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Biology-Final

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the seven characteristics all organisms share?

a)

Ability to grow, develop, and reproduce; cellular organization, ordered complexity, sensitivity, energy utilization, homeostasis, and evolutionary adaptation

b)

Ability to reproduce, growth and development, metabolism, homeostasis, heredity, evolution, and photosynthesis

c)

Ability to reproduce, growth and development, metabolism, homeostasis, heredity, evolution, and respiration

d)

Ability to reproduce, growth and development, metabolism, homeostasis, heredity, evolution, and digestion

2.

What is ordered complexity?

a)

All organisms consist of one or more cells & all living things are both complex and ordered

b)
A system or process that is only moderately organized
c)
A system or process that is completely disorganized and chaotic
d)
A system or process that is neither organized nor complex
3.

All living organisms are capable of growing and reproducing, and their offspring are the same species is which of the following?

a)

Growth, development, and reproduction

b)
Hibernation
c)
Mutation
d)
Photosynthesis
4.

What is energy utilization?

a)
The study of energy sources
b)

All living organisms take in energy and use it to perform work

c)
The process of converting energy into matter
d)
The storage of energy in batteries
5.

All living organisms interact with other living organisms and their nonliving environment in ways that influence their survival; As a consequence, organisms are able to evolve adaptations to their environments. This is an example of which of the following?

a)
Mutation
b)
Artificial selection
c)

Evolutionary adaptation

d)
Genetic drift
6.

What is deductive reasoning?

a)

A type of reasoning that involves drawing conclusions based on personal beliefs

b)

Using specific observations to construct general scientific principles

c)

The reasoning of mathematics and philosophy that is used to test the validity of general ideas in all branches of knowledge

d)

A method of reasoning from the particular to the general

7.

What is inductive reasoning?

a)

Using specific observations to construct general scientific principles

b)

A type of reasoning that involves drawing conclusions based on what is already known

c)

The reasoning of mathematics and philosophy that is used to test the validity of general ideas in all branches of knowledge

d)

A type of reasoning in which general principles are inferred from specific observations

8.

What is a hypothesis?

a)
A proven fact
b)
A random guess
c)
A mathematical equation
d)

A suggested explanation that accounts for observations of the environment

9.

The test of a hypothesis is an __

a)
observation
b)
analysis
c)
experiment
d)
conclusion
10.

What is the difference between a control and experimental group?

a)
The control group receives the experimental treatment, while the experimental group does not receive the treatment.
b)

The control group the variable of interest is kept constant (BASELINE)

In the experimental group the variable of interest is altered

c)
The control group and experimental group both receive the same treatment.
d)
The control group and experimental group are interchangeable and can be used interchangeably in an experiment.
11.

Which definition does this apply to: Theory- the body of interconnected concepts that is supported by scientific reasoning and experimental evidence to explain a fact, provides framework

a)

Theory definition 1

b)

Theory definition 2

12.

What is natural selection?

a)
The process of organisms adapting to their own offspring
b)
A type of artificial selection carried out by humans
c)

the differential reproduction of genotypes; caused by factors of the environment that leads to a evolutionary change

d)
The method by which organisms choose their own traits
13.

Biologists agree that all organisms alive today on Earth descended from a simple cellular organism that arose about 3.5 billion years ago Some of the characteristics of that organism have been preserved throughout evolutionary history; How is DNA/ genetic code proof of this?

a)
DNA is not related to the characteristics of the original organism
b)
Genetic code changes with each generation, so it cannot preserve characteristics
c)

The storage of hereditary information in DNA is common to all living organisms

d)
The original organism did not have DNA or genetic code
14.

What are valence electrons?

a)

The electrons in the outermost energy level of the different elements

b)
Electrons in the innermost shell of an atom
c)
Electrons in the middle shell of an atom
d)
Electrons in the nucleus of an atom
15.

What characteristic of an element reflects how many of the eight valence positions are filled?

a)
Ionization energy
b)

Chemical behavior

c)
Atomic number
d)
Electron affinity
16.

What 4 elements make up 96.3% of the weight of our bodies?

a)
Oxygen, Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
b)
Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton
c)
Iron, Copper, Zinc, Silver
d)
Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium
17.

What is electronegativity?

a)
The measure of an atom's ability to conduct electricity
b)

A property of atomic nuclei that refers to the affinity of the nuclei for valence electrons

c)
The ability of an atom to repel a bonding pair of electrons
d)
The tendency of an atom to lose a bonding pair of electrons
18.

The hydrogen bonding of water means that water molecules are attracted to one another, water is cohesive. What is water's cohesion responsible for? (select all that apply)

a)

For it being a liquid, not a gas, at moderate temperatures

b)
Water having a low freezing point
c)

Surface tension, the water molecules on the surface of the water are hydrogen-bonded to the molecules below them

d)
Water boiling at a high temperature
19.

Any substance that dissociates in water to increase the [H+] and lower the pH is a_

a)

Acid

b)

Base

20.

A substance that combines with H+ when dissolved in water, and thus lowers the [H+] is a _

a)

Acid

b)

Base

21.

What are polymers?

a)

A long molecule built by linking together a large number of small, similar chemical subunits called monomers

b)
Small molecules composed of non-repeating structural units called monomers
c)
Large molecules composed of non-repeating structural units called monomers
d)
Small molecules composed of repeating structural units called monomers
22.

What are the monomers is a polymer composed of?

a)
Nucleotides and amino acids
b)
Proteins and lipids
c)
Atoms and ions
d)

Carbohydrate monomers (simple sugars)

Nucleic acid monomers (nucleotides)

Protein monomers (amino acids)

23.

A simple sugar that cannot be decomposed into smaller sugar molecules is a_

a)
disaccharide
b)
polysaccharide
c)
oligosaccharide
d)
monosaccharide
24.

What are polysaccharides?

a)

longer sugar polymers that are made up of monosaccharides that have been joined together through dehydration reactions

b)
Simple sugars bonded together
c)
Fats composed of long chains of fatty acids
d)
Proteins made up of amino acids
25.

What is starch?

a)
A type of fat found in nuts
b)
A simple sugar found in fruits
c)
A type of protein found in animals
d)

A storage polysaccharide that consists entirely of ɑ-glucose molecules linked in long chains

26.

A single unit of nucleic acid, composed of a phosphate group (-PO4 -), a 5-carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and a purine or pyrimidine is a _

a)
lipid
b)
carbohydrate
c)
protein
d)
nucleotide
27.

Proteins are polymers of amino acids, what is the difference between the two?

a)

Proteins are linear polymers made with 20 different amino acids; Amino acids the subunit structure from which proteins are produced

b)
Proteins are not composed of multiple amino acids
c)
Amino acids are not involved in the formation of proteins
d)
Proteins are made of carbohydrates
28.

The loss of the native configuration of a protein or nucleic acid as a result of excessive heat, extremes of pH, chemical modification, or changes in solvent ionic interactions. What is this process called?

a)
denaturation
b)
condensation
c)
dehydration
d)
renaturation
29.

What is the structure of a phospholipid?

a)
Hydrophobic head and two hydrophilic tails
b)

polar, hydrophilic head ;

nonpolar, hydrophobic tail

c)
Two hydrophilic heads and one hydrophobic tail
d)
One hydrophilic head and one hydrophobic tail
30.

What are the THREE principles of the cell theory? (select all that apply)

a)

All organisms are composed of one or more cells, and the life processes of metabolism and heredity occur within these cells

b)

Cells arise only by division of a previously existing cell

c)
The cell is not the basic unit of structure and organization in organisms
d)

Cells are the smallest living things, the basic units of organization and of all organisms

31.

How is DNA organization different in prokaryotic cells than eukaryotic cells?

a)
Eukaryotic cells have a single circular DNA molecule
b)

In prokaryotes, the genetic material consists of a single circular molecule of DNA; In eukaryotic cells DNA is organized into linear chromosomes that is contained within the nucleus

c)
Prokaryotic cells have multiple linear DNA molecules in the nucleus
d)
DNA organization is the same in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
32.

What is the plasma membrane?

a)
A type of gas found in the atmosphere
b)
A type of dessert made with whipped cream and fruit
c)

The structure that encloses a cell and separates its contents from its surrounding environment

d)
A type of rock formation found in caves
33.

How is the phospholipid bilayer oriented?

a)

The nonpolar tails of the phospholipids are together and the polar heads are to the outside

b)
Hydrophilic heads facing inward and hydrophobic tails facing outward
c)

The hydrophobic heads facing outward and hydrophilic tails facing inward

d)
The orientation does not matter as long as the heads and tails are mixed evenly
34.

What is the cytoskeleton?

a)
A type of plant cell wall
b)
A structure that stores genetic information in a cell
c)
A specialized organelle for protein synthesis
d)

An internal protein structure that provides stability and shape for the cell

35.

True or False: In eukaryotic cells, the DNA is divided into multiple linear chromosomes

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is the smooth ER?

a)

A portion of the ER that contains many embedded enzymes that function in the synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids

b)
A part of the cell responsible for energy production
c)
A type of rough ER with a bumpy surface
d)
A structure found only in plant cells
37.

What is the function of mitochondria ?

a)
Store genetic information for the cell
b)
Regulate cell division
c)
Produce enzymes for digestion
d)

Supports electron transport and chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP

38.

What does the chloroplast do?

a)
Chloroplast is involved in protein synthesis.
b)
Chloroplast helps in maintaining cell shape.
c)
Chloroplast is responsible for cellular respiration.
d)

Chloroplast is responsible for

carries out photosynthesis.

39.

closed compartments of stacked membranes called __

a)

Grana

b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Mitochondria
40.

the matrix that surrounds the grana/thylakoid is called the __

a)
stroma
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
nucleus
41.

What are the three types of cytoskeleton fibers eukaryotic cells contain?

a)
Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, Endoplasmic reticulum
b)
Nucleus, Mitochondria, Chloroplasts
c)
Lysosomes, Peroxisomes, Vacuoles
d)

Actin filaments, sometimes called microfilaments, Intermediate filaments, & Microtubules

42.

What is the cytoskeleton responsible for?

a)
Storing excess nutrients
b)
Regulating gene expression
c)
Producing energy for the cell
d)

The cell’s shape and movement

43.

What is the purpose of the cell wall?

a)

To protect and support the cell

b)
To produce energy for the cell
c)
To regulate the movement of substances in and out of the cell
d)
To store genetic material
44.

What is passive transport?

a)

Whenever a substance moves in and out of a cell without a cell having to expend energy

b)
Movement of substances only in plant cells
c)
Movement of substances with the need for energy input
d)
Movement of substances only in animal cells
45.

What is diffusion?

a)
The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of higher concentration.
b)
The movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of lower concentration.
c)
The movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
d)

The movement of molecules and ions dissolved in water to cause a net movement of these substances across a membrane from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration

46.

What is facilitated diffusion?

a)
Passive transport of molecules across a biological membrane via non-specific transmembrane integral proteins
b)
Random movement of molecules across a biological membrane without the use of integral proteins
c)
Forced active transport of molecules across a biological membrane via specific transmembrane integral proteins
d)

when a molecule moves through a cell via diffusion, but through a specific channel or carrier protein, moves from a high to a low concentration

47.

What are ion channels?

a)

A protein that has a “hydrated” interior for ions to pass through in either direction depending on the concentration gradient

b)
Species of marine animals
c)
Methods of water purification
d)
Types of clouds in the atmosphere
48.

What is osmosis?

a)
The movement of solvent molecules from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
b)
The movement of solute molecules from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
c)
The movement of solvent molecules from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
d)

The net diffusion of water across a membrane towards a higher solute concentration

49.

What is the difference between hypertonic and hypotonic?

a)
Difference in temperature
b)
Difference in color
c)

Hypertonic- the solution with a higher osmotic concentration, Water diffuses out of the cell; Hypotonic - the solution with a lower osmotic concentration, Water diffuses into the cell

d)
Difference in size
50.

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)
Endocytosis releases material from the cell, while exocytosis brings material into the cell.
b)
Endocytosis and exocytosis both release material from the cell.
c)

Endocytosis is the movement of molecules into the cell, and Exocytosis is the movement of molecules out of the cell

d)
Endocytosis and exocytosis both bring material into the cell.
51.

The amount of energy actually available to break and subsequently form chemical bonds is called the __ __ of that molecule

a)
bond strength
b)
chemical strength
c)
molecular force
d)

free energy

52.

What is significant between ΔG = + and ΔG = - ? (select all that apply)

a)
ΔG = + indicates a reversible reaction, while ΔG = - indicates an irreversible reaction.
b)

ΔG = - , spontaneous reactions, energy of the products is less than energy of the reactants, exergonic reaction

c)

ΔG = + , not spontaneous reactions, energy of the products is greater than energy of the reactants, endergonic reaction

d)
ΔG = + indicates a spontaneous reaction, while ΔG = - indicates a non-spontaneous reaction.
53.

What is the difference between catalysis and catalyst?

a)

Catalysis is influencing chemical bonds in a way that lowers the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction, while Catalyst is molecules or substances that perform catalysis

b)
Catalysis is the substance that increases the rate of a reaction, while a catalyst is the process of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction.
c)
Catalysis and catalyst are the same thing.
d)
Catalysis is the process of decreasing the rate of a chemical reaction, while a catalyst is the substance that decreases the rate of the reaction.
54.

What are enzymes sensitive too?

a)

inhibitors and activators

b)

PH levels

c)

Temperature

d)
Chemical reactions and electrical currents
e)

enzyme cofactors

55.

At the end of this process, the electrons have lost a lot of their energy so they are transferred to a final electron acceptor. Which of the following are the possible acceptors? (select all that apply)

a)

If this acceptor is oxygen, this is called aerobic respiration

(forms H2O)

b)

If this acceptor is an inorganic molecule, this is called anaerobic respiration

c)

If this acceptor is an organic molecule, this is called fermentation

d)

If this acceptor is an hydrogen, this is called photosynthesis

56.

ATP is synthesized by the enzyme ATP synthase, using energy from a proton (H +) gradient. ATP synthase uses the energy from the proton gradient to catalyze the, what is the equation for this reaction?

a)
ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi
b)
ADP + Pi + energy → AMP
c)
ATP + Pi + energy → ADP
d)

ADP + Pi → ATP

57.

___ is the first step of cellular respiration and it occurs in the ___ of the cell

a)
Glycolysis, cytoplasm
b)
Krebs cycle, nucleus
c)
Fermentation, mitochondria
d)
Photosynthesis, chloroplast
58.

Each glucose molecule is split into 2 G3P molecules. What is the result?

a)

Net yield of 2 ATP

b)

2 molecule of NADH

c)

2 pyruvate molecules

d)
4 G3P molecules
59.

True or false: The predicted yield for eukaryotic cells is 30 ATP and 32 ATP in bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

60.

In the absence of oxygen, cells that cannot use a different electron acceptor (than O2 ), have to rely on glycolysis alone to produce ATP. Cells then have to perform fermentation instead, the electrons are then generated by __?

a)
photosynthesis
b)
cell respiration
c)
oxidative phosphorylation
d)

glycolysis

61.

Reactions that use light energy from the sun to make ATP and reduce NAD+ (the electron carrier) to NADPH. Also oxidizes water to provide electrons and produce O2 , Light-dependent reactions.

This is which reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

Photosynthesis reaction 1

b)
Calvin cycle
c)
Krebs cycle
d)

photosynthesis reaction 2

62.

Reactions that use the ATP and NADPH, produced by the first reaction, to power the synthesis of organic molecules from CO2 , Called carbon fixation reactions (Light-independent reactions)

What photosynthesis reaction is this?

a)

Photosynthesis reaction 1

b)
Glycolysis
c)
Krebs cycle
d)

Photosynthesis reaction 2

63.

What is the chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)
2H2O + 2CO2 → 2H2CO3
b)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
4CO2 + 4H2O + light energy → C4H8O4 + 4O2
d)

6CO2 + 12H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

64.

What is the stroma?

a)

A semi-liquid substance that contains the enzymes needed to convert CO

2 into organic

molecules using ATP and

NADPH.

b)
A species of bird
c)
A musical instrument
d)
A type of tropical fruit
65.

The energy of a photon is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the light. What does shorter or longer wavelength mean?

a)
Shorter wavelength means lower energy, longer wavelength means higher energy
b)
Shorter wavelength means no energy, longer wavelength means higher energy
c)
Shorter wavelength means higher energy, longer wavelength means no energy
d)
Shorter wavelength means higher energy, longer wavelength means lower energy
66.

Photosystem II acts first, what occurs during this?

a)
Activation of Photosystem I
b)
Release of light and de-energizing electrons
c)
Conversion of carbon dioxide to oxygen
d)

The high-energy electrons generated by the splitting of water

67.

What is ATP synthase?

a)
A type of carbohydrate
b)
A type of hormone
c)
A type of neurotransmitter
d)

An enzyme that is embedded in the thylakoid membrane, forms, a channel that allows protons to flow in and out of the stroma

68.

What are the four complexes responsible for light-dependent reactions present in the thylakoid membrane?

a)

Photosystem l, Photosystem II, Cytochrome b6f complex, and ATP synthase

b)
Photosystem III, Cytochrome c complex, Photosystem IV, and ADP synthase
c)
Photosystem A, Cytochrome b6 complex, Photosystem B, and ATP generator
d)
Chlorophyll complex, NADPH complex, Photosystem V, and ATPase
69.

What is the Calvin cycle?

a)

The cycle of reactions that allow carbon fixation

b)
A new smartphone model
c)
A popular dance move
d)
A type of bicycle
70.

What is binary fission?

a)

Asexual

reproduction by division of one cell

or body into two equal or nearly

equal parts

b)
The method of reproduction in which an organism lays eggs that hatch into offspring
c)
The process of creating genetically identical offspring through the division of a single cell
d)
A type of sexual reproduction involving the fusion of two gametes
71.

What occurs during the g1 and g2 phases of active growth?

a)
DNA replication and repair
b)

Proteins are being synthesized

and cell organelles are being

produced

c)
Inactivity and rest
d)
Cell death and decay
72.

Attaches to the chromosomes and will

eventually pull the sister chromatids apart, While the spindle apparatus is forming, the nuclear envelope breaks down, At this point in prophase, the spindle apparatus extends completely across the cell from one pole to the other. What phase of mitosis is this?

a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
73.

What occurs during prometaphase? (select all that apply)

a)
Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
b)

A second set of microtubules grows from the poles of the cell towards the center. They attach to the kinetochores present on each sister chromatid

c)
Cell begins to divide
d)

The new microtubules begin pulling the chromosomes apart, creating enough tension to align the chromosomes at the equator of the cell

74.

What is metaphase?

a)

The stage in cell division where the cell membrane breaks down

b)

The third stage of mitosis where the chromosomes are aligned at the center of the cell

c)

The stage in cell division where the chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell

d)

The stage in cell division where the cell prepares for DNA replication

75.

What is anaphase?

a)
The stage of cell division in which the chromosomes condense
b)

The shortest phase of mitosis, occurs when the cohesion proteins present on the sister chromatids are removed and the chromosomes are pulled apart

c)
The stage of cell division in which the cell prepares for division
d)
The stage of cell division in which the chromosomes replicate
76.

What occurs during telophase? (select all that apply)

a)

The chromosomes begin to uncoil, closer to chromatin, so that they will be accessible for gene expression

b)
The chromosomes condense
c)

The spindle apparatus is

disassembled

d)

A nuclear envelope is created around the sister

chromatids at each pole

77.

What occurs during cytokinesis?

a)

The phase of the cell cycle when the cell

actually divides in two, involves the cleavage of the cell in

roughly equal halves

b)
The cell stops growing
c)
The cell enters the S phase of interphase
d)
The cell undergoes mitosis
78.

What are the two irreversible steps of the cell cycle?

a)
G1 phase and G2 phase
b)
Prophase and telophase
c)
Mitosis and meiosis
d)

DNA replication and Separation of the sister chromatids

79.

If cells are deprived of certain growth factors, they will not make it past the G1 /S checkpoint of the cell cycle. What follows this process?

a)

This arrests their growth and division, putting them into a dormant phase

called the G0 phase

b)

The chromosomes begin to uncoil, closer to chromatin, so

that they will be accessible for gene expression

c)

The new microtubules begin pulling the chromosomes

apart, creating enough tension to align the

chromosomes at the equator of the cell

d)

the spindle apparatus

extends completely across the cell from one pole to

the other

80.

What are gametes?

a)
Types of skin cells
b)
Types of muscle cells
c)
Types of bone cells
d)

Reproductive cells (sperm and egg) (haploid); each cell contains 2 chromosomes

81.

What are somatic cells?

a)

All non reproductive cells, diploid (2n)

b)
Cells that are only found in plants
c)
Cells that are not part of the human body
d)
Cells found only in the reproductive organs
82.

The diploid (2n) cell resulting from the fusion of male and female gametes, contains two copies of each chromosome, produced through fertilization is called _

a)
zygote
b)
ribosome
c)
chloroplast
d)
mitochondria
83.

Early in development, specific cells are set aside to undergo meiosis to form the gametes that can be used later in life to reproduce. What are these specific cells called?

a)
Skin cells
b)
Blood cells
c)
Muscle cells
d)

Germ- line cells

84.

___ , also called crossing over, the exchange of corresponding chromatid segments between homologous chromosomes; responsible for genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes

a)

Recombination

b)
Asexual reproduction
c)
Mitotic division
d)
Chromosomal mutation
85.

The sites of recombination or crossing over are called chiasmata.

What is the chiasmata?

a)
Sites of transcription
b)
Sites of translation
c)
Sites of replication
d)

An X-shaped figure that shows evidence of crossing over, where two chromatids have exchanged parts

86.

What is the role of the kinetochores of the sister chromatids ?

a)

To provide energy for cell division

b)

To act as a unit to capture the polar microtubules

c)
Separating the chromatids during cell division
d)

To regulate gene expression

87.

What are dominant traits?

a)

An allele that is expressed when present in either the heterozygous or the homozygous condition

b)
Traits that are not influenced by genetics
c)
Traits that are only expressed in females
d)
Traits that are only expressed in males
88.

What is a recessive trait?

a)
A genetic trait that skips a generation before being expressed.
b)
A genetic trait that is always expressed in an individual.
c)
A genetic trait that is expressed only when an individual has one copy of the dominant allele.
d)

An allele that is expressed only when present in the homozygous condition, but is “hidden” by the expression of a dominant allele in the heterozygous condition.

89.

What is genotype?

a)
Genotype is the physical appearance of an organism.
b)

Genotype is the total set of alleles that an individual contains, the genetic constitution underlying a single trait or set of traits.

c)
Genotype is the result of environmental factors on an organism.
d)
Genotype is the behavior of an organism.
90.

What is phenotype?

a)
The study of animal behavior
b)
The genetic makeup of an organism
c)

The physical appearance or other observable characteristics of that individual that result from an allele’s expression, the realized expression of the genotype

d)
The process of photosynthesis in plants
91.

What is a dihybrid cross?

a)
A type of hybrid car
b)

A single genetic cross involving two different traits, such as flower color and plant height

c)
A method of cooking two different dishes together
d)
A type of exercise routine
92.

What is incomplete dominance?

a)

Two or more alleles of a gene do not display clear dominance, the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygous forms.

b)
Genetic situation in which one allele completely eliminates the other allele
c)
Genetic situation in which one allele is completely recessive
d)
Genetic situation in which both alleles are completely dominant
93.

What are codominant alleles?

a)
A pair of recessive alleles that are both fully expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote
b)

Two or more alleles of a gene are each dominant to other alleles but not to each other. The phenotype of a heterozygote for codominance exhibits characteristics of each of the homozygous forms.

c)
A pair of dominant alleles that are both fully expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote
d)
A pair of alleles where one is fully dominant and the other is fully recessive in the phenotype of a heterozygote
94.

What is the human ABO blood group system?

a)
A system for classifying hair types
b)
A method for determining personality traits based on blood type
c)
A way to categorize different types of skin conditions
d)

The gene that determines ABO blood types encodes an enzyme that adds sugar molecules to proteins on the surface of red blood cells that act as recognition markers for the immune system

95.

What are the three components of a nucleic acid?

a)

5-carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), phosphate group (PO4 -), and a nitrogen-containing base

b)
water, salt, and protein
c)
carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
d)
iron, zinc, and magnesium
96.

What is the phosphodiester backbone

a)

One single strand of DNA, repeating sugar and phosphate units joined by phosphodiester bonds

b)
The outer covering of a cell membrane
c)
The structure of a protein molecule
d)
The arrangement of nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule
97.

Notice that each base-pair combines a two-ringed purine with a single-ringed pyrimidine. What do we call this pattern?

a)

Opposite

b)

Contradictory

c)

Complementary

d)

Unrelated

98.

Antiparallel configuration - two DNA strands that are put together with opposite polarities (5’ > 3’ and 3’ > 5’). What is this a configuration of?

a)
Protein strands
b)

Native double-stranded DNA

c)
RNA strands
d)
Lipid strands
99.

What is DNA polymerase?

a)

A class of enzymes that all synthesize DNA from a preexisting template

b)
A type of lipid involved in cell membrane structure
c)
A type of protein found in the nucleus of a cell
d)
A type of carbohydrate found in plants
100.

The main replication enzyme, responsible for the bulk of DNA synthesis is called _

a)

DNA polymerase III

b)
Helicase
c)
Ligase
d)
RNA polymerase
101.

What is topoisomerase?

a)
A type of carbohydrate found in plants
b)
A hormone that regulates blood sugar levels
c)

Any of a class of enzymes that can change the topological state of DNA to relieve torsion caused by unwinding.

d)
A protein involved in muscle contraction
102.

DNA polymerase can also only add nucleotides in the 5’-3’ direction. ○ The combination of these two factors means that polymerases present on each DNA strand must be acting in __ directions.

a)
opposite
b)
same
c)
random
d)
clockwise
103.

What is the difference between the leading and lagging strand?

a)

Leading strand- the DNA strand that can be synthesized continuously from the origin of replication ;

Lagging strand - the DNA strand that must be synthesized discontinuously

b)
The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 3' to 5' direction.
c)
The leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction.
d)
The leading strand is not involved in DNA replication, while the lagging strand is the main strand for replication.
104.

What occurs in leading strand synthesis? (select all that apply)

a)

DNA primase adds a single RNA primer to the DNA strand ;

This is the ONLY priming event that occurs

b)
RNA primer synthesis in the 5' to 3' direction
c)
No DNA replication occurs in the leading strand
d)

DNA polymerase III then travels along the single DNA strand to add nucleotides to it;

There is nothing to stop this action except running out of DNA to synthesize

105.

What occurs in lagging strand synthesis? (select all that apply)

a)
  1. 1. DNA primase adds an RNA primer to the DNA strand; This must be done for EACH Okazaki fragment

b)
  1. 2. Okazaki fragments are synthesized by DNA polymerase III

c)
  1. 3. The RNA primer is removed by DNA polymerase I and replaced with DNA

d)

4. DNA ligase then joins the Okazaki fragments together

e)
  1. 5. This process is repeated until the entire DNA strand is replicated.

106.

The __ __describes information flow in cells as DNA to RNA to protein

a)
peripheral theory
b)
central dogma
c)
sideways principle
d)
outer doctrine
107.

What is the difference between transcription and translation?

a)

Transcription is the enzyme catalyzed assembly of a RNA molecule complementary to a strand of DNA.; Translation is the assembly of a protein on the ribosomes, using mRNA to specify the order of amino acids.

b)
Transcription is the process of converting DNA into proteins, while translation is the process of copying RNA into DNA.
c)
Transcription is the process of converting proteins into RNA, while translation is the process of copying RNA into DNA.
d)
Transcription is the process of converting RNA into DNA, while translation is the process of copying DNA into RNA.
108.

True or false: Transcription is the DNA is directed synthesis of RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase.

This process uses complementarity, taking advantage of the complimentary bases and using DNA as a template to make RNA

a)

True

b)

False

109.

What is the difference between the coding strand and the template strand?

a)
The coding strand is the strand of DNA that is used as a template for RNA synthesis, while the template strand is the non-template strand of DNA.
b)
The coding strand is the template strand of DNA, while the template strand is the non-coding strand.
c)
The coding strand is used as a template for RNA synthesis, while the template strand is identical in sequence to the RNA transcript.
d)

The coding strand is the strand of a DNA duplex that is the same as the RNA encoded by a gene, has thymine instead of uracil in RNA ,while the template strand is the strand of DNA that is used as a template for RNA.

110.

The AUG triplet, which indicates the site of the beginning of mRNA translation; this codon also codes for the amino acid methionine. This is known as the __ __

a)
end codon
b)
coding codon
c)
stop codon
d)
start codon
111.

Eukaryotes have three distinct RNA polymerases, all with different cellular roles why bacteria/prokaryotes have a single RNA polymerase. What occurs during this RNA transcription? (select all that apply)

a)

RNA polymerase I - transcribes rRNA

b)

RNA polymerase II - transcribes mRNA

c)

RNA polymerase III - transcribes tRNA

112.

mRNA in eukaryotes is not the same as a primary transcript (simple copy) of a DNA strand. Which of the following is true about the transcription modifications? (select all that apply)

a)

Modified 5’ end

b)

Modified 3’ end produced by a different enzyme

c)
The primary transcript is immediately translated into protein
d)

Removal of introns (noncoding sequences)

113.

What is pre-mRNA splicing?

a)
The process of breaking down mRNA into nucleotides
b)
The process of duplicating mRNA before translation
c)
The process of adding introns to mRNA to form pre-mRNA
d)

In eukaryotes, the process by which introns are removed from the primary transcript to produce mature mRNA

114.

The three-nucleotide sequence at the end of a transfer RNA molecule that is complementary to, and base-pairs with, an amino-acid–specifying codon in mRNA is known as which of the following?

a)
proton
b)

anticodon loop

c)
isotope
d)
nucleus