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AP Bio Unit 4: Cell Communication & Cycle Review

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
2.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
3.
Which of the following is involved in many human medicines for disease?
a)
cAMP
b)
Calcium concentration
c)
G-protein pathways
d)
receptor tyrosine kinases
4.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
5.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
6.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
7.
What is a phosphorylation cascade?
a)
travelling of hormones through the air
b)
travelling of hormones through the blood
c)
the removal of a phosphate
d)
a series of molecules that get phosphorylated
8.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
9.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
10.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
11.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
12.
As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
13.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

14.

An example of LOCAL cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

15.

A cell converting a chemical signal into a cellular response is known as __.

a)

energetics

b)

transduction

c)

ligand response

d)

transformation

16.

After a ligand binds, the intracellular domain of a receptor protein changes _____, initiating transduction of the signal.

a)

color

b)

size

c)

shape

17.

What do secondary messengers, like cAMP, do?

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer

b)

relay & amplify a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

c)

relay & amplify a message from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm

d)

dampen the message

18.

Receptors for signal molecules __________.

a)

all work via protein kinases

b)

are never found in the nucleus of a cell

c)

may be found embedded in the plasma membrane, or found within the cytoplasm or nucleus

d)

all work by opening ion channels

e)

are only found associated with the plasma membrane

19.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
20.

What event would activate a G protein?

a)

replacement of GDP with GTP

b)

hydrolysis of GTP to GDP

c)

hydrolysis of GDP to GTP

d)

phosphorylation of GDP to GTP

e)

phosphorylation of GTP to GDP

21.

Testosterone does not affect all cells of the body because __________.

a)

testosterone cannot cross the plasma membrane

b)

not all cells have cytoplasmic receptors for testosterone

c)

not all cells in the body have membrane receptors for testosterone

d)

it is a local regulator

e)

it affects only cells that have ion-channel receptors

22.

Second messengers tend to be water-soluble and small. This accounts for their ability to __________.

a)

rapidly cross the plasma membrane

b)

pass quickly from cell to cell

c)

move from substrate to substrate during a phosphorylation cascade

d)

rapidly move throughout the cell by diffusion

e)

cross the nuclear membrane and interact with DNA

23.

Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because __________.

a)

only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments

b)

most cells lack the Y chromosome required

c)

only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone

d)

only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor

e)

intracellular receptors are present only in target cells

24.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signalling

b)

endocrine signalling

c)

autocrine signalling

d)

juxtacrine signalling

25.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signalling

b)

endocrine signalling

c)

autocrine signalling

d)

juxtacrine signalling

26.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signalling

b)

endocrine signalling

c)

autocrine signalling

d)

juxtacrine signalling

27.

Give the correct sequence of apoptosis:

1.Nucleus begins to break

2.Nucleus condensation and formation of bleb

3.Phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies

a)

1,2,3

b)

2,3,1

c)

3,2,1

d)

2,1,3

28.

Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:

i Response

ii Amplification

iii Reception

iv Transduction

Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?

a)

i, ii, iii, iv

b)

iii, i, iv, ii

c)

ii, iv, i, iii

d)

iii, iv, ii, i

29.

What is the first step of signal transduction?

a)

Reception

b)

Response

c)

Transduction

30.

What is a signaling molecule called?

a)

Activator

b)

Enhancer

c)

Ligand

d)

Repressor

31.

The ligand travels through the signal transduction path.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

All cells respond to the same ligand with the same response.​

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which is a secondary messenger?

a)

ATP

b)

Ca2+​

c)

Hormone

d)

Ligand

34.

What is the signaling molecule & where does it bind?​

a)

Ligand; Enzyme​

b)

Ligand; Receptor​

c)

Substrate; Enzyme​

d)

Substrate; Receptor​

35.

Which of the following act as secondary messengers?​

a)

ATP and Ca2+​

b)

Ca2+ and cAMP​

c)

cAMP and ligand​

d)

Ligand and ATP​

36.

Different cells respond to the signal in the same way.​

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Muscle contraction occurs when the calcium binds in the muscular cells. Where is the calcium stored in the muscle cells?​

a)

Lysosome​

b)

Nucleus​

c)

Smooth ER​

d)

Vacuole​

38.

Calcium is stored in the smooth ER and allows for muscular contractions. How is calcium released from the smooth ER?​

​

a)

Active transport​

b)

Gated ion channel​

c)

Ion channel​

d)

Simple diffusion​

39.

What is apoptosis?​

​

a)

Cell undergoing cellular division​

b)

Endocrine cell secreting proteins​

c)

Programmed cell death​

d)

Synthesis of ATP without glucose​

40.

Binds to turn on or off gene expression​

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Promoter

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Transcription factor

41.

Inhibitor that binds to the active site inhibiting substrate

a)

Allosteric Inhibitor

b)

Competitive Inhibitor

c)

Noncompetitive Inhibitor

d)

Repressor Inhibitor

42.

A change in the receptor can affect the responses of cell

a)

True

b)

False

43.

A mutation in a relay molecule can affect the response.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Example of positive feedback

a)

blood clotting

b)

Glucose levels

c)

Fruit ripening

d)

Child birth

45.

Example of negative feedback

a)

blood clotting

b)

Glucose levels

c)

Fruit ripening

d)

Child birth

46.

When the effects of a stimulus is enhanced this is known as

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

47.

When the effects of a stimulus is reduced this is known as

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

48.

What is the term for maintaining balanced internal environments

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

49.

Most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following characteristics when compared to normal, healthy cells?

a)

Shorter cell cycle

b)

More carefully regulated rates of cell division

c)

Lower rates of mitosis

d)

Higher rates of protein translation

e)

Identical DNA

50.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
51.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
a)
To create new daughter cells
b)
To prevent cancer from developing
c)
To help the body fight viruses and bacteria
52.
How does mitosis in plant cells differ from mitosis in animal cells?
a)
animal cells form a cell plate
b)
plant cells form a cell plate
c)
plant cells go through the process in reverse
d)
plant cells go through two rounds of mitosis while animal cells just do one
53.

What two components make an active MPF

a)

a growth factor and a mitotic factor

b)

ATP synthetase and a protease

c)

cyclin and tubulin

d)

cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase

54.
sequence
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
55.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
56.

In what phase of mitosis is this cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

57.

p53 is a gene that codes for a CDK inhibitor that slows the cell cycle. What would be the result of a mutation in the p53 gene?

a)

No cell division

b)

Decreased CDK/Cyclin complexes

c)

Activated DNA repair

d)

Tumor formation

58.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

59.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

60.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

61.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

62.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

63.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

64.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

65.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
66.
Which of the following phrases best describes cytokenesis
a)
division of the cytoplasm
b)
division of the nucleus
c)
division of DNA
d)
division of surface area
67.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
68.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
69.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
70.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
71.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
72.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Interphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
73.
The nuclear membrane breaks down occurs during which stage?
a)
Interphase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
74.

Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes.

a)

21

b)

23

c)

46

d)

None of the above

75.

What word means programmed cell death?

a)

apoptosis

b)

mitosis

c)

Ced-9

d)

bleb

76.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
77.
When a chromosome is NOT dividing, what form does it take?
a)
chromatid
b)
chromatin
c)
chromosome
d)
centromere
78.
The point of attachment between two sister chromatids is called
a)
kinetochore
b)
centromere
c)
chromosome
d)
spindle
79.
Which best describes the role of p53 protein in the cell cycle
a)
it makes sure organelles are properly replicated
b)
it makes sure that the cytoplasm is equally divided
c)
it make sure DNA is free of errors
d)
It makes sure the DNA is copied
80.

G1 is associated with what event?

a)

normal growth and cell function

b)

DNA replication

c)

The beginning of mitosis

d)

breakdown of the nuclear membrane

81.

The mitotic spindle (microtubules) plays a role in which process?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

c)

dissolving the nuclear membrane

d)

separation of sister chromatids

82.

Why do cells such as neurons divide very rarely?

a)

They no longer have active nuclei

b)

They have entered G0

c)

they can no longer break down cyclins

d)

They no longer produce MPF

83.

Cells from cancerous tumors usually have an unusual number of chromosomes, and unusual looking chromosomes. What could explain this?

a)

cancer cells are in G0

b)

cancer cells are arrested in the S phase

c)

cell cycle check points are not in place

d)

transformation introduces new chromosomes to cells

84.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
85.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
86.

Phase involving formation of nuclear envelope around separated chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

87.

Which molecules act as gatekeepers for each checkpoint of the cell cycle?

a)

p53 gene

b)

cyclins and cycline-dependent kinases

c)

thyroid hormones

88.

When is apoptosis initiated?

a)

When DNA damage is repaired.

b)

When cells are removed from the cell cycle.

c)

When DNA damage cannot be repaired.

89.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)
tumor suppressor genes
b)
oncogenes
90.
Which is an example of a tumor suppressor gene?
a)
apoptosis
b)
proto-oncogenes
c)
p53
d)
oncogenes
91.
Normal cell division is regulated by...
a)
Proto-oncogenes
b)
oncogenes
92.
p53 activates which of the following?
a)
Tumor suppressor genes
b)
cell cycle
c)
DNA repair proteins
d)
uncontrolled cell division
93.
Proto-oncogenes can mutate into...
a)
oncogenes
b)
tumor suppressor genes
c)
DNA repair proteins
94.
Oncogenes cause super-accelerated
a)
apoptosis
b)
mitosis
95.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure DNA has been replicated correctly during S phase.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint
96.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure the correct number of chromosomes are present and attached to microtubules.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint
97.
The checkpoints that regulate the cell cycle can fail when ____ becomes damaged.
a)
DNA 
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Ribosomes
98.

Name the 3 checkpoints of the cell cycle

a)

Anaphase checkpoint, mitosis/metaphase checkpoint, and telophase checkpoint

b)

Interphase checkpoint, S phase checkpoint, and M phase checkpoint

c)

G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and S phase checkpoint

d)

G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and mitosis/metaphase checkpoint

99.

A disease caused by uncontrolled division of abnormal cells

a)

Cancer

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Arthritis

100.

G1, S, G2 are the steps of...

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase

c)

Mitosis

d)

Interphase

101.

During which phase does DNA make a copy of itself?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

102.

During which phase does the nucleus of the cell divide?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M - Mitosis

103.

During which phase does a cell get ready for division?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M-Mitosis

104.

What 3 phases make up Interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

e)

C

105.

Why is interphase so long?

a)

The cell has to grow

b)

The cell performs normal functions to keep the body alive

c)

The cell copies the DNA

d)

All of the above

106.

Have you known someone that has or has had cancer?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not Sure

107.

What are some carcinogens, substances that cause cancer, that you have been exposed to in your life?

4 lines
108.

In a normal cell, what does a tumor suppressor tell the cell to do?

a)

Start dividing

b)

Stop dividing

c)

Divide twice

109.

In a normal cell, what does the proto-oncogene tell the cell to do?

a)

Start dividing

b)

Stop dividing

c)

Divide twice

110.

What stage of the cell cycle do some cells become inactive and cease to divide?

a)

G2 phase

b)

Interphase

c)

G0

d)

S phase

111.

Which refers to the structural unit consisting of a DNA molecule wrapped around histone proteins?

a)

Centromere

b)

Centrosome

c)

Nucleosome

d)

Chromatin

112.

Match the following

a)

Prophase

1.

The chromosomes condense and the spindle forms

b)

Metaphase

2.

Chromosomes are aligned on the spindle equator.

c)

Anaphase

3.

Sister chromatids separate.

d)

Telophase

4.

The spindle disappears, and the nuclear envelope forms.

e)

Prometaphase

5.

The nuclear envelope breaks up, and spindle fibers attach

to kinetochores.

113.

The cytoplasm of a cell divides by which process?

a)

Telekinesis

b)

Nuclear Division

c)

Fission

d)

Cytokinesis

114.

Imagine that gene X mutates and begins encoding a protein that accelerates the cell cycle. Before it mutated, gene X was most likely a(n)?

a)

proto-oncogene

b)

oncogene

c)

tumor suppressor gene

d)

apoptosis gene

115.

Which of the following are external regulators of the cell cycle?

a)

cyclins

b)

growth factors

c)

mitotic spindles

d)

cancer cells

116.

Draw a cell with 3 chromosomes in metaphase

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