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MAPEH 9 Review Test for 2nd Long Test

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What nickname was Adam de la Halle known by?

a)

Adam le Sage

b)

Adam le Bossu

c)

Adam le Troubadour

d)

Adam le Musicien

2.

Where did Adam de la Halle pursue his primary studies?

a)

University of Paris

b)

Notre Dame Cathedral

c)

Cistercian Abbey of Vaucelles

d)

Court of Charles of Anjou

3.

From whom did Adam de la Halle learn techniques that influenced his polyphonic music?

a)

Charles d’Anjou

b)

Leonin

c)

Liberio Sachetti

d)

Coussemaker

4.

What musical style is Adam de la Halle credited with creating as a trouvère?

a)

Polyphonic music

b)

Gregorian chant

c)

Monophonic chansons

d)

Opera

5.

Which court did Adam de la Halle join after his studies?

a)

Court of Charles of Anjou

b)

Court of Louis IX

c)

Court of Edward I

d)

Court of Richard the Lionheart

6.

What is the Chansonnier of Adam de la Halle?

a)
A historical novel about medieval France.
b)
A collection of poems by a different author.
c)
A biography of Adam de la Halle.
d)
A collection of songs by Adam de la Halle.
7.

Which work of Adam de la Halle is a play with music?

a)

Le jeu de Robin et de Marion

b)

Rondel

c)

Chansonnier

d)

Canso

8.

What genre did Adam apply polyphony to, creating a unique blend of sophistication and popular charm?

a)

Gregorian chant

b)

Rondeau (rondel)

c)

Opera

d)

Courtly canso

9.

Who published Adam de la Halle’s collected works in a modern edition?

a)

Charles-Edmond-Henride Coussemaker

b)

Guillaume de Machaut

c)

Liberio Sachetti

d)

Leonin

10.

What is notable about the rondels Adam de la Halle composed?

a)

They are purely courtly songs

b)

They are dance-songs with short, recurring refrains and pastoral flavor

c)

They are religious chants

d)

They follow Gregorian modes exclusively

11.

In medieval lyric poetry, the French “jeux-partis” is roughly equivalent to which Occitan form?

a)

Enueg

b)

Canso

c)

Gap

d)

Tenso

12.

Both the jeux-partis and the tenso are characterized by what feature?

a)

Solo lament singing

b)

Use of Gregorian chant notation

c)

Instrumental interludes only

d)

Debate or dialogue between two poets/singers

13.

The Occitan “canso” corresponds to which French trouvère genre?

a)

Rondel

b)

Chanson courtoise

c)

Jeux-Partis

d)

Pastorela

14.

The canso and chanson courtoise are typically about what subject matter?

a)

Political satire

b)

Rural festivals

c)

Religious pilgrimages

d)

Courtly love and refined themes

15.

Adam de la Halle, the famous trouvère, originally came from which place?

a)

Cambrai

b)

Paris

c)

Naples

d)

Arras

16.

In what way did Adam de la Halle’s works differ from those of most other trouvères?

a)

He avoided courtly subjects entirely

b)

He composed exclusively instrumental pieces

c)

He was the only trouvère to compose polyphonic music

d)

He wrote only religious monophonic chants

17.

Which event marks the beginning of Early Dynastic Egypt (c. 3000 BCE)?

a)

Rise of the New Kingdom

b)

Construction of the Great Pyramids

c)

Discovery of Tutankhamun’s tomb

d)

Upper Egypt conquered Lower Egypt, unifying Egypt

18.

Egyptian art during the Early Dynastic period mainly expressed:

a)

Daily life of peasants

b)

Warfare and conquest

c)

Agricultural scenes

d)

Kingship, cosmic order, and religion

19.

In Egyptian belief, the ka was:

a)

The pyramid capstone

b)

The sun god

c)

The burial chamber

d)

A life force that needed a body or statue

20.

Funerary practices in Egypt were designed to:

a)

Prepare for warfare

b)

Impress neighboring kingdoms

c)

Preserve mummies for display

d)

Ensure survival in the afterlife

21.

What is a mastaba?

a)

A type of pyramid capstone

b)

A ritual for the dead

c)

A temple for the sun god

d)

A flat-topped tomb with sloping sides

22.

Which part of the mastaba housed the ka statue of the deceased?

a)

Causeway

b)

Chapel

c)

Burial chamber

d)

Serdab

23.

What was the purpose of the chapel in a mastaba?

a)

To store mummies

b)

To hold priests’ meetings

c)

To hide treasures

d)

For family members to bring offerings

24.

Where were mastabas and necropolises usually located?

a)

East bank of the Nile

b)

Near the Red Sea

c)

West bank of the Nile

d)

North of the Nile Delta

25.

Early mastabas were built mainly of:

a)

Sandstone

b)

Gold

c)

Mudbrick

d)

Granite

26.

The purpose of a mastaba was to:

a)

Display royal decrees

b)

Provide a safe, eternal home for the ka

c)

Serve as a place of worship for Ra

d)

Store treasures of the king

27.

Which pyramid site represents the experimental stage of pyramid building?

a)

Giza

b)

Luxor

c)

Saqqara

d)

Dahshur

28.

The true pyramid symbolized:

a)

The Nile River’s annual flood

b)

Pharaoh’s power over the people

c)

The kingdom’s unification

d)

The rays of the sun for the king’s soul to ascend to Ra

29.

Which god was the Egyptian sun god?

a)
Anubis
b)
Horus
c)
Ra
d)
Osiris
30.

In a funerary complex, the place where the king’s body was first received from the Nile was called the:

a)

Pyramid

b)

Funerary temple

c)

Causeway

d)

Valley temple

31.

Which Great Pyramid at Giza is the largest?

a)
The Great Pyramid of Giza (Pyramid of Khufu)
b)
The Great Pyramid of Giza (Pyramid of Khafre)
c)
The Step Pyramid of Djoser
d)
The Great Pyramid of Giza (Pyramid of Menkaure)
32.

Which pyramid appears taller due to elevated bedrock but is actually slightly smaller?

a)
Pyramid of Giza
b)
Pyramid of Khafre
c)
Pyramid of Djoser
d)
Pyramid of Menkaure
33.

The Great Sphinx combines a lion’s body and a human head to symbolize:

a)

Paraoh's power and divine protection

b)

The Nile River flood

c)

Tutankhamun’s tomb guardian

d)

Egyptian love of animals

34.

According to the riddle of the Sphinx, “What walks on four legs in the morning, two legs at noon, and three legs in the evening?”

a)
A human
b)
A bird
c)
A cat
d)
A dog
35.

The statue of Menkaure and a Queen portrays the king as:

a)

Seated with crossed legs

b)

Frail and elderly

c)

Kneeling with arms raised

d)

Athletic, idealized, striding with left foot forward

36.

The queen in Menkaure’s statue is shown as:

a)

Standing behind priests

b)

Seated with a crown

c)

Kneeling with offerings

d)

Youthful, supportive, embracing the king

37.

Tutankhamun is famous today because:

a)

He built the largest pyramid

b)

He ruled for 60 years

c)

His tomb was discovered almost intact in 1922

38.

One of the main responsibilities of referees and officials during a basketball game is to ensure:

a)

Team travel arrangements

b)

Only entertainment

c)

Player salaries

d)

Safety, fairness, and proper timing

39.

Before a game, referees must check and approve:

a)

The players’ heights

b)

The audience seating

c)

Equipment, court safety, and game ball

d)

The team’s practice schedule

40.

When there are two worn-out balls, the referee should:

a)

Flip a coin to choose

b)

Pick a newer one

c)

Ask the team captains to choose

d)

Cancel the game

41.

Which of the following items can a referee ban for safety reasons?

a)

Socks

b)

Towels

c)

Metal bracelets

d)

Water bottles

42.

How does the referee start the game?

a)

With a time-out

b)

With a free throw

c)

With a coin toss

d)

With a jump ball

43.

The referee starts other periods after the first with:

a)

Jump balls


b)

Alternating throw-ins

44.

The referee may stop the game for:

a)

A successful basket

b)

Coach’s speech

c)

Team huddle

d)

Wet floor or crowd disturbance

45.

If a team refuses to play, the referee can:

a)

Change the referee

b)

Give them another time-out

c)

Reduce the score

d)

Declare a forfeit

46.

At the end of a game, referees must:

a)

Sign the scoreboard

b)

Announce the MVP

c)

Collect uniforms

d)

Check and sign the score sheet

47.

Which of the following is an example of what the referee records on the back of the score sheet?

a)

Player #12 – 2 unsportsmanlike fouls

b)

Ticket sales

c)

Audience attendance

d)

Team logo

48.

How long does a standard time-out last?

a)

30 seconds

b)

2 minutes

c)

1 minute

d)

45 seconds

49.

At what time marker should the buzzer be buzzed so the players can get on the court within ten seconds?

a)

50 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

5 seconds

d)

15 seconds

50.

When should an official NOT blow the whistle?

a)

When a foul occurs

b)

When the period ends

c)

After a successful field goal

d)

When a violation occurs

51.

Which principle should referees follow to keep the game flowing smoothly?

a)

Stop for every minor contact

b)

Follow spirit and intent of rules

c)

Let players decide rules

d)

Avoid enforcing time limits

52.

The scorer’s duties include all EXCEPT:

a)

Listing team names and starters

b)

Blowing the whistle for fouls

c)

Flipping the possession arrow

d)

Tracking points and fouls

53.

When a player commits his 5th foul, the scorer should:

a)

Listing team names and starters

b)

Flipping the possession arrow

c)

Blowing the whistle for fouls

d)

Tracking points and fouls

54.

When a player commits his 5th foul, the scorer should:

a)

Stop the clock personally

b)

Notify the coach and officials

c)

Reset the score

d)

Eject the player immediately without notice

55.

The timer starts the game clock:

a)

When the referee raises his hand

b)

At the coach’s signal

c)

After the first basket

d)

When the ball is tapped at jump ball or touched after throw-in

56.

The shot clock operator must reset the shot clock to how many seconds after a full change of possession?

a)

10 seconds

b)

14 seconds

c)

24 seconds

d)

30 seconds

57.

If Player #8 is fouled while shooting but is injured and can’t shoot the free throws, what happens?

a)

Free throw is cancelled automatically

b)

Referee shoots instead

c)

Coach picks another player from their team to shoot

d)

Opposing team shoots

58.

Why are referees’ final decisions important?

a)

They help teams win games

b)

They reduce the number of officials needed

c)

They increase ticket sales

d)

They prevent chaos, keep game moving, and ensure consistency

59.

Within what time should any protest about basketball results be relayed in writing?

a)

1 day

b)

1 hour

c)

1 week

d)

1 minute

60.

Why should wounds always be covered?

a)
Wounds should be left open to air for faster healing.
b)

Wounds should always be covered to prevent infection and promote healing.

c)
Wounds should only be covered if they are bleeding.
d)
Covering wounds can cause them to become infected.
61.

Before and after dressing a wound, you should:

a)

Touch the wound directly

b)

Pour cold water on the wound

c)

Ask the victim to remove the bandage

d)

Wash or sanitize your hands

62.

When possible, use _____dressings on wounds.

a)

Colorful

b)

Elastic

c)

Sterile

d)

Decorative

63.

What should you do if the first dressing is stuck to the wound?

a)

Peel it off quickly

b)

Cover it with soil

c)

Leave it unless absolutely necessary

d)

Soak it in water

64.

Which type of bandage is used to secure dressings and support limbs?

a)

Tubular bandage

b)

Triangular bandage

c)

Roller bandage

d)

Adhesive strip

65.

A large triangular cloth, about 1 m per side, used as a sling or to cover large wounds, is called a:

a)
square bandage
b)
rectangular cloth
c)
triangular bandage
66.

Before bandaging two legs together to immobilize a suspected fracture, you should:

a)

Remove all clothing

b)

Leave them free so they can move

c)

Tie knots tightly over the injury

d)

Place a soft padding such as a towel between them

67.

Which carrying technique is best for moving an unconscious victim by one rescuer?

a)

Hand-seat carry

b)

Chair carry

c)

Packstrap carry

d)

Three-man carry

68.

Which carry requires two rescuers forming a “seat” with their arms for a conscious victim?

a)

Chair carry

b)

Packstrap carry

c)

Hand-seat carry

d)

Three-man carry

69.

Which method uses three rescuers on one side of the victim, lifting head, hips, and legs together to move someone with serious injuries?

a)

Packstrap carry

b)

Three-man carry

c)

Chair carry

70.

When placing a victim on a stretcher, which rescuer should give clear, loud commands such as “Ready… Lift!”?

a)

The rescuer at the hips

b)

The rescuer at the head

c)

The rescuer at the feet