wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PRE FINAL TEST OPM530

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model help to determine?

a)

The optimal order size that minimizes total inventory cost

b)

The maximum level of inventory to hold

c)

The minimum level of inventory to hold

d)

The reorder point for inventory

2.

In the context of inventory management, what does the term 'safety stock' refer to?

a)

The amount of inventory kept to protect against stockout

b)

The total amount of inventory in the warehouse

c)

The inventory that is obsolete and needs to be written off

d)

The inventory that is in transit

3.

What is the purpose of a reorder point in inventory management?

a)

To determine the quantity of inventory to be ordered

b)

To identify the safety stock level

c)

To specify when a new order should be placed to replenish inventory

d)

To classify inventory items based on their value

4.

In the context of inventory management, what does 'lead time' refer to?

a)

The time taken to manufacture a product

b)

The time between placing an order and receiving it

c)

The time taken to count inventory

d)

The time taken to classify inventory items

5.

Which inventory cost includes expenses such as warehousing, insurance, and obsolescence?

a)

Ordering Cost

b)

Carrying Cost

c)

Stockout Cost

d)

Setup Cost

6.

The EOQ model primarily aims to balance which two types of costs?

a)

Transportation costs and warehousing cost

b)

Ordering costs and carrying cost

c)

Labor costs and production cost

d)

Stockout costs and setup cost

7.

How does the EOQ model handle variations in demand?

a)

It ignores variations and assumes constant demand

b)

It adjusts order quantities based on historical data

c)

It incorporates safety stock to handle variations

d)

It uses a complex algorithm to predict future demand

8.

In inventory management, what is a 'stockout'?

a)

The condition where excess inventory is held

b)

The condition where inventory is replenished

c)

The condition where inventory is depleted and unable to meet demand

d)

The condition where inventory is written off due to obsolescence

9.

What is the primary objective of the quantity discount model in inventory management?

a)

To reduce the number of suppliers

b)

To minimize total inventory costs by considering discounts for larger order quantities

c)

To classify inventory items based on their value

d)

To implement a perpetual inventory system

10.

If a company uses the quantity discount model and finds that the EOQ is higher than the minimum quantity required for a discount, what should they do?

a)

Ignore the discount and order the EOQ

b)

Recalculate the EOQ considering the discount

c)

Order the minimum quantity required for the discount if it results in a lower total cost

d)

Always order the maximum quantity offered by the supplier

11.

What is the main challenge of implementing the quantity discount model in inventory management?

a)

Accurately predicting demand

b)

Maintaining accurate inventory records

c)

Balancing the trade-off between ordering costs, holding costs, and purchase cost

d)

Determining the correct lead time

12.

What is the key difference between the EOQ model and the POQ model?

a)

The EOQ model is used for continuous production, while the POQ model is used for batch production

b)

The EOQ model considers setup costs, while the POQ model does not

c)

The EOQ model assumes instantaneous replenishment, while the POQ model assumes a finite production rate

d)

The EOQ model is used for perishable goods, while the POQ model is used for non-perishable goods

13.

Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories?

a)

to decouple various parts of the production process

b)

to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand

c)

to take advantage of quantity discounts

d)

to minimize holding cost

14.

A production company has the following data about their inventory. D = 6000 per year, S = $100, holding cost = $5 per unit per year what is the economic order quantity?

a)

490

b)

24

c)

141

d)

600

15.

If EOQ for company A is 200 and the annual demand is 1000 what is the number of orders per year for the company?

a)

50 units

b)

5 times

c)

200000 units

d)

0.2

16.

Calculate the period between orders if a company operates for 250 days a year and have an annual demand of 2000 and average inventory of 100.

a)

50 days

b)

10 days

c)

40 days

d)

25 days

17.

For a certain item, the cost-minimizing order quantity obtained with the basic EOQ model is 200 units, and the total annual inventory (carrying and setup) cost is $600. What is the inventory carrying cost per unit per year for this item?

a)

$1.50

b)

$2.00

c)

$3.00

d)

not enough data to determine

18.

A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The cost-minimizing solution for this product is to order:

a)

all 4000 units at one time.

b)

200 units per order

c)

every 20 days

d)

10 times per year

19.

Most inventory models attempt to minimize:

a)

the likelihood of a stockout.

b)

the number of items ordered

c)

total inventory-based cost

d)

the number of orders placed

20.

Cycle counting:

a)

is a process by which inventory records are verified once a year

b)

eliminates annual inventory adjustment

c)

provides a measure of inventory turnover

d)

assumes that all inventory records must be verified with the same frequency

21.

Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is TRUE?

a)

It applies only to items produced in the firm's own production departments.

b)

It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.

c)

It relaxes the assumption that the demand rate is constant.

d)

It minimizes the total production costs.

22.

The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. What is the production order quantity for this problem?

a)

139

b)

174

c)

184

d)

365

23.

Montegut Manufacturing produces a product for which the annual demand is 10,000 units. Production averages 100 units per day, while demand is 40 units per day. Holding costs are $2.00 per unit per year, and setup cost is $200.00. What is the production order quantity for this problem?

a)

500 units

b)

1,000 units

c)

1,826 units

d)

2,500 units

24.

The annual demand is 600 units, the ordering cost is $20 per order, and the annual inventory carrying cost is 30% of the item price. The following quantity discount schedule establishes the price: What should the order quantity be in order to minimize the total annual cost?

a)

49 units

b)

50 units

c)

100 units

d)

250 units

25.

A printing company estimates that it will require 1,000 reams of a certain type of paper in a given period. The annual cost of carrying one unit in inventory for that period is $0.50. The company buys the paper from a wholesaler in the same town, sending its own truck to pick up the orders at a fixed cost of $20.00 per trip. What is the total annual inventory cost if the company follows the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model?

a)

$100.50

b)

$200.42

c)

$141.42

d)

$140.50

26.

Which of the following is a benefit of supply chain integration?

a)

Increased product variety

b)

Higher production cost

c)

Improved coordination and collaboration across the supply chain

d)

Longer lead time

27.

Which of the following can help reduce the risk of supply chain disruptions?

a)

Single sourcing

b)

Building strong relationships with multiple suppliers

c)

Increasing lead time

d)

Reducing inventory level

28.

What is supply chain risk?

a)

The possibility of increased production cost

b)

The potential for disruptions or failures within the supply chain that can impact operations

c)

The likelihood of achieving higher sales

d)

The risk of employee turnover

29.

Which of the following is a common source of supply chain risk?

a)

High employee morale

b)

Stable market demand

c)

Supplier bankruptcy

d)

Consistent delivery schedule

30.

How can natural disasters impact the supply chain?

a)

By increasing customer satisfaction

b)

By disrupting the flow of goods and raw materials

c)

By reducing production cost

d)

By improving supply chain efficiency

31.

What is the primary goal of supply chain risk management?

a)

To increase product price

b)

To identify, assess, and mitigate risks to ensure continuity and resilience in the supply chain

c)

To decrease inventory level

d)

To expand the number of suppliers

32.

Which of the following strategies can help mitigate supply chain risks?

a)

Single sourcing

b)

Increasing lead time

c)

Diversifying the supplier base

d)

Reducing inventory level

33.

How can geopolitical events create supply chain risks?

a)

By stabilizing supply chain operations

b)

By causing changes in trade policies, tariffs, and regulations that can disrupt supply chains

c)

By reducing transportation cost

d)

By improving supplier reliability

34.

Which of the following is an example of 'demand risk' in supply chain management?

a)

Changes in customer preferences leading to sudden shifts in demand

b)

Supplier bankruptcy

c)

Natural disasters impacting production facilities

d)

Increasing production cost

35.

What role does 'insurance' play in managing supply chain risks?

a)

It eliminates all supply chain risk

b)

It provides financial protection against certain types of losses and disruptions

c)

It decreases production cost

d)

It increases the number of suppliers

36.

Which of the following is a proactive approach to managing supply chain risks?

a)

Ignoring potential risk

b)

Developing risk mitigation strategies in advance

c)

Reacting to disruptions as they occur

d)

Increasing production rate

37.

What is 'cyber risk' in the context of supply chain management?

a)

The risk of physical theft of goods

b)

The risk associated with disruptions due to cyber-attacks on supply chain IT systems

c)

The risk of natural disaster

d)

The risk of increased transportation cost

38.

What does 'outsourcing' mean in the context of supply chain management?

a)

Bringing production processes in-house

b)

Contracting out certain business processes or production functions to external suppliers

c)

Reducing inventory level

d)

Increasing the number of employees

39.

Which of the following is a potential benefit of outsourcing?

a)

Increased control over production processes

b)

Reduced flexibility in operations

c)

Access to specialized skills and cost saving

d)

Increased internal capacity requirement

40.

What is the main focus of 'supplier development'?

a)

Reducing the number of suppliers

b)

Collaborating with suppliers to improve their processes and performance for mutual benefit

c)

Increasing production lead time

d)

Focusing on short-term gains

41.

Which of the following is an example of backward vertical integration?

a)

A car manufacturer acquiring a tire company

b)

A retail chain opening more stores

c)

A software company outsourcing its customer service

d)

A clothing brand launching a new fashion line

42.

Which of the following is an example of forward vertical integration?

a)

A bakery purchasing a wheat farm

b)

A computer manufacturer opening its own retail store

c)

A smartphone company acquiring a microchip manufacturer

d)

A beverage company outsourcing its bottling process

43.

How can vertical integration impact a company's cost structure?

a)

By increasing external supplier cost

b)

By reducing costs through greater control and economies of scale

c)

By increasing advertising cost

d)

By reducing the number of product lines

44.

Which of the following is a potential outcome of working with certified suppliers?

a)

Increased risk of supply chain disruptions

b)

Reduced need for incoming inspections and higher confidence in product quality

c)

Higher costs due to certification fee

d)

Lower product innovation

45.

What term is used to describe the outsourcing of logistics?

a)

sub-logistics

b)

e-logistics

c)

third-party logistics (3PL)

d)

shipper-managed inventory (SMI)

46.

What is the primary goal of job design in operations management?

a)

To increase the number of tasks assigned to each worker

b)

To create jobs that maximize employee satisfaction and productivity

c)

To reduce the number of employees required

d)

To standardize tasks across all departments

47.

In job design, what does 'job rotation' involve?

a)

Increasing the complexity of tasks performed by employees

b)

Moving employees between different jobs or tasks to reduce monotony

c)

Combining multiple tasks into a single job to increase variety

d)

Allowing employees to design their own jobs

48.

What is the primary focus of job specialization in operations management?

a)

To create jobs with a broad range of tasks

b)

To reduce the number of employees required for production

c)

To assign specific tasks to workers to increase efficiency and expertise

d)

To increase the variety of tasks performed by each worker

49.

What is the primary objective of job expansion in operations management?

a)

To reduce the number of tasks assigned to employees

b)

To increase the variety and scope of tasks performed by employees

c)

To decrease employee workload and stress

d)

To narrow the focus of job roles to specific tasks

50.

In job expansion, what does 'skill variety' refer to?

a)

The number of different tasks an employee performs

b)

The level of complexity in each individual task

c)

The frequency of job rotation within the organization

d)

The degree to which tasks are repetitive and monotonous

51.

What is a common effect of job enrichment on employee motivation?

a)

It decreases motivation by increasing job complexity

b)

It has no effect on employee motivation

c)

It enhances motivation by providing more meaningful work and greater responsibility

d)

It reduces motivation due to increased workload

52.

How can job enlargement impact employee performance?

4 lines
53.

How can job enlargement impact employee performance?

a)

It typically reduces performance due to increased task complexity

b)

It can improve performance by providing employees with more varied tasks and reducing monotony

c)

It has no effect on employee performance

d)

It decreases performance by overloading employees with additional tasks

54.

What is the primary characteristic of a self-directed team?

a)

The team works under strict supervision and follows detailed instructions

b)

The team members are responsible for their own work and decisions without direct supervision

c)

The team has a designated leader who makes all decisions

d)

The team members only focus on specific, narrowly defined tasks

55.

Which of the following is a key benefit of self-directed teams?

a)

Increased need for direct management and supervision

b)

Improved flexibility and responsiveness to changes

c)

Reduced employee autonomy and decision-making

d)

Higher levels of task specialization and monotony

56.

Which management style is most compatible with the concept of self-directed teams?

a)

Autocratic management

b)

Transformational leadership

c)

Micromanagement

d)

Bureaucratic management

57.

How does the performance evaluation of self-directed teams typically differ from traditional teams?

a)

Performance is assessed based on individual tasks rather than team outcomes

b)

Performance is evaluated based on the team’s overall results and collaborative efforts

c)

Performance is solely based on adherence to managerial directives

d)

Performance is not formally evaluated in self-directed teams

58.

What is the primary purpose of incentive systems in operations management?

a)

To increase the number of tasks performed by employees

b)

To provide rewards and recognition that enhance employee motivation and performance

c)

To reduce the number of employees required

d)

To standardize job roles and responsibilities

59.

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic incentive?

a)

Job enrichment

b)

Acknowledgment and praise from supervisors

c)

Employee recognition programs

d)

Increased salary and bonuses

60.

Which of the following incentive systems is designed to link rewards directly to individual or team performance?

a)

Profit sharing

b)

Merit-based pay

c)

Job rotation

d)

Team-building activities

61.

Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.5 and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time?

a)

5 hours

b)

2.5 hours

c)

10 hours

d)

7.5 hours

62.

The average observed time for a given job is 10 minutes. The performance rating is 80%, and allowances are set by contract at 10%. What is the standard time?

a)

8.80 minutes

b)

8.89 minutes

c)

10.00 minutes

d)

19.00 minutes

63.

A brake system installer in an auto factory has an actual average time of 10 minutes on her task. The performance rating of the worker timed was estimated at 110%. Practice in this department is to allow 9% for allowances. Compute the standard time for the operation.

a)

10 minute

b)

11.09 minutes

c)

12 minute

d)

12.09 minutes

64.

An operation in a television factory has an average observed time of 6 minutes. The performance rating of the worker timed was estimated at 90%. Practice in this department is to provide 8% for allowances. Compute the standard time for the operation.

a)

5.0 minutes

b)

5.40 minutes

c)

5.87 minutes

d)

6.02 minutes

65.

A task involves positioning two metal parts with a rubber gasket sandwiched between them, inserting two bolts into predrilled holes, threading a nut onto each bolt, and tightening each bolt with a pneumatic wrench. In a preliminary study, the manager observed one of his workers performing this task five times. The observations were made in an air-conditioned, well-lit training facility, at ground level, with all tools and equipment clean and readily available. What is the average observed time for this task?

a)

70.0 seconds

b)

71 seconds

c)

71.5 second

d)

67.2 seconds

66.

Observed time = 6.5 hours. Performance rating = 110%. Find the normal time

a)

6.5 hrs

b)

7 hrs

c)

7.15 hrs

d)

7.5 hr

67.

A worker takes 15 hours observed time to complete a task. The performance rating is 95%. What is the normal time?

a)

14 hrs

b)

14.25 hrs

c)

14.5 hrs

d)

15 hrs

68.

A worker takes 18 hours observed time with a performance rating of 80%. Allowance = 40% of standard time. What is the standard time?

a)

22.5 hrs

b)

23.5 hrs

c)

24 hrs

d)

25 hr

69.

The data below represent time study observations for an assembly operation. Assume a 10% allowance factor. What is the normal time for element 2?

a)

1.54 min

b)

1.69 min

c)

1.88 min

d)

1.95 min

70.

A worker records a normal time of 9 hours. Allowance is 25% of standard time. What is the standard time?

a)

10.5 hrs

b)

11.5 hrs

c)

12.5 hrs

d)

12 hrs