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Operating Systems Model MCQ

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In batch systems, turnaround time is:

a)

Higher than interactive systems

b)

Lower than real-time systems

c)

Similar to multiprogramming

d)

Not measurable

2.

Which OS type offers immediate feedback to the user?

a)

Batch

b)

Time-sharing

c)

Real-time

d)

Interactive

3.

A batch system executes 20 jobs in 100 minutes. What is the average turnaround time?

a)

4 min

b)

5 min

c)

10 min

d)

20 min

4.

Spooling overlaps:

a)

I/O and computation

b)

CPU and memory

c)

Cache and RAM

d)

Processes and threads

5.

What is the key benefit of multiprogramming?

a)

Maximizing I/O usage

b)

Reducing memory

c)

Increasing CPU utilization

d)

Avoiding deadlocks

6.

In a batch system, if each job takes 2 minutes of CPU and 8 minutes of I/O, what is the CPU utilization for a single job?

a)

0.2

b)

0.25

c)

0.8

d)

0.4

7.

A mainframe handles 1000 transactions/sec and supports 50 users. What is the average transactions per user per sec?

a)

20

b)

25

c)

15

d)

30

8.

A system with 10 servers processes 1000 requests/sec total. If load is equally balanced, how many requests per server?

a)

100

b)

1000

c)

10

d)

50

9.

A distributed system uses vector clocks with 8 processes. What is minimum size of vector clock?

a)

8

b)

1

c)

4

d)

16

10.

If network bandwidth is 1 Gbps and file size to transfer is 100 MB, how long will transfer take ignoring overhead?

a)

0.8 seconds

b)

0.1 seconds

c)

1.2 seconds

d)

0.4 seconds

11.

A distributed database replication lag is 200 ms. If writes per second are 500, what is max stale data duration?

a)

0.4 seconds

b)

0.2 seconds

c)

1 second

d)

2 seconds

12.

For a quorum system with N=15 nodes, write quorum size is 10, read quorum size is 6. Is the system consistent?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Depends

d)

Cannot tell

13.

A distributed consensus protocol requires 2/3 of nodes to agree. For 30 nodes, what is minimum number of nodes required?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

15

d)

25

14.

A cluster has 5 nodes, each with 8 cores running at 2.5 GHz. What is total processing capacity in GHz?

a)

100 GHz

b)

40 GHz

c)

10 GHz

d)

50 GHz

15.

In a multi-layered OS, communication between layers is performed through:

a)

Registers

b)

Stack

c)

Interface protocols

d)

Shared memory

16.

A system has 3 tasks with utilization 0.3, 0.25, and 0.2. Is it schedulable under RMS?

a)

No

b)

Yes, total utilization < 1

c)

Yes, utilization < ln(2)

d)

Yes, utilization < bound for 3 tasks

17.

Which of the following is true about the microkernel design?

a)

Kernel provides all services including device drivers

b)

Services run in user space

c)

File system is part of the kernel

d)

All services run in kernel mode

18.

Why is preemption important in real-time OS?

a)

It saves battery

b)

It ensures memory isolation

c)

It allows meeting deadlines by suspending lower priority tasks

d)

It enables system boot

19.

Which of the following is NOT typically considered part of the kernel in OS design?

a)

Scheduler

b)

Memory manager

c)

File manager

d)

Web browser

20.

Which memory management technique can lead to external fragmentation?

a)

Paging

b)

Segmentation

c)

Fixed partitioning

d)

Stack allocation

21.

Which hand-held OS is based on a Linux kernel?

a)

iOS

b)

Windows CE

c)

Android

d)

Palm OS

22.

A 1 GHz CPU executes 10n cycles. At 500 MHz, how long does it take?

a)

1 ms

b)

2 ms

c)

3 ms

d)

4 ms

23.

Process requests 1 MB, only 512 KB available. What happens?

a)

Success

b)

Failure

c)

Terminated

d)

Swaps to disk

24.

RMS: 3 tasks, utilization 0.75. RMS bound for n=3 is 0.78. Is task set schedulable?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only with EDF

d)

Only with priority inheritance

25.

5 tasks each take 10 ms. Context switch time is 1 ms. Total overhead for one cycle?

a)

1 ms

b)

5 ms

c)

10 ms

d)

15 ms

26.

Which component handles page faults?

a)

Process Manager

b)

Memory Manager

c)

File System

d)

Device Driver

27.

EDF: Task set has total utilization 0.90. One task has period 100 ms and exec. 25 ms. Is it schedulable?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only with RMS

d)

Only with priority ceiling

28.

Sensor generates data every 20 ms. Processing time/sample is 5 ms. Max samples/sec processed?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

200

d)

500

29.

Choose the reason why secondary memory is used in computer systems.

a)

Cost efficiency

b)

Cache storage

c)

Faster processing

d)

Manages page faults

30.

Infer the function of the program counter during instruction execution.

a)

Stores current output

b)

Counts CPU cycles

c)

Points to next instruction

d)

Controls DMA transfer

31.

Identify a hardware feature that improves I/O efficiency.

a)

Pipelining

b)

Virtual memory

c)

Interrupt-driven I/O

d)

Disk fragmentation

32.

Analyze the relationship between memory hierarchy and system performance.

a)

Slower speed increases performance

b)

Hierarchy adds redundancy

c)

Balanced hierarchy reduces latency

d)

Eliminates swapping

33.

Choose the mode in which the CPU accesses system-level resources.

a)

Kernel mode

b)

User mode

c)

Interrupt mode

d)

Safe mode

34.

Formulate a case where memory-mapped I/O is preferred.

a)

Real-time systems

b)

Simple output systems

c)

Batch processing

d)

Unbuffered input

35.

Select the hardware interface allowing direct memory access without CPU load.

a)

Cache controller

b)

DMA controller

c)

TLB

d)

SSD

36.

Differentiate between primary and secondary memory characteristics.

a)

Primary is slower

b)

Secondary is volatile

c)

Primary is fast and volatile

d)

Secondary is RAM-based

37.

A developer needs to enable communication between processes on different machines over a network. Which IPC method should they choose?

a)

Shared Memory

b)

Named Pipes

c)

Signals

d)

Sockets

38.

In a bounded buffer system, a producer increments the full semaphore before adding an item to the buffer. What problem can this lead to?

a)

Increased buffer size

b)

Deadlock

c)

The consumer might read incomplete data

d)

Starvation of the producer

39.

A student implements a solution to the dining philosophers problem using semaphores. Occasionally, all philosophers pick up their left fork and wait for the right one, leading to no progress. What problem is this?

a)

Starvation

b)

Race condition

c)

Deadlock

d)

Mutual exclusion failure

40.

In an operating system simulation, a binary semaphore is used to protect a shared variable. Two processes call wait() simultaneously, and one enters the critical section. What happens to the other?

a)

It enters immediately

b)

It overwrites the variable

c)

It blocks until signal() is called

d)

It crashes

41.

A traffic intersection uses semaphores to allow only one car from each direction to pass at a time. What property of semaphores is being utilized here?

a)

Starvation control

b)

Deadlock detection

c)

Mutual exclusion

d)

Priority inversion

42.

In a system with multiple consumers and a single producer, the producer forgets to signal() after producing. What is the result?

a)

Consumers process stale data

b)

Consumers remain blocked indefinitely

c)

Producer gets blocked

d)

Data is processed twice

43.

In a student project, semaphores are used without mutexes in a producer-consumer system. Items are added and removed correctly, but occasionally the buffer gets corrupted. Why?

a)

Semaphores automatically manage memory

b)

Semaphore count was incorrect

c)

No mutual exclusion during actual buffer access

d)

Too many consumers are running

44.

In the Producer-Consumer problem, if the producer adds data to the buffer without checking whether the buffer is full, what issue might occur?

a)

Data gets duplicated

b)

The buffer may overflow and corrupt memory

c)

Consumer will read faster

d)

Producer gets blocked

45.

In a system using Banker's Algorithm, a process requests resources that make the system move from a safe state to an unsafe state. Which of the following best describes the action taken by the algorithm?

a)

The request is granted immediately

b)

The request is denied until safe state is guaranteed

c)

The process is terminated

d)

The system enters deadlock

46.

Which of the following strategies involves ordering resource types numerically and requiring processes to request resources in increasing order to prevent deadlock?

a)

Deadlock detection

b)

Deadlock avoidance

c)

Deadlock prevention by resource ordering

d)

Deadlock recovery

47.

A system runs multiple processes that share a printer and a scanner, both available in only one instance each. The OS uses a deadlock prevention approach that disallows hold and wait by requiring processes to request all required resources at once. What is a possible drawback of this approach?

a)

It increases the likelihood of deadlock

b)

It may lead to low resource utilization and process starvation

c)

It makes deadlock detection easier

d)

It requires complex resource ordering

48.

Consider a resource allocation graph with a cycle. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

If there is a cycle, deadlock must exist

b)

If there is a cycle, deadlock may or may not exist depending on resource instances

c)

Cycle indicates safe state

d)

Cycle is unrelated to deadlock

49.

In deadlock detection algorithms, which of the following data structures is typically used to represent resource allocation and requests?

a)

Wait-for graph

b)

Binary search tree

c)

Stack

d)

Queue

50.

Which one of the following is NOT a method of handling deadlocks?

a)

Deadlock avoidance

b)

Deadlock detection and recovery

c)

Deadlock prevention

d)

Resource preemption without process rollback

51.

Which deadlock prevention technique involves forcibly taking resources away from a process until it can proceed?

a)

No preemption

b)

Mutual exclusion

c)

Circular wait

d)

Hold and wait

52.

You observe that processes in a live system are waiting on each other in a circular chain. What is the best handling method?

a)

Deadlock detection

b)

Starvation resolution

c)

Avoidance

d)

Segmentation

53.

You are given total and allocated resource vectors. How would you determine if any process can execute?

a)

Compare Need with Available

b)

Allocate all

c)

Increase total

d)

Swap resources

54.

What is the key idea of deadlock avoidance?

a)

Pre-granting all resources

b)

Ensuring a safe state

c)

Disabling circular wait

d)

Using round robin

55.

A system with 3 processes has Available = [3, 2]. Is the system in a safe state?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

May be

d)

Need more info

56.

Which condition must be known for Banker's Algorithm to work effectively?

a)

Max resource demand

b)

Current CPU burst

c)

Priority

d)

Arrival time

57.

A complex resource allocation has shared printers and disks. What detection scheme minimizes performance loss?

a)

Run detection periodically

b)

Prevent new allocations

c)

Lock all resources

d)

Remove circular wait

58.

You are given a Wait-For Graph. Determine if a cycle exists using DFS.

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Can't say

d)

Depends on process count

59.

What happens in the recovery method of resource preemption?

a)

Resources forcibly taken from processes

b)

All processes restarted

c)

System rebooted

d)

Deadlock ignored

60.

Which is a disadvantage of process termination recovery?

a)

Data loss

b)

Increased throughput

c)

Less overhead

d)

Fairness

61.

In Banker's Algorithm, what is the condition for system to be safe?

a)

Safe sequence exists

b)

Available resources are zero

c)

All processes finished

d)

No waiting processes

62.

Given Available = [2,3,1], Allocation = [[1,0,0],[0,2,1]], Max = [[3,2,2],[1,3,3]], what is Need?

a)

[[2,2,2],[1,1,2]]

b)

[[2,1,2],[1,1,2]]

c)

[[3,2,2],[1,3,3]]

d)

[[1,1,1],[1,1,1]]

63.

If deadlock is detected, the OS should:

a)

Abort one or more processes

b)

Grant all requests

c)

Increase resources

d)

Ignore deadlock

64.

Given Allocation=[[1,1,1],[0,0,2]], Max=[[3,2,2],[1,1,3]], Available=[2,2,0], system state is:

a)

Safe

b)

Unsafe

c)

Deadlock

d)

Unsafe but recoverable

65.

What is the role of a checkpoint in deadlock recovery?

a)

Save process state

b)

Abort processes

c)

Allocate resources

d)

Detect deadlock

66.

What is the first step in Banker's Algorithm?

a)

Calculate Need matrix

b)

Allocate resources

c)

Release resources

d)

Check for deadlock

67.

Number of swaps if 8 processes use 1 swap-in and 1 swap-out

a)

8

b)

16

c)

12

d)

10

68.

Interpret swap performance if swap time = 30 ms, I/O latency = 10 ms

a)

40 ms

b)

20 ms

c)

30 ms

d)

50 ms

69.

A TTL of 3600 seconds implies caching for how long?

a)

30 Mins

b)

1 Hour

c)

1.5 Hours

d)

45 Mins

70.

Plan allocation of 5 processes: 100 KB, 200 KB, 150 KB, 250 KB, 300 KB in 1.5 MB

a)

All fit

b)

One left

c)

Two left

d)

All don't fit

71.

Devise a method to reduce swap-in time in modern systems

a)

SSDs

b)

HDDs

c)

Optical disks

d)

Tape drives

72.

Evaluate swapping as a solution to memory overcommitment

a)

Effective

b)

Inefficient

c)

Obsolete

d)

Slower

73.

Which strategy will cause the least external fragmentation?

a)

First Fit

b)

Best Fit

c)

Paging

d)

Worst Fit

74.

Estimate number of 128 KB processes that fit in 2 MB RAM

a)

16

b)

12

c)

10

d)

18

75.

Size of external fragmentation if free memory is 1000 KB and largest block 700 KB

a)

300 KB

b)

1000 KB

c)

700 KB

d)

0 KB

76.

Time complexity to search free block in Best Fit (unsorted list)

a)

O(1)

b)

O(n)

c)

O(log n)

d)

O(n^2)

77.

Address binding technique with max flexibility in relocation

a)

Compile-time

b)

Load-time

c)

Execution-time

d)

Static-time

78.

Physical address for segment starting at 4000 with offset 100

a)

4100

b)

4000

c)

6000

d)

4600

79.

Operation not happening during dynamic linking

a)

Runtime loading

b)

Resolving function addresses

c)

Compile-time linking

d)

Memory sharing

80.

Memory allocation splitting 2048 KB into four 512 KB blocks

a)

First Fit

b)

Best Fit

c)

Buddy System

d)

Paging

81.

Component responsible for address translation

a)

Linker

b)

Loader

c)

MMU

d)

Scheduler

82.

A paged memory system has a page size of 4KB. If a program requires 18.5KB of memory, how much internal fragmentation occurs, and why does it happen? Consider how the memory is divided into pages and how the leftover space is managed.

a)

1.5KB of internal fragmentation

b)

2.0KB of external fragmentation

c)

3.5KB of internal fragmentation

d)

No fragmentation occurs

83.

In segmentation, consider a system where each segment has a maximum size of 4MB, and a process attempts to access an address beyond this limit in segment 2. What will the system do in response, and what type of error or exception is typically raised?

a)

Triggers a page fault

b)

Wraps the address around in the segment

c)

Raises a segmentation fault

d)

Allows access to overflow address

84.

A system uses segmentation with paging where each segment has 4 pages, and each page is 2KB in size. What is the maximum size of each segment, and how does this architecture impact logical address division?

a)

4KB per segment, simple address translation

b)

6KB per segment, complex structure

c)

8KB per segment, efficient logical mapping

d)

16KB per segment, improved memory flexibility

85.

Consider the scenario of using a single-level page table in a 32-bit system with 4KB pages. If the virtual address space is large, what is a major limitation of this scheme and how do multi-level page tables address this limitation?

a)

It increases internal fragmentation

b)

It reduces TLB hit ratio

c)

It consumes a lot of memory and multi-level paging reduces this

d)

It increases external fragmentation

86.

Assume a system uses segmentation, and a program has five segments: text, data, BSS, heap, and stack. How does segmentation improve memory access control in this case, and which segment characteristics allow protection enforcement?

a)

Only BSS is protected

b)

Text is read-only; others vary in access

c)

Stack has no boundaries; heap is read-only

d)

Heap is executable; text is writable

87.

In paging, each process has its own page table. What are the implications of this for context switching, and how does it affect memory access efficiency when switching between processes?

a)

Context switching becomes slower due to large tables

b)

It simplifies memory access across processes

c)

It reduces the size of physical memory needed

d)

All processes share a single page table

88.

In a paged system with a TLB, how does the use of the TLB improve address translation performance, and what happens when a TLB miss occurs? Provide an example if necessary.

a)

TLB miss leads to segmentation fault

b)

Address translation becomes unnecessary

c)

TLB improves speed; on miss, page table is accessed

d)

Address wraps around memory

89.

You are debugging a system that uses a two-level paging mechanism. You notice that address translation takes longer than expected. What is the primary reason for this overhead in a two-level paging system?

a)

Less memory usage

b)

Extra lookups in page tables

c)

More TLB hits

d)

Improved caching

90.

A developer optimizes their application by enhancing spatial and temporal locality. As a result, performance improves significantly. What is the relationship between locality and virtual memory efficiency?

a)

Locality has no effect

b)

Better locality increases page faults

c)

Better locality reduces page faults

d)

Locality reduces TLB hits

91.

In a segmented-paging system, each segment has its own page table. If a segment has many pages, what overhead does this create in terms of address translation, and how can it be managed efficiently?

a)

Fewer TLB hits

b)

Increased fragmentation

c)

Increased memory accesses

d)

Reduced context switches

92.

During runtime, an OS needs to decide which page to remove when memory is full. One technique is LRU, which uses history of access. How does LRU compare with FIFO in terms of performance and overhead?

a)

FIFO is more accurate

b)

LRU always faults more

c)

LRU is more effective but complex

d)

FIFO is based on future use

93.

A user configures their system to use a very small page size in virtual memory settings. They notice that more pages are being loaded than before. What could be the trade-offs involved in using smaller pages?

a)

More TLB hits

b)

Lower fragmentation and more overhead

c)

Better CPU utilization

d)

Fewer page faults

94.

In a virtual memory setup, the system allows shared memory pages between processes. How does this feature enhance system efficiency and what precautions must be taken to ensure consistency?

a)

It increases isolation

b)

Pages are never duplicated

c)

Shared pages save memory but need synchronization

d)

Every process has its own copy

95.

A virtual address is passed to the OS during execution. The system uses paging with a TLB. If the required entry is not found in the TLB, the system checks the page table. What is this process known as, and what's the performance implication?

a)

Cache hit

b)

TLB miss and page walk

c)

Segment fault

d)

Stack overflow

96.

What is the main difference between QEMU and KVM?

a)

QEMU uses host virtualization, KVM uses software

b)

QEMU is a container tool

c)

QEMU is a hypervisor, KVM enables hardware acceleration

d)

KVM runs on Windows only

97.

A user creates a Docker container that includes an application and its libraries. When shared, the container runs identically on other systems. What cloud computing characteristic does this demonstrate?

a)

Resource pooling

b)

Measured service

c)

Portability and consistency

d)

Broad network access

98.

In Xen architecture, what is Dom0?

a)

A guest OS

b)

An emulator

c)

A privileged control domain

d)

A disk partition

99.

Which component manages guest VMs in Xen?

a)

XenStore

b)

DomU

c)

Dom0

d)

XenCloud

100.

Which file is typically modified to configure a Xen VM?

a)

/etc/xen.cfg

b)

/etc/xen/.cfg

c)

/var/xen.conf

d)

/boot/xenfile.conf