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Genetics Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Long arm of a chromosome located below the centromere.

a)

d arm

b)

b arm

c)

q arm

d)

p arm

2.

How many gamete/s are formed after a one cycle of meiosis in females?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

3.

Sex-determining chromosomes are homologous in size, centromere placement, arm ratio, or genetic content but NOT in genetic regions.

a)

False

b)

True

4.

__________ placement determines the arm ratios and shape of the chromosomes.

a)

Kinteochore

b)

Centrosome

c)

Locus

d)

Centromere

5.

Haploid number of Homo sapiens.

a)

46

b)

22

c)

43

d)

23

6.

All of the following are needed for disjunction to occur, EXCEPT

a)

The centromere region should be cleaved by separase

b)

Shugoshin complex must be degraded

c)

Sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled in opposite poles of the cell.

d)

All of the above are correct.

7.

This is the anaphase shape of a chromosome with the chromosome. _______metaphase shape in which the centromere is located at the end.

a)

Submetacentric

b)

Acrocentric

c)

Metacentric

d)

Telocentric

8.

Why are chromosomes visible through the light microscope during the different stages of mitosis?

a)

The chromatin fibers coils and folds resulting in a condensed state

b)

The chromatin fibers uncoils and unfolds resulting in a condensed state

c)

The chromatin fibers coils and folds resulting in a decondensed state

d)

The chromatin fibers uncoils and folds resulting in a decondensed state

9.

The process of genetic exchange where there is an exchange of paternal and maternal chromatid, happens at what specific chromosome structure?

a)

Chiasma

b)

Tetrad

c)

Terminalization

d)

Bivalent

10.

A group of researchers are identifying a possible error in meiosis wherein there is a mutation in cohesins which resulted in non-separation (nondisjunction) of the tetrad during anaphase. An example of a disease where there is an error in meiosis is?

a)

Huntington Disease

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Major Depressive Disorder

d)

Down Syndrome

11.

In Candida albicans, a known fungi, what is their predominant form of the life cycle?

a)

Diploid vegetative stage

b)

Haploid vegetative stage

c)

Alternating diploid and haploid stage

d)

None of the above

12.

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis takes place in the ____ & _____, respectively

a)

Ovaries; Testes

b)

Prostate; Uterus

c)

Penis; Uterus

d)

Testes; Ovaries

13.

Choose the correct chromosome pairing respectively: Male, Female

a)

XO, XX

b)

XY, XX

c)

XY, XO

d)

XX, XY

14.

Holds together the sister chromatids during prophase to metaphase

a)

Shugoshin

b)

Separase

c)

Cohesin

d)

Kinetochore

15.

Centromere location is at the middle.

a)

Telocentric

b)

Metacentric

c)

Acrocentric

d)

Submetacentric

16.

Phase where chromosomes move to the equatorial plane

a)

Prometaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

17.

_____ is the powerhouse of the cell

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

18.

Haploid number of Mus musculus, commonly known as a House mouse.

a)

39

b)

20

c)

4

d)

23

19.

Studded with ribosomes where mRNA translation to proteins occurs.

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Nucleus

20.

Combination of two gametes to reestablish the diploid number.

a)

Fertilization

b)

Division

c)

Mitosis

d)

Meiosis

21.

Mutation in this chromosome leads to the loss of activity of hexosaminidase A, a protein product that is defective in this genetic disease leading to accumulation of GM2 gangliosides in the lysosomes of nerve cells.

a)

Chromosome 13

b)

Chromosome 15

c)

Chromosome 21

d)

Chromosome 18

22.

Identify the pattern of inheritance.

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Co-dominance

23.

Identify which of the following is an example of an ALLELE?

a)

Dd

b)

Tall

c)

D

d)

3:2:2:1

24.

A 20 year old individual with Familial Hypercholesterolemia reveals an elevation of his LDL (bad cholesterol) levels twice (x2) of a normal individual. He is probably a case of:

a)

Heterozygous individual

b)

No mutation

c)

Homozygous individual

25.

These are considered as true breeding strains.

a)

F2

b)

P1

c)

F3

d)

F1

26.

A mutant allele seen in Mendels' experiment showed a variety of peas with wrinkled appearance, this is due to?

a)

Lack of starch branching enzyme

b)

Increased pace of pea life span

c)

Decrease permeability of the covering

d)

Loss of seed cell membrane

27.

Mary consulted with a geneticist to know what are the odds of her having a baby with the following characteristics "Maganda, matangkad at blue ang mata". What method should the geneticist use to determine the percentage of her having that baby?

a)

Monohybrid cross

b)

Chi-square

c)

Trihybrid cross

d)

Dihybrid cross

28.

Represents unknown sex in a pedigree.

a)

Circle

b)

Triangle

c)

Diamond

d)

Square

29.

This states that the probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the product of their individual probabilities.

a)

Product law

b)

Sum law

c)

Chi-square analysis

d)

Independent Assortment

30.

TRUE OR FALSE: Temperature can influence presenting trait.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

31.

Expression of a trait is called.

a)

Genes

b)

Phenotype

c)

Alleles

d)

Genotype

32.

TRUE OR FALSE: Sex-limited traits are expressed in both males and females, but the trait is more pronounced in one sex due to hormonal differences.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

33.

Unrelated parents and related (consanguineous) parents are connected by ____ and ____ horizontal line in a pedigree respectively.

a)

single; double

b)

double; double

c)

single; single

d)

double; single

34.

Incomplete dominance occurs when:

a)

Heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate phenotype between the two alleles

b)

One allele is dominant over the other

c)

Both alleles are equally expressed

d)

The phenotype is only expressed in males

35.

A helix is an example of what type of protein structure

a)

Tertiary

b)

Quaternary

c)

Primary

d)

Secondary

36.

What antibody is present in the plasma of an individual with Blood type A?

a)

Anti-A

b)

None

c)

Anti-A and Anti-B

d)

Anti-B

37.

TRUE or FALSE: In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

38.

What is the end result of karyokinesis?

a)

two daughter nuclei, each with a chromosome composition identical to the parent cell

b)

two daughter nuclei, each with a chromosome composition not identical to the parent cell

c)

one daughter nuclei, each with a chromosome composition identical to the parent cell

39.

Denotes dominant allele.

a)

Uppercase of the initial letter of the dominant trait

b)

Lowercase of the initial letter of the dominant trait

c)

Uppercase of the initial letter of the recessive trait

d)

Lowercase of the initial letter of the recessive trait

40.

Who is the father of genetics?

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Aristotle

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Schleiden and Schwann

41.

What are the end products of a single oogenesis?

a)

4 ovum

b)

1 ovum and 2 polar bodies

c)

2 polar bodies only

d)

1 ovum only

42.

All of the following are types of replication product EXCEPT

a)

Dispersive replication

b)

Semiconservative replication

c)

Conservative replication

d)

Alternative replication

43.

 Unrelated parents and related (consanguineous) parents are connected by ________ and ________ horizontal line in a pedigree respectively.


a)

  single; double 

b)

 double; single

c)

  single; single 

d)

  double; double

44.

Haploid number of Homo sapiens.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

22

d)

42

45.

White eyed fly was seen among red-eye flies, the white eyed fly are brought about by?

a)

adaptation

b)

hybridization

c)

mutation

d)

environmental factors

46.

Identify the pattern of inheritance:

a)

Co-dominance

b)

Autosomal Dominant

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Autosomal Recessive

47.

Incomplete or Partial dominance occurs when:

a)

  One allele is dominant over the other 

b)

The phenotype is only expressed in males

c)

 Heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate phenotype between the two alleles 

d)

Both alleles are equally expressed

48.

 Identify the pattern of inheritance:


a)

 Co-dominance 

b)

 Autosomal Dominant 

c)

  Incomplete dominance 

d)

  Autosomal Recessive

49.

Linking of tRNA to their respective amino acid before translation can proceed. This process is also known as aminoacylation.

a)

  Transcribing DNA 

b)

  Charging tRNA

c)

  Translating mRNA 

d)

  Transferring RNA

50.

In rats, the presence of C (pigment) allele will determine whether the A (brown) or a (black) pigment will be expressed. This is an example of what type of inheritance?

a)

Epistasis

b)

X-linked inheritance

c)

Epigenesis

d)

Pleiotropy

51.

A patient needed a blood transfusion. Blood typing was done and neither of the blood samples clotted when mixed with antiserum-A and antiserum-B. What is his blood type?

a)

Blood type AB

b)

Blood type A

c)

Blood type B

d)

Blood type O

52.

What do you call a chromosome whose centromere is in the middle?

a)

Submetacentric

b)

Telocentric

c)

Acrocentric

d)

Metacentric

53.

How many chromosomes does an egg cell has?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

24

d)

22

54.

 Hen feathering is due to a dominant allele, H, but regardless of the homozygous presence of the recessive h allele, all females remain hen-feathered.

Identify the pattern of inheritance


a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-limited inheritance

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Sex-influenced inheritance

55.

TRUE OR FALSE: Sex-limited traits are expressed in both males and females, but the trait is more pronounced in one sex due to hormonal differences.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which chromosome is used for sex determination?

a)

A and Y chromosome

b)

Y chromosome

c)

X chromosome

d)

None of the above

57.

What is the function of part labeled in number 4?

a)

fatty acid and phospholipid synthesis 

b)

Plays an important role in the movement and division of chromosomes 

c)

Contains genetic material, DNA

d)

Site of oxidative phases of cell respiration

58.

 Which of the following is NOT TRUE.

I. The code is nearly universal

II. Code contains 1 start and 3 possible stop signals which initiates and terminates transcription respectively

III. Each codon specifies >1 amino acid

IV. Code is non-overlapping


a)

III

b)

I

c)

IV

d)

II

59.

TRUE OR FALSE:

In eukaryotes, translation of RNA to proteins occurs in the cytoplasm, specifically in the ribosomes


a)

True

b)

False

60.

Codon that encodes methionine and is the start codon.

a)

AUG

b)

GAU

c)

UAG

d)

AAA

61.

Which of the following are considered PURINES?

a)

  Adenine and Thymine

b)

 Cytosine and Thymine 

c)

 Adenine and Guanine 

d)

 Guanine and Cytosine

62.

Who was the first to demonstrate that infectious diseases are caused by microbes which cannot arise from nonliving materials, disproving  the concept of spontaneous generation.

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Louis Pasteur

c)

Giuseppe degli Aromatar

d)

William Harvey

63.

In blood typing, which of the following allele can present as codominance?

a)

Allele A and B

b)

Allele B and O

c)

Allele O only

d)

Allele A and O

64.

A geneticist extracted a nucleotide on an unknown organism. In order to confirm if the extracted nucleotide is a DNA, he/she should look at the hydroxyl group at what carbon position?

a)

C1

b)

C3

c)

C4

d)

C2

65.

Meiosis only produces gametes or spores that are characterized by one haploid : 23 set of chromosomes.

a)

False

b)

True

66.

Which of the following is NOT Gregor Mendel’s first three postulates?

a)

Dominance/ Recessiveness

b)

Segregation

c)

Independent reassortment

d)

Unit factor in pairs

67.

Choose the correct base pair for this nucleotide during DNA transcription to RNA


A = _

a)

T

b)

U

c)

C

d)

G

68.

This postulate explains that during the formation of gametes, the paired unit factors separate, or segregate, randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood.

a)

  Independent reassortment 

b)

Segregation

c)

Dominance/ Recessiveness

d)

Unit factor in pairs

69.

Maintains the integrity of telomeres especially on cell types that would undergo many cell divisions.

a)

Ligase

b)

Nuclease

c)

Helicase

d)

Telomerase

70.

Mary consulted with a geneticist to know what are the odds of her having a baby with the following characteristics “Maganda, matangkad at blue ang mata”. What method should the geneticist use to determine the percentage of her having that baby?

a)

Trihybrid cross

b)

Chi-square

c)

Monohybrid cross

d)

Dihybrid cross

71.

In which phase does the cell is conisidered non dividing?

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

G0

72.

 Represents male sex in a pedigree

a)

Circle

b)

Diamond

c)

Triangle

d)

Square

73.

Fill in the red box

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

74.

 During metaphase, where does spindle fibers bind specifically for proper separation to opposite poles

a)

Centrosome

b)

shugoshin

c)

centriole

d)

Kinetochore

75.

Translate this codon:

a)

His

b)

Gly

c)

Ala

d)

Val

76.

Which is considered as the longest phase in cell cycle?

a)

anaphase

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

Telophase

77.

What is the function of part labeled in number 7?

a)

Contains ribosomes

b)

site of ATP synthesis

c)

site for DNA synthesis

d)

engulfs cellular debris

78.

The term "penetrance" refers to:

a)

  Variation in severity or expression of phenotype 

b)

  How one gene controls the expression of another 

c)

  The number of genes involved in expressing a trait 

d)

  The percentage of individuals with a particular genotype that actually show the expected phenotype

79.

TRUE or FALSE: Transcription requires an RNA primer to initiate transcription of DNA to RNA

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

80.

The mitochondria contains the paternal genetic DNA, which can be passed to the offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Expression of a trait is called

a)

Alleles

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genes

82.

These are considered as alternative forms of a gene

a)

Genotype

b)

Mutation

c)

Alleles

d)

Phenotype

83.

Mutation in this chromosome leads to the loss of activity of hexosaminidase A, a protein product that is defective in this genetic disease leading to accumulation of GM2 gangliosides in the lysosomes of nerve cells.

a)

Chromosome 15

b)

Chromosome 13

c)

Chromosome 21

d)

Chromosome 18

84.

Sequences retained in the mature DNA and are expressed

a)

m7G caps

b)

Exons

c)

Okazaki Fragments

d)

Introns

85.

He created the Idea of spontaneous generation - creation of living organisms from nonliving organisms. Disproved by Louis pasteur.

a)

Schleiden and Schwann

b)

Aristotle

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Hippocrates

86.

Every child-bearing couple faces approximately _% risk of having a child with genetic anomaly.

a)

3%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

2%

87.

new methods for this practice has changed the way we use livestock such cattles and sheep

a)

Cloning Livestock

b)

Transgenic Organism

88.

Cell membrane bounded structure and Contains genetic material, DNA.

a)

Nucleiod

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Nucleus

89.

degradation of large molecules into smaller, simple ones accompanied by the release of energy.

a)

Catabolism

b)

Anabolism

90.

It is the amino acid polymer release from the ribosome during translation.

a)

Polypeptide

b)

Protein

91.

Once RNA pol has recognized and bound to the promoter, DNA is locally converted from double stranded to open structure to expose its template strand.

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

d)

Proofreading

92.

He developed the Theory of Preformation - fertilized egg contains a complete miniature adult, called a homunculus

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Giuseppe degli Aromatar

c)

William Harvey

d)

Walter Sutton and Theodor Bevori

93.

They describe the structure of DNA

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Walter Sutton and Theodor Bevori

c)

Schleiden and Schwann

94.

Which molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

95.

The genetic code is non-overlapping, meaning codons are read one after another without reuse of bases.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which experiment demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material through transformation in bacteria?

a)

Hershey-Chase experiment

b)

Griffith’s experiment

c)

Watson-Crick model

97.

The flexibility in base-pairing at the third codon position is explained by:

a)

Mutation

b)

Wobble hypothesis

c)

Epistasis

d)

Independent assortment

98.

Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA polymerase I

b)

DNA polymerase III

c)

DNA ligase

d)

Helicase

99.

Which of the following is a model organism used in genetics?

a)

Dog (Canis familiaris)

b)

Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster)

c)

Elephant

d)

Rabbit

100.

The diploid number in human is:

a)

23

b)

46

c)

44

d)

20

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