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Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the process called where DNA is copied into RNA?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

2.

What is the process called where RNA is used to synthesize proteins by changing nucleotides to amino acids?

a)

Translation

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Mutation

3.

Which type of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

4.

Which type of RNA interacts with both RNA and amino acids during protein synthesis?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

5.

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

DNA → RNA → proteins

b)

RNA → DNA → proteins

c)

Proteins → RNA → DNA

d)

DNA → proteins → RNA

6.

What is the name for a mutation that shifts the reading frame of the genetic message?

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Silent mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Nonsense mutation

7.

What is the term for a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for an amino acid?

a)

Codon

b)

Genome

c)

Anticodon

d)

Exon

8.

What is the process called where the genetic code is read in groups of three?

a)

Reading frame

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Translation

9.

Which hypothesis states that each gene encodes a single polypeptide?

a)

One gene/one polypeptide hypothesis

b)

Central dogma hypothesis

c)

Operon model hypothesis

d)

Gene regulation hypothesis

10.

What is the name for the complete set of RNA transcripts in a cell?

a)

Transcriptome

b)

Genome

c)

Proteome

d)

Metabolome

11.

What is the name for the complete set of proteins expressed by a genome?

a)

Proteome

b)

Genome

c)

Transcriptome

d)

Metabolome

12.

What is the region of DNA where transcription begins called?

a)

Promoter

b)

Exon

c)

Terminator

d)

Enhancer

13.

What is the process called when a DNA sequence is copied into an RNA sequence?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

14.

What is the process called when an RNA sequence is used to make a protein?

a)

Translation

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Splicing

15.

Which type of mutation changes a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Frameshift mutation

c)

Deletion mutation

d)

Insertion mutation

16.

Which type of RNA is a component of the ribosome?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

snRNA

17.

Which type of RNA is involved in splicing and regulation of gene expression?

a)

snRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

18.

Which type of RNA is involved in the regulation of gene expression and silencing?

a)

miRNA & siRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

19.

What is the name for the non-coding regions of a gene that are removed during RNA processing?

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

c)

Promoter

d)

Enhancer

20.

What is the name for the coding regions of a gene that remain in the mature mRNA?

a)

Exon

b)

Intron

c)

Promoter

d)

Enhancer

21.

Which codon serves as the start codon for translation?

a)

AUG (methionine)

b)

UAA (stop codon)

c)

UAG (stop codon)

d)

UGA (stop codon)

22.

How many stop codons are there in the genetic code?

a)

Three (UAA, UAG, UGA)

b)

One (UAA)

c)

Two (UAA, UAG)

d)

Four (UAA, UAG, UGA, AUG)

23.

How many codons specify amino acids?

a)

61

b)

64

c)

20

d)

3

24.

In prokaryotic transcription, how many RNA polymerases do prokaryotes have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

25.

In prokaryotic transcription, what is the function of the promoter?

a)

The promoter is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.

b)

The promoter is the site where ribosomes assemble for translation.

c)

The promoter is the region where DNA replication begins.

d)

The promoter is the site where tRNA molecules bind during protein synthesis.

26.

In prokaryotic transcription, the nucleotides added are complementary to which strand of DNA?

a)

The template strand of DNA

b)

The coding strand of DNA

c)

The sense strand of DNA

d)

The non-template strand of DNA

27.

In prokaryotic transcription, what structure can form at termination sites?

a)

Hairpin structure

b)

Beta sheet

c)

Alpha helix

d)

Loop structure

28.

Prokaryotic transcription is coupled to translation.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

How many RNA polymerases do eukaryotes have?

a)

Three

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Four

30.

Which RNA polymerase in eukaryotes is responsible for mRNA synthesis?

a)

RNA polymerase II

b)

RNA polymerase I

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

RNA polymerase IV

31.

What sequence is commonly found in eukaryotic RNA polymerase II promoters?

a)

TATA sequence

b)

CAAT box

c)

GC box

d)

Poly-A tail

32.

What modification is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA?

a)

5' Methyl G cap

b)

Poly-A tail

c)

5' UTR sequence

d)

Intronic sequence

33.

What is added to the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNA during polyadenylation?

a)

Poly A tail (1-200 AAAA)

b)

5' cap (m7GpppG)

c)

Introns

d)

Exons

34.

Primary transcripts are modified to produce mRNAs. Which of the following is NOT a modification listed?

a)

5’ Methyl G cap

b)

3’ poly A tail

c)

Intron splicing

d)

Exon removal

35.

Fill in the blank: The 5’ end of a primary transcript is modified by the addition of a _________.

a)

5’ Methyl G cap

b)

Poly-A tail

c)

RNA primer

d)

Intronic sequence

36.

Fill in the blank: The 3’ end of a primary transcript is modified by the addition of a _________.

a)

3’ poly A tail

b)

5’ cap

c)

introns

d)

exons

37.

Eukaryotic genes may contain interruptions called _________.

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

c)

Promoters

d)

Codons

38.

The spliceosome is a splicing machine that contains _________.

a)

snRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mRNA

39.

Splicing can produce multiple transcripts from the same gene. Which of the following is NOT a result of splicing?

a)

Transcriptome

b)

Proteome

c)

Alternative splicing

d)

Genome duplication

40.

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases attach amino acids to tRNA. What must be attached to the tRNA for this process?

a)

The correct anticodon

b)

The ribosome

c)

The start codon

d)

The large subunit

41.

Fill in the blank: The two main structural features of tRNA are the ________ loop and the ________ end.

a)

anticodon loop; acceptor end

b)

codon loop; amino end

c)

anticodon loop; amino end

d)

codon loop; acceptor end

42.

Ribosomes are composed only of proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Fill in the blank: The ribosome has three sites: A, P, and ________.

a)

E

b)

Q

c)

S

d)

D

44.

The ribosome has both decoding and enzymatic functions. What are its two subunits?

a)

A) Small and large

b)

B) A and P

c)

C) Initiator and accessory

d)

D) E and P

45.

Initiation of translation requires accessory factors. Which of the following is NOT involved in initiation?

a)

A) Start codon

b)

B) Small subunit binds

c)

C) Initiator tRNA

d)

D) Peptide bond formation

46.

Fill in the blank: During elongation, the next tRNA with anticodon that pairs to the codon will enter the ________ site.

a)

A

b)

P

c)

E

d)

S

47.

Peptide bond formation occurs when tRNA with polypeptide shifts to the P site.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Fill in the blank: After the tRNA shifts to the E site, it ________ the ribosome.

a)

leaves

b)

binds to

c)

replicates in

d)

attaches to

49.

Fill in the blank: The process by which the ribosome moves along the mRNA is called ________.

a)

Translocation

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

50.

What happens when the stop codon is reached at the A site?

a)

Release factors are required.

b)

tRNA brings an amino acid.

c)

Ribosome continues elongation.

d)

DNA replication begins.

51.

What does SRP stand for in the context of protein targeting to the ER?

a)

Signal recognition particle

b)

Serine-rich protein

c)

Substrate recognition peptide

d)

Secretory ribonucleoprotein

52.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A mutation involving a substitution of a single nucleotide.

b)

A mutation that deletes an entire chromosome.

c)

A mutation that duplicates a whole gene.

d)

A mutation that changes the number of chromosomes.

53.

Which of the following is NOT a type of point mutation?

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Frameshift

d)

Nonsense

54.

Small insertions or deletions are called ________.

a)

indels

b)

exons

c)

introns

d)

transposons

55.

Which of the following is a type of small insertion or deletion mutation?

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Copy number variation

56.

Larger changes that lead to structural variation are called ________.

a)

structural variation (SV)

b)

point mutations

c)

single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

d)

copy number variations (CNVs)

57.

What does CNV stand for in genetics?

a)

Copy number variation

b)

Chromosome nucleotide variant

c)

Cellular nuclear volume

d)

Cytogenetic nucleotide value

58.

Balanced rearrangements do not change ________.

a)

copy number

b)

gene expression

c)

chromosome structure

d)

mutation rate

59.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
60.

Which of the following statements about DNA replication is TRUE?

a)

The leading strand is replicated continuously, while the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously.

b)

The leading strand is replicated discontinuously, while the lagging strand is replicated continuously.

c)

Both the leading and lagging strands are replicated continuously.

d)

Both the leading and lagging strands are replicated discontinuously.

e)

Each of the leading and lagging strands is replicated both continuously and discontinuously.

61.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
62.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
63.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)
anti-parallel
b)
deoxyribosic
c)
helical
d)
radioactive
64.

The three-letter code is called a?

a)

script

b)

codon

c)

tri code

d)

gene

65.

What organelle does the mRNA attach to in order to make the protein?

a)

ribosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

lysosome

66.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

67.

What sequence of mRNA always begins a new polypeptide chain?

a)

UAG

b)

AUG

c)

GAU

d)

UGA

68.

anti-codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

69.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Point

b)

Frameshift

70.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Nonsense

b)

Missense

c)

Silent

71.

Transformation occurs when ________________.

a)

None of these.

b)

a virus accidentally transfers bacterial DNA to a another bacterium.

c)

a plasmid is transferred from one bacteria to another.

d)

bacteria take up DNA from the environment.

72.

What does a promoter do?

a)

it allows a gene to be transcribed

b)

it creates a DNA segment

c)

it is another word for ribosomes

d)

it is another word for RNA

73.

This is the second stage of protein synthesis; in this stage, a ribosome reads mRNA codons and assists in assembling a chain of amino acids that will become a protein:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Proteination

74.

Unmutated sequence: CGC AAA TTC AGG


Mutated sequence: CGC TAA ATT CAG G


What type of mutation has occurred here?

a)

1 base insertion, frameshift

b)

1 base deletion, frameshift

c)

1 base substitution, synonymous

d)

1 base substitution, nonsynonymous

75.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A mutation that involves the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide

b)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide base pair

c)

A mutation that results in a duplication of a gene segment

d)

A mutation that involves the rearrangement of chromosome segments

76.

Which type of mutation results in a premature stop codon?

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

77.

If a DNA sequence changes from ATCG to ATGC, what type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Duplication

78.

What is a frameshift mutation?

a)

A mutation that changes one amino acid in a protein

b)

A mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence

c)

A mutation that shifts the reading frame of the genetic message

d)

A mutation that results in a stop codon

79.

Which of the following is an example of a silent mutation?

a)

A mutation that changes an amino acid to a stop codon

b)

A mutation that changes an amino acid but does not affect protein function

c)

A mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence

d)

A mutation that results in a frameshift

80.

A piece of the chromosome detches, turns 180 degrees, and reattaches

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

81.

A piece of one chromosome detaches and reattaches to a different chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

82.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

83.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

84.

In RNA splicing in eukaryotes, _________ are removed and __________ are connected and remain as part of the mRNA molecule.

a)

Introns; exons

b)

Caps; tails

c)

cytosines; guanines

d)

Okazaki fragments; ligases

85.

What is the central dogma?

a)

DNA --> mRNA --> tRNA --> rRNA

b)

Template strand --> coding strand --> mRNA

c)

Nucleus --> cytoplasm --> ribosome

d)

DNA --> mRNA --> protein

86.

Which of the following components is involved in the initiation of transcription?

a)

Start codon

b)

Origin

c)

Promoter

d)

Primer

87.

What is made during transcription?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Proteins

d)

rRNA

88.

What is the name of the enzyme that will transcribe DNA into RNA?

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

TAP Polymerase

d)

rDNA Polymerase

89.

On which end of the RNA molecule (5' or 3') can additional bases be added to?

a)

5'

b)

3'

c)

new bases can be added on both the 5' and the 3' ends

d)

it depends on the gene

90.

What signals where transcription will begin?

a)

replication fork

b)

primase

c)

promoter sequence

d)

origin of replication

91.

What signals where transcription will stop?

a)

stop codon

b)

terminator sequence

c)

where the lagging strand is

d)

red light

92.

RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of DNA, reading it in the

a)

5' to 3' direction

b)

3' to 5' direction

c)

leading strand direction

d)

promoter direction

93.

RNA nucleotides are added onto which end of the growing RNA strand?

a)

5' end

b)

3' end

c)

the end that is nearest the replication fork

d)

RNA nucleotides can be added onto either end

94.

What happens during termination of translation? (Select all that apply)

a)

The stop codon is reached

b)

The polypeptide is released

c)

The mRNA exits the nucleus

d)

The ribosomal subunits are released from the mRNA

95.

What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA that codes for an amino acid?

a)

base

b)

codon

c)

anticodon

d)

promoter sequence

96.
The job of tRNA is to
a)

carry amino acids to the ribosomes

b)

carry ribosomes to the ER

c)

carry glucose to mitochondria

d)

carry mRNA out of the nucleus

97.

What signals where translation will end?

a)

introns

b)

termination sequence

c)

stop codon

d)

operons

98.

Which cellular structure is the site of protein synthesis?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Mitochondria

99.

Which site on the ribosome does the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA bind during translation?

a)

Peptidyl (P) site

b)

Exit (E) site

c)

Aminoacyl (A) site

d)

Shine-Dalgarno site

100.

Which enzyme is responsible for attaching amino acids to their corresponding tRNA molecules?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

d)

Ribosomal RNA

101.

Which phase of translation involves the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

d)

Processing

102.

What are initiation factors?

a)

Proteins that help start transcription

b)

Proteins that assist in the assembly of the ribosome on the mRNA

c)

Proteins that terminate translation

d)

Proteins that modify mRNA after transcription

103.

Which protein complex recognizes the signal sequence and directs the ribosome to the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Spliceosome

b)

Signal-recognition particle (SRP)

c)

Ribosome

d)

DNA polymerase

104.

Which factor helps move the ribosome along the mRNA during translation?

a)

Initiation factor

b)

Elongation factor

c)

Termination factor

d)

Release factor

105.

What is the role of release factors in translation?

a)

To initiate translation

b)

To assist in the elongation of the polypeptide chain

c)

To terminate translation by recognizing stop codons

d)

To process mRNA after transcription

106.

Which type of regulation involves controlling the level of gene expression after transcription has occurred?

a)

Transcriptional regulation

b)

Posttranscriptional regulation

c)

Translational regulation

d)

Posttranslational regulation

107.

Which phase of transcription does the RNA polymerase add complementary nucleotides to growing mRNA

a)

initiation

b)

termination

c)

elongation

d)

peptide bond formation

108.

Which phase of transcription does RNA polymerase separate DNA strands

a)

elongation

b)

initiation

c)

termination

d)

translation

109.

Which phase of transcription occurs when transcription stops when RNA polymerase reaches special termination signal code

a)

initiation

b)

termination

c)

exon

d)

elongation

110.

What is mRNA called before processing

a)

post-mRNA

b)

pre-mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

111.

Which part of the code is removed by spliceosomes, leaving only the coding region

a)

introns

b)

exons

c)

axons

d)

anticodons

112.

Which phase occurs when small ribosomal subunit binds to specific initiator tRNA (methionine) and then to the mRNA to be decoded

a)

transcription

b)

initiation

c)

elongation

d)

termination

113.

What are the 3 steps of elongation

a)

codon recognition

b)

transcription

c)

peptide bond formation

d)

translocation

114.

What step of elongation occurs when the ribosome shifts down 3 bases of mRNA displacing tRNAs by 1 position; tRNA entering E-site detaches; A site is empty ready for new tRNA

a)

codon recognition

b)

termination

c)

translocation

d)

peptide bond formation

115.

What phase of translation occurs when 1 of 3 stop codons (UGA, UAA, UAG) on mRNA enters A site, translation ends

a)

translocation

b)

termination

c)

transcription

d)

initiation

116.

Which is the site for incoming aminoacyl-tRNA

a)

p site

b)

e site

c)

a site

d)

b site

117.

which is the site for tRNA linked to growing polypeptide chain

a)

p site

b)

b site

c)

e site

d)

a site

118.

Which site is for outgoing tRNA

a)

a site

b)

e site

c)

p site

d)

q site

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