The function of the epiglottis is to:

a)

prevent food from entering the windpipe during swallowing

b)

help in the production of sound

c)

aid in the digestion of food

d)

regulate the flow of air into the lungs

30.

Identify the two types of muscles found within the larynx and their functions.

a)

Intrinsic and extrinsic muscles; intrinsic control sound production, extrinsic stabilize the larynx

b)

Smooth and cardiac muscles; smooth control swallowing, cardiac control breathing

c)

Flexor and extensor muscles; flexor open the airway, extensor close it

d)

Voluntary and involuntary muscles; voluntary control speech, involuntary control coughing

31.

The three characteristics of sound and what determines each are:

a)

Pitch (determined by frequency), Loudness (determined by amplitude), and Quality (determined by waveform)

b)

Pitch (determined by amplitude), Loudness (determined by frequency), and Quality (determined by speed)

c)

Pitch (determined by speed), Loudness (determined by wavelength), and Quality (determined by frequency)

d)

Pitch (determined by wavelength), Loudness (determined by waveform), and Quality (determined by amplitude)

32.

Young children have higher-pitched voices because:

a)

their vocal cords are shorter and thinner.

b)

they have more air in their lungs.

c)

they speak more frequently than adults.

d)

their mouths are smaller.

33.

Which of the following best describes the location and structure of the trachea?

a)

It is located in the neck and upper chest, with C-shaped cartilage rings and supporting airways.

b)

It is located in the abdomen, with flat cartilage plates and no airways.

c)

It is found only in the nasal cavity, with circular cartilage rings and no ligaments.

d)

It is located in the lower back, with no cartilage and only muscle tissue.

34.

The two branches of the trachea are __________ and __________ and the internal projection caused by the formation of these branches is known as the __________.

(a)  

35.

The structure that runs posterior to the trachea is:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Aorta

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Carotid artery

36.

The bronchial tree describes the flow of air from the trachea to alveoli

a)

Trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, repiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveoli

b)

Trachea, small bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, repiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveoli

c)

Trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, alveoli, smaller bronchi, bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, repiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct

d)

Trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchiole, repiratory bronchiole terminal bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveoli

37.

The main difference between a bronchus and a bronchiole is:

a)

Bronchi have cartilage and a thicker smooth muscle layer, while bronchioles lack cartilage and have a relatively thinner smooth muscle layer.

b)

Bronchioles have cartilage and bronchi do not.

c)

Bronchioles are larger than bronchi and have more cartilage.

d)

Bronchi and bronchioles have identical structures.

38.

Bronchoconstriction and bronchodilation are processes that regulate airflow in the respiratory system. Which statement best explains their roles?

a)

Bronchoconstriction decreases airway diameter, reducing airflow, while bronchodilation increases airway diameter, enhancing airflow.

b)

Bronchoconstriction increases airway diameter, enhancing airflow, while bronchodilation decreases airway diameter, reducing airflow.

c)

Both bronchoconstriction and bronchodilation decrease airflow in the lungs.

d)

Both bronchoconstriction and bronchodilation increase airflow in the lungs.

39.

The structures of the respiratory zone? And how is it differentiated from the conducting zone by which of the following features?

a)

Presence of alveoli for gas exchange

b)

Lined with cilia and mucus

c)

respiratory bronchioloes, alveolar ducts

d)

respiratory bronchioloes, alveolar duct, alveoli

40.

Alveolar pores are:

a)

Small openings in the walls of adjacent alveoli that allow air circulation between them.

b)

Cells that produce surfactant in the alveoli.

c)

Thin walls separating adjacent alveoli.

d)

Flat cells that form the structure of the alveolar wall.

41.

The function of the pulmonary surfactant is to:

a)

Reduce surface tension in the alveoli

b)

Increase blood pressure in the lungs

c)

Transport oxygen in the blood

d)

Stimulate the diaphragm to contract

42.

The structures that make up the respiratory membrane include:

a)

Alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium, and their fused basement membranes

b)

Bronchi, trachea, and alveoli

c)

Pleura, diaphragm, and intercostal muscles

d)

Nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx

43.

Macrophages found in the lungs and their function are:

a)

Alveolar macrophages; they remove debris and pathogens from the alveoli.

b)

Kupffer cells; they filter blood in the liver.

c)

Microglia; they protect neurons in the brain.

d)

Osteoclasts; they break down bone tissue.

44.

Oxygen moves across the respiratory membrane in which direction, and how does this relate to the movement of carbon dioxide?

a)

Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood, while carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the alveoli.

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide both move from the blood into the alveoli.

c)

Oxygen moves from the blood into the alveoli, while carbon dioxide moves from the alveoli into the blood.

d)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide both move from the alveoli into the blood.

45.

The gross anatomy of the lungs includes their lobes, surfaces, regions, special structures, and fissures. Which of the following best describes these anatomical features?

a)

The lungs have lobes separated by fissures, distinct surfaces (costal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic), regions (apex, base), and special structures such as the hilum and cardiac notch.

b)

The lungs are single-lobed organs with no fissures or special structures.

c)

The lungs have three lobes on both sides and lack any distinct surfaces or regions.

d)

The lungs are divided into segments by arteries and veins, with no named fissures or special structures.

46.

The part of the lungs that serves as the gateway for vessels, nerves, and bronchi is called:

a)

Alveolus

b)

Hilum

c)

Pleura

d)

Bronchiole

47.

The lungs are organized into lobes, which are further divided into segments. What are these segments divided into?

a)

Lobules

b)

Bronchioles

c)

Alveoli

d)

Pleura

48.

The two circulations associated with the lungs are:

a)

Pulmonary and bronchial circulations

b)

Systemic and coronary circulations

c)

Renal and hepatic circulations

d)

Cerebral and lymphatic circulations

49.

The lymph drainage of the lungs

a)

Lymph vessels remove excess fluid from the lungs. Lymph, absorbed by lymph vessels, is filtered through lymph nodes

b)

Direct drainage into the thoracic duct only

c)

Drainage exclusively through the pulmonary veins

d)

Lymph drainage bypasses lymph nodes and enters the bloodstream directly

50.

The innervation of the lungs and the significance of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation can be described as:

a)

sympathetic stimulation causing bronchodilation and parasympathetic stimulation causing bronchoconstriction.

b)

The lungs are only innervated by the sympathetic nervous system, which causes bronchoconstriction.

c)

The lungs are only innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system, which causes bronchodilation.

d)

The lungs receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, but both systems cause bronchoconstriction.

51.

The serous membrane that surrounds the lungs is called:

a)

Pericardium

b)

Pleura

c)

Peritoneum

d)

Meninges

52.

Lungs remain inflated due to which of the following reasons?

a)

The presence of negative pressure in the pleural cavity

b)

The contraction of the diaphragm only

c)

The presence of air in the pleural cavity

d)

The rigidity of the lung tissue

53.

Which of the following correctly lists the 4 processes of respiration and describes the direction of oxygen and carbon dioxide movement in each?

a)

Pulmonary ventilation: breathing in and out, Pulmonary Gas exchange: exchange between alveoli air and blood in capillaries, Gas transport: transprt of gases in blood between lungs and systemic cells, Tissue Gas exchange: exchange of gases between blood in capillaries to systemic cells

b)

Pulmonary ventilation, internal respiration, cellular respiration, external respiration; O2 moves out of blood during external respiration and into tissues during internal respiration, CO2 moves into blood during internal respiration and into tissues during external respiration.

c)

Inhalation, exhalation, gas exchange, cellular respiration; O2 moves into tissues during inhalation and out during exhalation, CO2 moves into blood during gas exchange and out during cellular respiration.

d)

Breathing, diffusion, circulation, excretion; O2 moves into blood during excretion and into tissues during diffusion, CO2 moves out of tissues during breathing and out of blood during circulation.

54.

Differentiate between the types of breathing and what each means.

a)

External and internal breathing: External refers to gas exchange in the lungs, internal refers to gas exchange in tissues.

b)

Only one type of breathing exists: cellular breathing, which occurs in the mitochondria.

c)

Breathing types are voluntary and involuntary, both meaning the same process.

d)

Breathing is only classified as aerobic, which means using oxygen.

55.

Which muscles are responsible for breathing during quiet respiration?

a)

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

b)

Biceps and triceps

c)

Quadriceps and hamstrings

d)

Pectoralis major and deltoid

56.

The part of quiet breathing that is an active process is:

a)

inspiration

b)

expiration

c)

both inspiration and expiration

d)

neither inspiration nor expiration

57.

The part of forced breathing that is an active process is:

a)

inhalation

b)

exhalation

c)

expiration

d)

relaxation

58.

The volume of the thoracic cavity during breathing:

a)

increases during inhalation and decreases during exhalation.

b)

decreases during inhalation and increases during exhalation.

c)

remains constant throughout breathing.

d)

increases during both inhalation and exhalation.

59.

Boyle’s Law states that:

a)

the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature

b)

the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant volume

c)

the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant pressure

d)

the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume at constant temperature

60.

Which of the following best describes Dalton’s law?

a)

Dalton’s law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas.

b)

Dalton’s law states that gases in a mixture react chemically to form a new compound.

c)

Dalton’s law states that the pressure of a gas is independent of its volume.

d)

Dalton’s law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is less than the pressure of the most abundant gas.

61.

Henry’s law ? and how it realtes to breathing?

a)

Henry’s law states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure, and this relates to breathing by explaining how oxygen enters the blood from the lungs.

b)

Henry’s law states that gases expand when heated, which explains how air moves in and out of the lungs during breathing.

c)

Henry’s law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume, which explains how the diaphragm helps in breathing.

d)

Henry’s law states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is independent of pressure, which explains why breathing is unaffected by altitude.

62.

Pressure gradient? Which of the following best describes the importance of pressure gradient in breathing?

a)

It drives the movement of air into and out of the lungs.

b)

Pressure move from low to high

c)

Pressure moves from high to low

d)

It regulates the amount of oxygen in the air.

63.

Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of air above a surface and is affected by which of the following?

a)

Altitude, temperature, and humidity

b)

Only the amount of sunlight

c)

The color of the sky

d)

The phase of the moon

64.

What is the standard atmospheric pressure in mmHg? and what can affect it?

(a)  

65.

What does mmHg stand for?

(a)  

66.

Define the following: a. Alveolar volume b. Interpleural pressure c. Pleural cavity d. Intrapulmonary pressure

(a)  

67.

Events of quiet inspiration can be described in terms of pressure as:

a)

The pressure in the lungs decreases below atmospheric pressure.

b)

The pressure in the lungs increases above atmospheric pressure.

c)

The pressure in the lungs remains constant.

d)

The pressure in the lungs equals atmospheric pressure.

68.

Events of quiet expiration in terms of pressure can be described as:

a)

Intrapulmonary pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure

b)

Intrapulmonary pressure becomes less than atmospheric pressure

c)

Atmospheric pressure becomes greater than intrapulmonary pressure

d)

Intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal

69.

how do inhalation and exhalation relate to forced breathing?

a)

They involve active contraction of respiratory muscles.

b)

They only occur during quiet breathing.

c)

They are unrelated to muscle activity.

d)

They occur only during sleep.

70.

What innervates or controls the skeletal muscles of breathing?

(a)  

71.

The respiratory center, located in the brainstem, is divided into regions and plays a key role in the regulation of breathing.

a)

It is located in the brainstem, divided into regions, and regulates breathing.

b)

It is located in the spinal cord and controls heart rate.

c)

It is found in the cerebellum and manages digestion.

d)

It is located in the frontal lobe and controls voluntary movement.

72.

The innervation of skeletal muscles of breathing is provided by:

a)

Phrenic and intercostal nerves

b)

Vagus nerve

c)

Facial nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

73.

Describe the two types of chemoreceptors and explain how they regulate breathing.

a)

Central chemoreceptors: respond to changes in CO2 and pH in cerebrospinal fluid.

b)

Peripheral chemoreceptors: respond to changes in O2, CO2, and pH in blood.

c)

Sagital chemoreceptors: respond to change in temperature

d)

Oppictual Chemoreceptors: respond to changes in CO2 decreasing

74.

The physiology of quiet breathing involves which of the following processes?

a)

Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

b)

Contraction of the abdominal muscles

c)

Active contraction of internal intercostal muscles

d)

Closure of the glottis during inspiration

75.

What is the average respiratory rate per minute?

(a)  

76.

Chemoreceptors can alter breathing rate and depth by:

a)

detecting changes in blood CO2 and pH levels and sending signals to the respiratory center

b)

increasing oxygen uptake directly in the lungs

c)

stimulating muscle contraction in the diaphragm without brain involvement

d)

regulating heart rate to control breathing

77.

What is the most important stimulus affecting breathing rate and depth?

(a)  

78.

You can hold your breath long enough to die (on land in normal conditions).

a)

Yes, but you will pass out and start breathing again before dying.

b)

Yes, it is possible to die by holding your breath on land.

c)

No, your body will not allow you to die this way.

d)

No, holding your breath has no effect on your health.

79.

Other receptors that can alter breathing rate and depth include:

a)

Chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and stretch receptors

b)

Only photoreceptors

c)

Thermoreceptors and olfactory receptors only

d)

Baroreceptors and taste receptors only

80.

Define the following and explain what they do: a. Inhalation reflex b. Sneeze reflex c. Cough reflex

(a)  

81.

Higher brain centers affect breathing by:

a)

voluntarily altering the rate and depth of breathing

b)

regulating oxygen exchange in the alveoli

c)

controlling the contraction of the diaphragm only

d)

initiating the basic rhythm of breathing in the medulla

82.

Breathing is controlled both reflexively and consciously by which of the following mechanisms?

a)

By the brainstem and voluntary control from the cerebral cortex

b)

Only by the spinal cord

c)

Only by the lungs

d)

By the heart and diaphragm alone

83.

Define airflow and what affects it.

(a)  

84.

Pressure gradient affects airflow by:

a)

causing air to move from high to low pressure areas

b)

causing air to move from low to high pressure areas

c)

preventing any movement of air

d)

having no effect on airflow

85.

Resistance is a factor that affects airflow in which way?

a)

It slows down or restricts the movement of air.

b)

It increases the speed of airflow.

c)

It has no effect on airflow.

d)

It changes the direction of airflow.

86.

What two factors affect resistance and how?

(a)  

87.

Regarding compliance, one of the factors that affect resistance from the question above, what two factors affect it and how?

(a)  

88.

Respiratory distress syndrome is best defined as:

a)

A condition characterized by insufficient surfactant production in the lungs, leading to breathing difficulties.

b)

A viral infection that causes inflammation of the airways.

c)

A genetic disorder affecting the red blood cells.

d)

A bacterial infection resulting in lung abscesses.

89.

Minute ventilation is defined as:

a)

The total volume of air breathed in or out per minute

b)

The amount of oxygen absorbed per minute

c)

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiration

d)

The amount of carbon dioxide exhaled per minute

90.

Minute ventilation can be determined by:

a)

Multiplying tidal volume by respiratory rate

b)

Measuring blood pressure

c)

Calculating heart rate times stroke volume

d)

Assessing oxygen saturation

91.

The relationship between minute ventilation, alveolar ventilation, and anatomic dead space is best described as:

a)

Minute ventilation includes both alveolar ventilation and anatomic dead space.

b)

Alveolar ventilation is greater than minute ventilation due to dead space.

c)

Anatomic dead space is the sum of minute and alveolar ventilation.

d)

Minute ventilation is only the air that reaches the alveoli.

92.

Physiologic dead space is defined as the sum of anatomic dead space and alveolar dead space. How is it similar or different from anatomic dead space?

a)

Physiologic dead space includes both anatomic and alveolar dead space, while anatomic dead space only includes the conducting airways.

b)

Physiologic dead space is only found in the alveoli, while anatomic dead space is found in the bronchi.

c)

Anatomic dead space is always larger than physiologic dead space in healthy individuals.

d)

Physiologic dead space refers only to the air in the trachea and bronchi.

93.

The instrument used to measure respiratory volumes is:

a)

Spirometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Thermometer

d)

Sphygmomanometer

94.

Define the following IN NOTES THEN SAY check!!

a. Total lung capacity (#)

b. Vital capacity

c. Inspiratory capacity

d. Functional residual capacity

e. Tidal volume (#)

f. Inspiratory reserve volume

g. Expiratory reserve volume

h. Residual volume

(a)  

95.

Forced expiratory volume ? Determine COPD or CRPD by?

a)

It measures the amount of air exhaled during a forced breath and helps determine airflow limitation in COPD or CRPD.

b)

It measures the oxygen content in the blood to diagnose COPD or CRPD.

c)

It measures the heart rate during exercise to assess COPD or CRPD.

d)

It measures the amount of carbon dioxide inhaled to diagnose COPD or CRPD.

96.

Maximum voluntary ventilation is defined as:

a)

The greatest amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled within one minute by voluntary effort.

b)

The amount of air left in the lungs after a normal exhalation.

c)

The volume of air exchanged during normal breathing.

d)

The maximum amount of oxygen the body can utilize during exercise.

97.

Pulmonary and tissue gas exchange are defined as:

a)

The processes by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the lungs, blood, and tissues.

b)

The movement of blood through the heart chambers only.

c)

The breakdown of food in the digestive system.

d)

The filtration of waste products in the kidneys.

98.

The most abundant gas in our atmosphere is:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Argon

99.

The percentage of oxygen in our atmosphere is:

a)

21%

b)

78%

c)

10%

d)

33%

100.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere is:

a)

160 mmHg

b)

100 mmHg

c)

200 mmHg

d)

80 mmHg

101.

What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in our atmosphere and why is the
number so low when all animals exhale carbon dioxide (where does the CO2 go?)

a)

0.3mmHG , because of the carbon cycle the CO2 goes to plants, animals

b)

0.4mmHG , because of the carbon cycle the CO2 goes to plants, animals

c)

0.9 mmHG , because of the carbon cycle the CO2 goes to plants, animals

d)

0.2 mmHG, because of the carbon cycle the CO2 goes to plants, animals

102.

Is oxygen higher or lower than in the atmosphere and what are the numbers??




(a)  

103.

Is carbon dioxide lower or higher than in the atmosphere and what are the
numbers

(a)  

104.

What drives the movement of oxygen during the pulmonary gas exchange and which
direction does it move?

a)

drives by the partial pressure gradient from alveoli to pulomnary capillary blood

b)

drives by partial volume gradient from pulmonary capillary blood to alveoli

c)

By breathing and exhaling to lead out the mouth

d)

it doesnt go anywhere

105.

What drives the movement of carbon dioxide during the pulmonary gas exchange and
which direction does it move?

a)

Partial pressure gradient from lung to the outside

b)

Partial pressure gradient from alveoli to blood

c)

partial pressure gradient from blood to alveoli

d)

Partial pressure gradient from outside into lungs

106.

Discuss Henry’s Law and gas solubility.
a. Which gas (of the three mentioned in our atmosphere) is the most soluble?
b. Which is the least soluble?

(a)  

107.

True or false: when we say that oxygen is dissolved in water, we refer to the “O” in
“H2O.

a)

true

b)

false

108.

What affects the efficiency of gas exchange at the respiratory membrane?
a.
b.

a)

thickness and surface area

b)

surface area and volume

c)

partial pressure and thickness

d)

volume and thickness

109.

Define ventilation and what affects it. ( 2 answers)

a)

movement of air going up and down

b)

resistance, surface tension, and lunch compliance

c)

movement of air going in and out

d)

resistance and surface tension

110.

Define perfusion and what affects it.
2 answers !

a)

blood flow thru pulmonary capillaries for gas exchange

b)

blood flow thru alveoli

c)

cardiac output, gravity

d)

cardiac output, gravity, and pulmonary vascular resistance

111.

Explain ventilation-perfusion coupling

a)

Adjustment of blood flow in alveoli

b)

adjustment of inhalation and exhalation

c)

adjustment of blood flow to match airflow in the lungs

d)

adjustment of blood flow and airflow in whole body

112.

How does tissue gas exchange compare to pulmonary gas exchange (driving forces)?


(a)  

113.

How can oxygen be transported through the body? What’s the most common method
of transport, by far? 2 answer!!

a)

transported by plasma

b)

transported by dissolved in plasma ot bound to hemoglobin

c)

bound to hemoglobin

d)

dissolved in plasma

114.

How can carbon dioxide be transported through the body? What the most common
method of its transport?

a)

bicarbonate ions

b)

bound to hemoglobin

c)

transported by dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin

d)

transported by dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, or as bicarbonate ions.

115.

What 3 substances can hemoglobin bind and where exactly on the hemoglobin do they
bind?

a)

O2 - iron

b)

CO2 - globin chains

c)

nitrogen - heme (iron)

d)

hydrogen ions - globin chains

116.

Define cooperative binding effect

(a)  

117.

What does hemoglobin saturation mean?

how much - is bound to - compared to how much it could -.

(a)  

118.

Describe the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve

a)

Hemoglobin picks up O₂ difficultly in the lungs and releases it easily in tissues.

b)

Hemoglobin picks up O₂ easily in the lungs and releases it easily in tissues.

c)

Hemoglobin cant pick up O₂ easily in the lungs and releases it easily in tissues.

d)

They bind easily

119.

What is the normal hemoglobin saturation at sea level? How does it change with
increasing altitude and why does altitude affect it?

a)

95-100%

b)

altitude drops because theres less O2 in air for it to bind to hemoglobin

c)

90-95%

d)

altitude increases because theres more O2

120.

What is altitude sickness?

a)

when you get too high the O2 levels are low

b)

you feel sick

c)

U get too high and the O2 level are high as well

d)

U throw-up

121.

Define oxygen reserve

The extra - bound to hemoglobin that isn’t immediately needed by tissues. It acts as a - tank

(a)  

122.

How does the release of CO2 and H+ affect oxygen binding to hemoglobin? 2 answers!!

a)

High CO2 or H⁺→ hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily.

b)

Low CO₂ or H⁺ (high pH) → hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily.

c)

Low CO2 or H⁺→ hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more tightly.

d)

High CO2 or H⁺→ hemoglobin hold onto oxygen more tightly.

123.

How does the binding of CO2 and H+ affect oxygen binding to hemoglobin?

  • - CO₂ or H⁺ → hemoglobin - - of oxygen



(a)  

124.

How does the temperature affect oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin?

  • Higher temperature → hemoglobin - oxygen more easily (affinity -).

  • Lower temperature → hemoglobin - - oxygen more tightly (affinity -).



(a)  

125.

What is 2,3-BPG and how does it affect oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin? 2 ANSWERS!!!

a)

molecule produced by red blood cells during glycogenesis

b)

binds to hemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen.

c)

molecule produced by red blood cells during glycolysis.

d)

binds to hemoglobin and increases its affinity for oxygen.

126.

How does the pH affect oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin?


2 answers!!

a)

Low pH - hemoglobin lets go of oxygen more easily (affinity decreases).

b)

Low pH - hemoglobin lets go of oxygen more easily (affinity increases).

c)

High pH - hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more tightly (affinity decrease).

d)

High pH - hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more tightly (affinity increases).

127.

What is meant by “shift right” and “shift left” in the saturation curve? What conditions
cause these shifts?

a)

Left shift → harder O₂ pickup in lungs

b)

Right shift → easier O₂ release to tissues

c)

Right shift → harder O₂ release to tissues

d)

Left shift → easier O₂ pickup in lungs

128.

Describe hyperventilation: definition, causes, and the CO2 changes that it will cause. 3 ANSWERS!!!

a)

breathing faster

b)

Anxiety or panic attacks

c)

Hypoventilation

d)

lowers blood CO₂

129.

Describe hypoventilation: definition, causes, and the CO2 changes that it will cause

a)

breathing too slowly

b)

Lung disease

c)

blood CO₂ increases

d)

blood CO₂ decreases

130.

Does hyperventilation affect blood oxygen levels? Why (and how) or why not?

a)

No

b)

yes

c)

because hemoglobin is already almost full

d)

because hemoglobin is empty

131.

Does hypoventilation affect blood oxygen levels? Why (and how) or why not?

yes or no ? It - O2 levels

(a)  

132.

Describe hyperpnea.
- breathing through - to meet - oxygen demand

(a)  

133.

Define Rima vestibuli

a)

The opening between vestibular folds

b)

The opening between trachea catilages

c)

The opening between bones

d)

The opening between larynx

134.

Define Rima gottidis

a)

Opening between vocal folds

b)

Opening between vestibular folds

c)

Opening between nose

d)

Opening between ligaments

135.

Interalveolar septum?

a)

The wall between adjacent alveoli

b)

elastic fibers

c)

Pulmonary capillaries form a vascular network

d)

microscopic blood vessels

136.

Alveolar type 1 cells

a)

primary cells that form each alveolus

b)

least common

c)

most common

d)

make mucus

137.

Alveolar type 2 cells

a)

most common

b)

less numerous

c)

secrete an oily fluid called pulmonary surfactant

d)

secrete water molecules