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Final exam revision G12 AP Biology

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which scientists successfully performed experiments to create amino acids from the chemicals they believed made up the early atmosphere?

a)

Stanley Miller

b)

Sidney Fox

c)

Harold Urey

d)

J.B.S. Haldane

e)

Alexander Oparin

2.

In Stanley Miller's and Harold Urey's experiment what chemical was intentionally left out?

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

methane

d)

ammonia

3.

What was formed in the Miller-Urey experiments?

a)

amino acids

b)

proteins

c)

living cells

d)

DNA

4.

Which of the following is NOT an organic compound?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

Which region of the diagram represents the early atmosphere?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

9

6.

Which area represents the early ocean (primordial soup)?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

7.

The first living things to populate the Earth were dinosaurs

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Scientists have created life from nonlife in the laboratory

a)

True

b)

False

9.

In Early Earth, which molecule was not present in the atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Glucose

d)

Oxygen

10.

What are the gases found in primitive air? 

a)

Hydrogen

Methane

Water

C02

b)

Oxygen

Methane

Chlorine

c)

Methane 

Silicon

Oxygen

d)

Water 

Oxugen

CO2

Methane

11.

Organic molecules can form spontaneously from inorganic materials

a)

True

b)

False 

12.

One of the accepted scientific theories describing the origin of life on Earth is known as chemical evolution. According to this theory, which of the following events would need to occur first for life to evolve?

a)

onset of photosynthesis

b)

origin of genetic material

c)

Synthesis of organic molecules

d)

formation of the plasma membrane

13.

The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?

a)

Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.

b)

Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.

c)

The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.

d)

No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.

14.
Which type of cell came first?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells evolved around the same time
15.
What process is shown within this diagram?
a)
Natural selection
b)
Endosymbiosis
c)
Chemical evolution
d)
Abiogenesis
16.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
17.

According to most of the theories the first molecule to give origin of life was:

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

18.

What is this a picture of?

a)

Plate Tectonics

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Pangaea

d)

Ocean Crust

19.

Which of the following layers is most likely the oldest?

a)

V

b)

H

c)

Y

d)

C

20.

According to the picture below, what is the correct order from oldest layer to youngest layer?

a)

D, E, F, G

b)

E, F,G, D

c)

G, F, E, D

d)

G, F, D, E

21.

states that younger rock is found above older rock when comparing undisturbed sedimentary rock layers

a)

law of superposition

b)

trace fossil

c)

matter can't be created or destroyed

d)

atoms

22.
How old do Paleontologists believe the Earth is?
a)
2015 years old
b)
3.6 billion years old
c)
4.6 billion years old
d)
4.6 million years old
23.

Fossilized evidence that formed in sedimentary rock showing animal activity.

a)

Pangea

b)

Uniformitarianism

c)

Trace Fossil

d)

Climate

24.

Which kind of fossil is it? Use evidence from the picture.

a)

mold fossil

b)

resin fossil

c)

trace fossil

d)

whole body fossil

25.

How do animal skeletons become fossils?

a)

An animal is buried in sediment. Skin, muscle, and organs are broken down. Pressure pushes out water, and bones fill up with minerals.

b)

An animal begins turning into rock. Then it dies, and more minerals enter the bones to finish the process.

c)

An animal falls into the ocean. The minerals in the ocean turn the animal into stone.

d)

An animal dies in the snow. Its body freezes and becomes filled with water and minerals. After many years, it turns into a fossil.

26.

The summary at the end of an experiment that explains the results.

a)

conclusion

b)

procedures

c)

materials

d)

variables

27.

What is an observation?

a)

A scientific statement based on ideas

b)

To be unaware of your surroundings

c)

The question you want an answer to

d)

Using your senses to understand and notice what is going on around you

28.

A testable educated guess to a scientific question

a)

Question

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Conclusion

d)

Experiment

29.
Which of the following is a circular DNA from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
30.
Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA scissors?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
31.

Which of the following is true of transgenic organisms?

a)

Transgenic organisms have genes from a different species

b)

Transgenic organisms have genes from their same species

32.

The idea that life arises from nonliving.

a)

Theory of biogenesis

b)

Spontaneous generation

33.

Francisco Redi experiment didn't convince everyone

a)

True

b)

False

34.

closed flask with meat will attract flies

a)

True

b)

False

35.

theory of biogenesis

a)

Living organisms can produce other living organisms

b)

Life arises from nonliving

36.
Which of the following terms is another name for spontaneous generation?
a)
Abiogenesis
b)
Biogenesis
c)
Chemical evolution
d)
Organic evolution
37.

Maggots came from nonliving matter.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

Bacteria generate themselves and don’t come from random non-living things.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

After Pasteur boiled the solution in the S-shaped flasks,

a)

microorganisms were generated

b)

air was absent from the flask

c)

Spontaneous generation was disproved

d)

Spores were found in the solution

40.

Why did Pasteur boil the broth in his experiment?

a)

To sterilize it

b)

To create life

c)

To warm the microbes

d)

To create bubbles

41.

Whose experiment is show in the picture?

a)

Aristotle's

b)

Francesco Redi's

c)

Louis Pasteur's

d)

Leeuwenhoek's

42.

Who finally disproved Spontaneous Generation?

a)

Redi

b)

Needham

c)

Spallanzani

d)

Pasteur

43.

What piece of equipment did Pasteur use in his experiment which allowed air to enter but trapped the dust particles in the air?

a)

microscope

b)

Erlynmeyer flask

c)

Swan-neck flask

d)

Wide mouth beaker

44.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

45.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

46.

This is the practice of cutting DNA and separating it by the size of the pieces

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

47.

Why did scientists edit the genes of bacteria to produce insulin?

a)

Because the bacteria were diabetic

b)

Because bacteria have simple DNA that is easier to manipulate, making it easy to produce insulin in a lab

c)

Because bacteria's complex DNA was perfect for insulin production

d)

Because insulin has no use outside of a lab setting

48.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

49.
True or False: Gel electrophoresis allow scientist to compare DNA of different individuals.
a)
True
b)
False
50.

The laboratory process that makes many copies of DNA

a)

PCR

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Therapy

51.

Restriction Enzymes are isolated from :

a)

a).Protozoa

b)

b). Bacteria

c)

c).Virus

d)

d).Fungi

52.
What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments?
a)
DNA primase
b)
DNA helicase
c)
DNA ligase
d)
DNA polymerase
53.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
54.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
55.
DNA fingerprinting works because
a)
Most genes are dominant
b)
All organisms contain RNA
c)
The most important genes are different among most people
d)
No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA 
56.

Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by examining a person's unique sequence of DNA pairs.

a)

DNA Fingerprint

b)

Allele

c)

Chromosome

57.

A method of separating molecules, such as DNA, according to their size and electrical charge.

a)

Electrophoresis

b)

DNA Fingerprint

c)

DNA Probe

58.

Which suspect should be charged with the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Suspect 3

d)

None of these suspects

59.

The total amount DNA in a cell is called the ?

a)

DNA Fingerprint

b)

Introns

c)

Genome

d)

Restriction Enzyme

60.
Bob was found dead in his home.  Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle.  Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects.  Which suspect likely committed the crime? 
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
61.

How different are two people's DNA?

a)

99.9% different

b)

73% different

c)

0.1% different

d)

no differences between two people

62.

How similar are two human's DNA?

a)

100% the same

b)

99.9% the same

c)

65% the same

d)

no similarities between two people

63.

What should a scientist do if they have a small amount of DNA they want to analyze?

a)

Run gel electrophoresis

b)

Do polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

c)

Use restriction enzymes

d)

Make a karyotype

64.

Which process is shown?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

karyotyping

65.

Which process is shown in this picture?

a)

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

b)

use of restriction enzymes

c)

karyotyping

d)

gel electrophoresis

66.

Which process is shown in the picture?

a)

using restriction enzymes

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

d)

karyotype

67.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
68.
Which man is the father of this baby?
a)
Father 1
b)
Father 2
c)
Father 3
d)
None of them
69.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
70.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
71.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
72.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
73.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

74.
The study of the genome is known as
a)
Biology
b)
Genomics
c)
Genes
d)
Heredity
75.
The main goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP) was to:
a)
Identify the unique parts of each person's DNA.
b)
Identify genes responsible for human diseases.
c)
Identify genes responsible for human behavior.
d)
Determine the entire sequence of human DNA.
76.
Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?
a)
rDNA technology
b)
transferrence
c)
transformation
d)
rDNA plasmid
77.
Once the gene and plasmid have been cut with a restriction enzyme, another enzyme called _________ is used to join the pieces of DNA together.
a)
polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
dehydrogenase
d)
lactase
78.
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
79.
Which of the following are in the correct order?
a)
proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins --> DNA divided into genes
b)
proteins determine traits --> DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins
c)
DNA divided into genes --> proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins
d)
DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins --> proteins determine traits
80.
Which is true about plasmids?
a)
Plasmids can be cut at specific sequences called restriction sites.
b)
Plasmids contain a promoter sequence that defines where transcription begins.
c)
Plasmids can contain an antibiotic resistance gene.
d)
All of the statements are true about plasmids.
81.
Which of the following model organisms is often used in rDNA technology to make insulin?
a)
small squid
b)
mouse
c)
fruit fly
d)
E. coli
82.
Which of the following accurately describe the steps of recombinant DNA technology using bacteria?
a)
plasmid & genes are cut --> cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
b)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
c)
plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected-->cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria
d)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply 
83.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand ATG TGA CAG

a)

TAC TCT GGG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

ATG AAA GCG

d)

AAC CGA TAG

84.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

85.
DNA that has been taken from one organism and implanted into another organism is what type of DNA?
a)
RNA
b)
Recombinant
c)
Combat
d)
none of these
86.
The transplantation of normal genes into cells in place of missing or defective ones in order to correct genetic disorders.
a)
DNA
b)
Pharmocogenomics
c)
Cloning
d)
Gene Therapy
87.

The study of how a person's gene determine individual response to a medication is known as:

a)

genetics

b)

pathology

c)

pharmacogenomics

d)

pharming

88.

Why is heat used in a PCR?

a)

to speed the process up

b)

reattaches the DNA double helix

c)

separates the original DNA strand so it can be copied

d)

adds free floating nucleotides to the new DNA strand

89.

What does DNA fingerprinting compare?

a)

each gene making up a person's DNA

b)

the proteins DNA codes for

c)

repeating units in coding segments of DNA

d)

repeating units in noncoding segments of DNA

90.
Give the corresponding RNA Strand ATCG
a)
TAGC
b)
TACC
c)
ACGT
d)
none of these
91.
These are a group of cells that can become any cell in the human body.
a)
Stem Cells
b)
Skin Cells
c)
Brain Cells
d)
Bone cells
92.
What is DNA sequencing?
a)
The total of genes carried by an individual or cell
b)
Coding genes in order to identify single nucleotide polymorphisms
c)
Deciphering the functions of various parts of the human genome
d)
The process of identifying the order of the bases in DNA
93.
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
a)
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
b)
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
c)
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
d)
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
94.
How many cycles of PCR does it take to produce a double-stranded DNA fragment of the desired length?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
95.

What is the denaturation step?

a)

mutating RNA polymerase

b)

Cooling DNA to allow primers to form

c)

separating DNA helix in a cold environment

d)

separating DNA helix with using heat

96.

What happens after you have denatured your DNA?

a)

It denatures again.

b)

Primers attach to the gene of interest.

c)

The gene elongates

d)

PCR is over

97.
From where does Taq polymerase come?
a)
Bacteria that live in hydrothermal vents/hot springs.
b)
Cambodia
c)
The rain forest
d)
The CDC
98.

What is the Extension step?

a)

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end

b)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end

c)

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end

d)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end

99.

What process directly follows PCR?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

cloning

d)

transformation

100.
Which of the following accurately describe the steps of recombinant DNA technology using bacteria?
a)
plasmid & genes are cut --> cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
b)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
c)
plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected-->cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria
d)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply 
101.

Larger DNA fragments move through a gel _____________ smaller DNA fragments.

a)

faster than

b)

at the same rate as

c)

slower than

102.
"Endosymbiosis" means
a)
Living together
b)
Living inside
c)
Entering together
d)
Joining together
103.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria live
d)
Why cells rely on one another
104.
____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.
a)
Rough ER & Smooth ER
b)
Mitochondria & Flagellum
c)
Chloroplast & Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast and Golgi apparatus
105.

Evolutionary theory which explains the origin of eukaryotes from ancestral prokaryotes.

Proposes that some organelles (Mitochondria and Chloroplasts), evolved from free-living prokaryotes that were engulfed and subsequently became obligate endosymbionants. → Endosymbiotic Theory

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Why do mitochondria and chloroplasts have DNA in them?

a)

They were once prokaryotic cells.

b)

They produce their own DNA through photosynthesis.

c)

They receive the DNA from the nucleus.

d)

They process the DNA of the cell.

107.

How does the image above best support symbiogenesis?

a)

Both the bacterium and mitochondrion produce a form of energy

b)

The mitochondrion has intrinsic DNA

c)

The bacterium contains a phospholipid bilayer

d)

The bacterium contains a nucleus

108.

Which of the following organizes the divisions of geologic time from longest to shortest?

a)

eons, eras, periods, epochs

b)

epochs, periods, eras, eons

c)

periods, eons, epochs, eras

d)

eras, epochs, eons, periods

109.

Which of the following is typically measured in hundreds of thousands to millions of years?

a)

a period

b)

an eon

c)

an era

d)

an epoch

110.

In which time period are we currently living?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

111.

Dinosaurs, small mammals, and birds are found in this time period.

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

112.

This chronological time chart is broken into different time chunks; the largest being the Eon, then Era, Period, and Epoch.

a)

Timeline

b)

Earth's Calendar

c)

Geological time scale

d)

Time chart

113.

The end of life for a group of organisms, usually a species, is called a(n) ________________.

a)

Extinction

b)

Retirement

c)

Endangerment

d)

Catastrophe

114.

Which era was the longest?

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Precambrian

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

115.

In what time period did Pangaea, the super continent, appear?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

116.

What has been the main cause of changes to Earth's surface?

a)

Pangaea

b)

Plate tectonics

c)

Climate

d)

Weathering

117.
What rock type is best for finding fossils?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic

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