wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Post op procedures BV

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One of these statements is an important attribute for packaging and materials.

a)

The sterilizing agent can penetrate the part of the object that will touch the wound.

b)

The ability to protect the item from microorganisms until it is used.

c)

The sterile object is covered at the part that will touch the wound.

d)

The materials allow 95% of air to be removed during sterilization.

2.

Which of the following is a primary duty for the CST (certified surgical technologist) at the end of a case?

a)

Room turnover

b)

Disposal of trash

c)

Care of specimens

d)

Wiping down all furniture

3.

Which of the following is a topical antibiotic?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Keflex

d)

Ciprofloxacin

4.

Many patients complain of post-laparoscopic shoulder pain after undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery. What is the cause of this post-laparoscopic shoulder pain?

a)

Improper positioning of the shoulder braces

b)

Improper positioning of the arm boards

c)

Referred pain from the CO₂ on the diaphragm and diaphragm stretch

d)

Improper padding of the shoulder area on the O.R. bed

5.

The abnormal attachment of two surfaces or structures that are normally separate is a:

a)

Ablation

b)

Anastomosis

c)

Adhesion

d)

Keloid

6.

Which of the following is true regarding drape removal at the end of a procedure?

a)

The surgical technologist should remove the drape quickly in order to immediately place the dressing on the patient.

b)

The surgical technologist should gently hold the dressing in place while the anesthesia provider releases the suspended portion of the drape.

c)

The circulating nurse will tape the dressing in place prior to the drape removal.

d)

The surgical technologist will tape the dressing in place prior to the drape removal.

7.

Which of the following is the cause of redness during the inflammatory process?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Release of energy through phagocytosis

c)

Decreased clotting activity

d)

Increased blood flow to the area

8.

Which of the following is true regarding surgery?

a)

Use of standardized care processes is enough to prevent undesired foreign body retention after surgery.

b)

Patient safety is the second most important goal during surgery.

c)

At times items such as sponges are left in the wound for packing.

d)

An X-ray is performed after every surgical procedure to check for object retention.

9.

Which of the following types of dressings is used most often over a skin graft?

a)

Flat dressing

b)

Pressure dressing

c)

Support dressing

d)

Gauze packing

10.

Which of the following terms refers to a bone infection?

a)

Cellulitis

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Septicemia

d)

Endocarditis

11.

Within the surgical team, who is the individual responsible for the determination that the patient is ready to be brought to the PACU?

a)

PACU nurse

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Surgeon

d)

Circulator

12.

Your patient will have to remain intubated upon leaving the operating room after their chest surgery. The drape used at the head is a U-drape, so you will need to cut the drape free at the neck. What must you take great care to not cut during drape removal?

a)

Chest tube

b)

Dressing

c)

Endotracheal tube cuff/balloon line

d)

Jackson-Pratt drain

13.

Which classification would be used for a total gastrectomy?

a)

Class II

b)

Class I

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

14.

Which of the following supply items might be requested by the surgeon to be placed when the patient will have to have their surgical dressing changed often?

a)

Bolster

b)

Bridge

c)

Montgomery straps

d)

Splint

15.

When a case is over, what is the correct way to dispose of the drapes used in the case?

a)

Pull the drapes from the table and place in a hamper

b)

Check the drapes for instruments, roll them off, and place in a biohazard bag

c)

Roll the drapes and place them on the floor at the foot of the table to be checked for instruments

d)

Pull the drapes and fold them before placing them on the floor

16.

Which of the following terms refers to separation of layers of tissue after closure of a wound?

a)

Herniation

b)

Evisceration

c)

Dehiscence

d)

Fistula

17.

Patients undergoing minimally invasive surgery (MIS) tend to have:

a)

Better outcomes

b)

Increased recovery time

c)

Lengthy hospital recovery time

d)

Shorter hospital recovery time

18.

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound with inflammation but no pus or abscess?

a)

Clean

b)

Clean-contaminated

c)

Contaminated

d)

Dirty

19.

As dressing are applied by the CST at field, the following statement is true.

a)

If respiratory distress occurs during emergence, the patient is moved to the recovery room for managing the complication.

b)

If the certified surgical technologist is assisting in applying a dressing and is double-gloved, they simply remove their outer gloves.

c)

Following the procedure, the gown is removed and placed in a soiled linen bag.

d)

The certified surgical technologist can remove the head cover when breaking down the sterile field.

20.

You received 50 ml of Marcaine 0.25% at the beginning of your case. You spilled 5 ml at the beginning of the case. You have 20 ml left in your medication cup on your back table. How much Marcaine did the surgeon administer to the patient?

a)

20 ml

b)

25 ml

c)

30 ml

d)

35 ml

21.

A patient has a biopsy taken in a procedure and asks you who will look at the specimen, provide the diagnosis and create a report on the specimen.

a)

Radiologist

b)

Internist

c)

Pathologist

d)

Surgeon

22.

Tonsillectomies and Adenoidectomies are typically performed on children; upon extubation, what position should the patient be placed?

a)

Supine

b)

Lateral

c)

Prone

d)

Sitting

23.

Which of the following is an example of an absorbable suture?

a)

Polypropylene

b)

Nylon

c)

Polyester

d)

Vicryl

24.

In order to remove the reusable non woven fabric surgical gown at the end of your procedure prior to removing your gloves, you should do what?

a)

Ask the circulator to untie you at the neck and waist and pull forward away from your body

b)

Grasp the gown at the waistline and pull forward away from your body

c)

Reach behind your neck and waist to untie yourself and pull forward away from your body

d)

Remove your outer gloves and reach behind your neck and waist to untie yourself and pull forward away from your body

25.

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound following vascular surgery?

a)

Clean

b)

Clean-contaminated

c)

Contaminated

d)

Dirty

26.

Patients who have suffered second and third degree burns often receive autologous skin grafts. Upon completion of these procedures which would be the ideal dressing to be used?

a)

Occlusive dressing

b)

Plaster dressing

c)

Stent dressing

d)

Bulk dressing

27.

Which of the following external factors impacts wound healing?

a)

Age

b)

Disease history

c)

Obesity

d)

Medications

28.

Your patient has had a vaginal hysterectomy. Your specimen, the uterus, will be sent to which of the following departments for examination?

a)

Blood-bank

b)

Microbiology

c)

Pathology

d)

Phlebotomy

29.

When the surgeon asks that the specimen be sent "permanent", once handed off to the circulator it should be sent as follows in a specimen container:

a)

Dry

b)

Sterile saline

c)

Formalin

d)

Cidex

30.

The proper way for the surgical technologist to dispose of their surgical gloves after first removing their sterile gown is which of the following?

a)

Keep your surgical gloves on so you can use them to clean the room furniture

b)

Rolling them off at the same time the gown is removed

c)

Removing the gown first then removing the first pair of gloves one at a time by grasping glove to glove then skin to skin to roll off

d)

Removing the gown first then removing the gloves by grasping the cuffs simultaneously to pull and shoot across the room into the garbage

31.

Prior to removing all of the sterile drapes that were used for a procedure, once the dressings have been applied what should the surgical technologist do?

a)

Perform a final count.

b)

Remove their gown and gloves.

c)

Tape the dressing in place.

d)

Cover the dressings with a clean, dry, and sterile dressing.

32.

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound following a laparoscopic splenectomy?

a)

Clean

b)

Clean-contaminated

c)

Contaminated

d)

Dirty

33.

Which of the following organisms is a frequent cause of infection in burn patients?

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Clostridium tetani

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

34.

Your patient has just had a temporary vascular access catheter placed for dialysis. What complication is going to be ruled out with a chest x-ray prior to the patient leaving the operating room?

a)

Infection

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Stroke

35.

Which of the following is a negative aspect of using braided sutures?

a)

Braided sutures can harbor more bacteria and create more inflammation than monofilament sutures.

b)

Braided sutures are weaker than monofilament sutures.

c)

Braided sutures require more ties to keep the knots intact than monofilament sutures.

d)

Braided sutures are thinner than monofilament sutures.

36.

For your carotid endarterectomy case, you have emptied your patient's drain reservoir prior to and after dressing application. You notice the patient's blood pressure is up at 180/110, and the drain reservoir is full again with bright red blood. What will be your next action?

a)

Ask the circulator to report the issue to the post-anesthesia recovery nurse.

b)

Ask the circulator to call the surgeon back stat and open another gown and gloves for the surgeon to don.

c)

Ask the nurse anesthetist to get the patient's blood pressure down.

d)

Empty the drain again and hold pressure on the incision site.

37.

After a mastectomy the following is the dressing of choice, providing the patient comfort and support at the same time, this type of dressing is referred to as?

a)

Xeroform gauze

b)

Fluffs

c)

Coban

d)

Telfa

38.

Which of the following surgical wound cleaning procedures describes an attempt to remove the local pathogens causing a wound infection?

a)

Decontamination

b)

Debridement

c)

Dehiscence

d)

Desiccation

39.

Which of these postoperative complications is defined as blood pressure 20% less than baseline with signs and symptoms such as rapid, thready pulse, disorientation, restlessness, oliguria, and pale, cold skin?

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Dysrhythmias

d)

Hypotension

40.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the prevention of foreign body retention?

a)

Each team member counts according to the method he or she prefers.

b)

The wound should be systematically explored prior to closing the site.

c)

X-rays should be avoided at all cost as they post a greater risk than benefit.

d)

Counting of supplies can be abbreviated if the procedure runs over the allotted time.

41.

After the dispersive electrode has been removed, what should happen next?

a)

Assess the skin for burns or irritation

b)

Clean the adhesive from the patient's skin

c)

Give it to the nurse anesthetist

d)

Place it in the case cart to go to the decontamination area

42.

Which of the following events will necessitate re-exploration and cleaning of a surgical wound?

a)

Decontamination

b)

Debridement

c)

Dehiscence

d)

Degeneration

43.

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound without any inflammatory response whatsoever?

a)

A. Clean

b)

B. Clean-contaminated

c)

C. Contaminated

d)

D. Dirty

44.

Which type of drainage system is used to pull fluid or air from the thoracic cavity after thoracic surgery?

a)

Maleoct drain

b)

T tube drain

c)

Passive drain

d)

Water sealed drainage system

45.

What should the CST (certified surgical technologist) do immediately after removing soiled gown and gloves (breaking scrub)?

a)

Assist in room turnover

b)

Clean the operating room table

c)

Hand wash

d)

Remove sharps

46.

Which type of dressing is typically placed over a full-thickness skin graft recipient site?

a)

Montgomery strap

b)

A clear adhesive dressing such as Tegaderm®

c)

A stent dressing or bolster dressing

d)

Dermabond®

47.

Which of the following is not true when removing a soiled surgical gown at the end of the procedure?

a)

The gown may be unfastened in the back by the circulator.

b)

The gown should be removed prior to the gloves.

c)

Gown and gloves should be removed in the dirty utility room, not in the operating room.

d)

The gown should be rolled up with the exterior enclosed prior to placing in the trash.

48.

Instruments used during a surgical procedure are taken to what area of the hospital or surgical center after the surgical procedure has ended?

a)

Decontamination

b)

PACU

c)

Tray assembly

d)

Sterile storage

49.

Which of the following populations is most challenging to protect from hypothermia, considering they can not shiver?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Geriatrics

c)

Neonates

d)

Toddlers

50.

Describe best practices for dressing application after the surgical wound has been closed.

a)

Place MD requested dressing materials over the wound and promptly remove the drapes. Clean the area around the dressing with a wet sponge or towel to remove dried prep solution, and apply tape to secure.

b)

Remove the drapes, remove your outer gloves, place the surgeon's requested dressing, and tape to secure.

c)

Clean the area around the wound with a wet sponge or towel, remove dried prep solution. Dry the same areas, remove your outer gloves, apply MD requested dressing materials, and hold in place as you remove the drapes.

d)

Remove your outer gloves, apply the surgeon's requested dressing, and tape to secure over the drapes with a towel, not making skin contact or removing the drapes. Have the circulator place the dressing with tape. Clean the area around the wound with a wet sponge.

51.

Which phase of wound healing occurs moments after injury or incision?

a)

Proliferation

b)

Maturation

c)

Inflammation

d)

Closure

52.

While assisting on a C-section, when should the CST (certified surgical technologist) begin a first closing count?

a)

Closure of peritoneum

b)

Fascial closure

c)

Skin closure

d)

Closing of the uterus

53.

When is the final instrument count done on the majority of open cases?

a)

During the procedure

b)

After the "Time Out" is called

c)

When the surgeon closes the subcutaneous layers

d)

After the patient is taken from the operating room

54.

Which of the following is worn to prevent an embolism resulting from limited blood flow to the lower extremities?

a)

Pacemaker

b)

Insulin pump

c)

Sequential compression device

d)

Colostomy bag

55.

Which of the following dressing types is considered an intermediate layer?

a)

Xeroform®

b)

Vaseline Gauze®

c)

Telfa®

d)

4 x 4 gauze sponges

56.

Which of the following suture types are used for skin closure?

a)

Cutting

b)

Taper

c)

Spatula

d)

Blunt

57.

Which of the following suture gauges would be used for ophthalmic cases?

a)

0

b)

2-0

c)

8-0

d)

3-0

58.

Ulnar neuropathy can arise during/after a procedure. It is caused by:

a)

Lidocaine toxicity

b)

Direct pressure on the elbow from the OR table

c)

Having the elbow hyperextended

d)

Having the shoulder raised for a prolonged period

59.

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a procedure that plans on entering the gastrointestinal tract as part of the standard surgical technique?

a)

Clean

b)

Clean-contaminated

c)

Contaminated

d)

Dirty

60.

Which of the following is a collection of blood that develops in a wound during healing?

a)

Seroma

b)

Fistula

c)

Hematoma

d)

Adhesion

61.

Which of the following is classified as a major post-operative complication?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Loss of function

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Infection

62.

Best practice dictates that the following item(s) be kept sterile until the patient has been removed from the operating room.

a)

Back table

b)

Basin set

c)

Mayo stand

d)

Back table, basin set, and mayo stand

63.

Which of the following perioperative complications occurs when the patient's organs are present outside of their body?

a)

Adhesions

b)

Evisceration

c)

Dehiscence

d)

Seroma

64.

Once the procedure is completed, what should the CST do at once?

a)

Maintain a sterile field until the patient is removed from the room

b)

Discard all sharps from the sterile field

c)

Begin breakdown of the field

d)

Collect all trash

65.

What is the number one thing you can do to prevent infection and protect yourself after each procedure you participate in?

a)

Change your mask

b)

Change your shoe covers

c)

Don clean gloves before assisting with patient care

d)

Wash your hands

66.

Which of the following types of dressing material is considered occlusive?

a)

Coban

b)

Gauze

c)

Tefla

d)

Xeroform

67.

Once the procedure is over, and room turnover has begun, all infectious waste needs to be separated from other waste. Where should it be placed?

a)

Red sharps container

b)

Clear disposable bag

c)

Red biohazard bag

d)

Recycling bag

68.

When will wound dressings be applied?

a)

Before the final count is done

b)

After wound closure

c)

After the final count is done

d)

When the surgeon requests dressings

69.

Which of the following perioperative complications occurs when the surgical entry site re-opens?

a)

Surgical site hemorrhage

b)

Evisceration

c)

Seroma

d)

Dehiscence

70.

Which of the following methods can be used to reduce surgical site infections (SSIs)?

a)

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

b)

Using razors for hair removal

c)

Reducing patient's core temperature

d)

Keeping glucose levels above 200mg/dL

71.

Which of the following is not typically an assessment of postoperative patients in the PACU?

a)

Pulse oximetry

b)

End-tidal CO₂

c)

Wound classification

d)

Pain and comfort

72.

Which member of the listed surgical team is in charge of coordinating patient transfer from the operating room table to the stretcher for transport to the post-anesthesia care unit?

a)

Circulating nurse

b)

CRNA (certified registered nurse anesthetist)

c)

Physician's assistant

d)

Surgical assistant

73.

The post-operative phase of surgery begins at what point?

a)

When the last closing stitch or staple is in

b)

When the patient leaves the operating room

c)

With dressing application

d)

With the final closing count

74.

At the conclusion of a case, what is the first step the CST (certified surgical technologist) should do with instruments used intraoperatively before sending them to the sterile processing department (SPD)?

a)

Remove all gross debris and bioburden

b)

Place them back onto the instrument stringer

c)

Nothing needs to be done

d)

Place them in the case cart

75.

Which of the following perioperative complications occurs when there is a simple fluid collection found post-operatively and next to the entry site?

a)

Surgical site hemorrhage

b)

Evisceration

c)

Adhesions

d)

Seroma

76.

Which of the following is true of sterile packaging materials?

a)

Objects should be impermeable to moisture.

b)

Objects and materials should allow for complete retention of the sterilizing agent after the process is complete.

c)

Woven fabrics must be without lint and free fibers.

d)

Reusable materials should contain bleach detergents.

77.

Which of the following is a nonabsorbent dressing?

a)

Xeroform

b)

Gauze

c)

ABD pad

d)

Ray – Tec

78.

Which of the following statements regarding sterilization indicators is true?

a)

Biologic indicators cannot confirm that sterilization conditions were met.

b)

Only those who undergo training should be responsible for placing and interpreting chemical indicators.

c)

If a biologic indicator comes back positive, the items sterilized with the same batch are also considered non-sterile; items previously processed with the same batch prior are not at risk.

d)

Implants are never issued prior to the results of the biologic indicator.

79.

Which is true of seals for packaging materials?

a)

They must not unexpectedly open in storage.

b)

They should be re-sealable in case objects were never used during a procedure.

c)

They should be effective in closing the containers, but don’t have anything to do with the sterility of the items inside.

d)

Packaging materials such as seals need not be tested and evaluated prior to purchasing them as this was done by the manufacturer.

80.

While transferring the patient from the operating room table to the stretcher to be transported to the PACU, what are very important factors for the team upon transferring the patient, to remember?

a)

Ask the patient to move over to the stretcher slowly.

b)

If using a roller during the transfer do it quickly.

c)

Ensure that all IV lines, Foley’s, wound drains and others will not become dislodged during the transfer.

d)

Gather all of the patient’s personal belongings, and make sure they are with them on the stretcher.

81.

Which of the following suture needles can be used on the liver?

a)

Blunt tip

b)

Taper

c)

Cutting

d)

Side cutting

82.

What type of dressing is used to decrease the chances of hematoma development or swelling?

a)

Bulky

b)

Pressure

c)

One-layer

d)

Rigid

83.

when the circulator removes the drapes from the patient at the end of a surgery, what should the CST do?

a)

remain at the operative field

b)

move the back table and mayo to a safe distance

c)

discard of all the sharps

d)

remove soiled gown and gloves

84.

which of the following perioperative complications occurs when there is bleeding from the wound?

a)

surgical site hemorrhage

b)

evisceration

c)

adhesions

d)

dehiscence

85.

which of the following best describes "negative pressure wound therapy"?

a)

wet to dry dressing

b)

wet to wet dressing

c)

wound vac

d)

fluff dressings

86.

Prior to the breakdown and disposal of the mayo stand cover and back table items what must be done to protect those handling waste after surgery?

a)

all bloody sponges must be removed and placed in a biohazard bag

b)

all sharps must be removed and disposed of

c)

all sharps must be removed and double bagged

d)

all sharps must be removed and disposed of in a plastic puncture resistant biohazard container

87.

which of the following immobilization devices would be necessary to immobilize a fractured ulna that has been reduced through an open reduction fixation procedure

a)

ace wrap

b)

cast

c)

splint

d)

traction

88.

which of the following wound classifications describes a wound with no sterile break in procedure

a)

clean

b)

clean contaminated

c)

contaminated

d)

dirty

89.

which of the following dressings is used to debride a wound?

a)

hydrogel

b)

wet to dry

c)

foam

d)

alginate

90.

which of the following is a complication of wound healing?

a)

swelling

b)

fistula

c)

tamponade

d)

polyps

91.

which of the following pressure ulcer stages represents an ulcer that demonstrates a full-thickness skin defect with exposure of underlying musculoskeletal structures

a)

stage one

b)

stage two

c)

stage three

d)

stage four

e)

unstageable

92.

which of the following specimen types must be sent to pathology dry

a)

calculi

b)

bullets

c)

cysts

d)

lipomas

93.

which of the following sutures should be used to close an infected wound?

a)

non absorbable

b)

monofilament

c)

absorbable

d)

silk

94.

a female patient going through a hysterectomy was placed in trendelenburg with her arms also placed on padded arm boards which were more than 90 degrees. when the patient woke up she experienced numbness in both hands. she was later diagnosed with

a)

carpel tunnel syndrome

b)

ulnar nerve compression

c)

brachial plexus injury

d)

peroneal nerve injury

95.

which of the following factors promotes healing in a surgical wound?

a)

tight sutures

b)

decreased dead space

c)

seroma

d)

tension on the wound dressing

96.

what is the term used to describe tissue that easily tears?

a)

friable

b)

evisceration

c)

adhesions

d)

dehiscence

97.

what is the first step the CST must do once the patient leaves the room

a)

remove all sharps from the field

b)

reassemble instrument trays

c)

break scrub

d)

clean the operating room table

98.

once a procedure has finished which is the proper technique incorporated on how the surgical technologist removes his/her contaminated gown

a)

remove your gloves and untie the gown

b)

remove your gloves and break free of the gown

c)

grab the gown from the shoulders and roll away keeping exterior or contaminated portion "inside"

d)

grab the gown from the waist break free and pull away

99.

which of the following surgical wound cleaning procedures describes an attempt to remove nonviable tissue

a)

debridement

b)

decontamination

c)

dehiscence

d)

desiccation

100.

which team member is primarily responsible for escorting the patient to pacu at the end of surgery?

a)

CST

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

circulator

d)

surgeon

101.

which of the following refers to the thorough cleaning and disinfection of the operating room

a)

sanitation

b)

damp dusting

c)

terminal cleaning

d)

mopping

102.

absorbable sutures have varying lengths of absorption time, which effects healing time and strength of the closure. surgical gut is the only natural absorbable suture, what is the length of time for approximation of sufficient tensile strength

a)

five days

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

three months

d)

variable rate

103.

when moving a patient from the OR table after a case under general anesthesia, who is responsible for protection of the patients head and neck

a)

anesthesiologist

b)

Surgical Tech

c)

circulator

d)

surgeon

104.

which of the following would require immediate post operative care

a)

evisceration

b)

infection

c)

adhesions

d)

bedsore

105.

which of the following is true regarding routine decontamination of the surgical suite after each procedure

a)

it occurs once a week

b)

it occurs before instruments are removed from the room

c)

high level disinfectants are used in the terminal decontamination process

d)

a three-four foot area around the sterile field, the operating room, all flat surfaces are considered adequate for routine contamination between cases

106.

which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound following thyroid surgery

a)

clean

b)

clean contaminated

c)

contaminated

d)

dirty

107.

which of the following surgical wound cleaning procedures describes an attempt to dry a post operative wound

a)

decontamination

b)

debridement

c)

dehiscence

d)

dessication

108.

while performing a closing count, the cst notices a missing lap sponge. what should be the first step the cst does next

a)

continue the count

b)

alert the surgeon

c)

recount the laps

d)

ask the circulator for a new pack of laps

109.

you received 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline at the beginning of your case. you have 300 ml on your backtable in your basin. the suction cannister contains 400 ml of fluid. what is your estimated blood loss for this procedure, not counting what is on your surgical sponges?

a)

100 ml

b)

200 ml

c)

300 ml

d)

400 ml

110.

which statement is true and are a component of the operative report regarding the documentation of supplies

a)

names of members who miscounted supplies are recorded for reprimanding

b)

description of measures taken when inconsistent supply count occurs are documented

c)

sharps and instruments are counted but not sponges

d)

bar coding is not an acceptable technique for safeguarding against object retention after surgery

111.

patients undergoing a craniotomy may have a shunt inserted to relieve intracranial pressure, caused by excess CSF build up where is this shunt typically placed?

a)

in the space between the dura and the cranium

b)

in the subdural space, directly against the brain tissue

c)

in one of the lateral ventricles

d)

in the fourth ventricle

112.

what is the purpose of surgical ligatures also known as ties

a)

blood vessel occlusion

b)

elimination of dead space

c)

tissue approximation

d)

preventing evisceration

113.

cast padding must be applied under casting material to protect the skin from what type of injury

a)

chemical

b)

friction

c)

mechanical

d)

thermal

114.

one of the most common complications following surgery found in diabetic patients is which of the following:

a)

gangrene

b)

infection

c)

nerve damage

d)

pneumothorax