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Immune System / HIV / Review Quiz (36 Questions)

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is providing care for a client with advanced AIDS who has frequent infections. What PPE should be used?

a)

Gloves only

b)

Gown only

c)

Full PPE based on exposure risk (gloves, gown, mask, eye protection)

d)

None unless blood is visible

2.

Which group is the fastest-growing population diagnosed with AIDS?

a)

Older men

b)

Women and children

c)

Health care workers

d)

College students

3.

Which laboratory tests confirm an HIV diagnosis?

a)

ELISA and Western blot

b)

CBC and viral load

4.

What is the most important nursing priority for cancer patients receiving therapy?

a)

Pain control

b)

Preventing infection

c)

Encouraging fluid intake

d)

Preventing constipation

5.

Why should cancer patients avoid contact with young children?

a)

Children often carry infections

b)

Children increase stress

c)

Children interfere with rest

d)

Children increase fatigue

6.

A client with HIV is prescribed antiretroviral therapy. Which statement requires further teaching?

a)

I must take my medication exactly as prescribed.

b)

This medication cures HIV.

7.

What is the priority treatment for a bee sting that causes anaphylaxis?

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Corticosteroid

d)

Oxygen

8.

Which teaching should the nurse include when educating about condom use?

a)

Condoms are 100% effective.

b)

Condoms reduce risk but are not 100% effective.

c)

Condoms are unnecessary if on HIV medication.

d)

Condoms prevent all sexually transmitted diseases.

9.

A patient experiencing an allergic reaction has difficulty breathing. What is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Administer steroids

b)

Administer antihistamines

c)

Place the patient on oxygen

d)

Give fluids

10.

Which statement about immunity and aging is correct?

a)

Immunity improves with age.

b)

Older adults have decreased immune function.

c)

Immunity remains the same across the lifespan.

d)

Older adults have stronger responses to vaccines.

11.

Which lymphocytes produce antibodies?

a)

T helper cells

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

NK cells

d)

T cytotoxic cells

12.

An elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) indicates what?

a)

Kidney disease

b)

Inflammation

c)

Autoimmune destruction

d)

High cholesterol

13.

What does lysis mean?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Cell destruction

c)

Tissue repair

d)

Antibody production

14.

Which statement about acquired immunity is correct?

a)

Passive natural immunity is through mother to baby.

b)

Active acquired immunity is only from vaccines.

c)

Passive artificial immunity occurs after infection.

d)

Innate immunity develops after birth.

15.

Which term describes a healthy immune system mounting an appropriate response?

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Immunosuppression

c)

Immunocompetence

d)

Hypersensitivity

16.

A client with HIV has recurrent infections. This indicates:

a)

Disease is progressing

b)

Immune system is stronger

c)

Patient is cured

d)

HIV is dormant

17.

What causes shingles?

a)

Fungal infection

b)

Reactivated varicella-zoster virus

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Autoimmune disease

18.

Which is the only 100% effective way to prevent HIV/STIs?

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Condoms

c)

Abstinence

d)

Spermicides

19.

What type of precautions are used for all patients?

a)

Droplet

b)

Standard

20.

What drug is given to HIV patients with tuberculosis?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

21.

What may impair B lymphocytes from producing antibodies?

a)

Genetic defects (primary immunodeficiency)

b)

HIV medication

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Vaccines

22.

How often is the Tdap booster recommended?

a)

Every 5 years

b)

Every 10 years

c)

Every 15 years

d)

Lifetime once

23.

Which vaccine is recommended annually for older adults?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Influenza

c)

MMR

d)

Varicella

24.

What symptom suggests immune system activation?

a)

Hair loss

b)

Weight gain

c)

Swollen lymph nodes

d)

Fatigue

25.

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Viral infection of joints

b)

Autoimmune inflammation of joints

c)

Fungal infection of bones

d)

Normal aging process

26.

Which allergy test is most reliable?

a)

Skin scratch test

b)

RAST

c)

Patch test

d)

Blood count

27.

Which clients are considered immunosuppressed?

a)

HIV, cancer, corticosteroid users

b)

Children

c)

Athletes

d)

Pregnant women

28.

Which pet should HIV patients avoid?

a)

Cat (toxoplasmosis risk)

b)

Dog

c)

Rabbit

d)

Fish

29.

How soon must HIV testing occur after a needlestick injury?

a)

Within 24 hours

b)

Within 3 days

30.

What is anasarca?

a)

Mild swelling

b)

Severe generalized edema

c)

Lung collapse

d)

Fluid in joints

31.

Which HIV type is most common in the U.S.?

a)

HIV-2

b)

HIV-1

c)

Both equally

d)

Neither

32.

Stage 2 Hodgkin disease often presents with:

a)

Rash and fever

b)

Lymphadenopathy, night sweats, weight loss

c)

Bone pain only

d)

Bleeding gums

33.

What should NOT be done on an arm with lymphedema?

a)

Apply warm compress

b)

Check BP or draw blood

c)

Elevate the arm

d)

Monitor for infection

34.

Fibromyalgia is suspected when the patient:

a)

Has bacterial infection signs

b)

Reports pain in response to non-painful stimuli

c)

Has positive CRP

d)

Develops swollen joints

35.

What is the normal CD4 count?

a)

50–150

b)

200–400

c)

500–1500

d)

2000–2500

36.

What cancer is common in HIV-positive individuals?

a)

Leukemia

b)

Kaposi’s sarcoma

c)

Bone cancer

d)

Colon cancer

37.

Which PPE should the nurse use for a hospitalized client with advanced AIDS and open lesions?

a)

Gloves only

b)

Mask and gloves

c)

Use all appropriate PPE based on exposure risk

d)

None unless there’s visible blood

38.

Which group is the fastest growing population with AIDS?

a)

Elderly men

b)

Women and children

c)

Young college men

d)

Health care workers

39.

Which tests confirm HIV infection?

a)

ELISA and Western blot

b)

CBC and culture

c)

CT and MRI

d)

Rapid strep and throat culture

40.

A client on HIV medications says, “I can’t pass the virus anymore.” The nurse responds:

a)

You’re right; medications prevent all transmission.

b)

Even on medication you can still transmit HIV.

c)

Only blood transmission is prevented.

d)

You’re cured of HIV.

41.

Priority nursing action for a cancer client receiving chemotherapy:

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Monitor weight

c)

Provide emotional support

d)

Encourage ambulation

42.

A client with a bee sting develops swelling and dyspnea. The nurse should give first:

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Oxygen

43.

When teaching condom use, the nurse should include which statement?

a)

Condoms are 100% effective.

b)

Abstinence is the only 100% effective method.

c)

Oral sex is completely safe.

d)

Condoms are unnecessary with one partner.

44.

First action for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction with shortness of breath:

a)

Administer antihistamines

b)

Administer corticosteroids

c)

Place on oxygen

d)

Provide reassurance

45.

Why are older adults at increased risk for infections?

a)

Increased antibody production

b)

Decreased immune function

c)

Higher lymphocyte counts

d)

Stronger immune memory

46.

Which lymphocytes produce antibodies?

a)

T helper cells

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

NK cells

d)

Macrophages

47.

Elevated CRP indicates:

a)

Liver failure

b)

Inflammation

c)

Kidney stones

d)

Dehydration

48.

Definition of lysis:

a)

Cell destruction

b)

Cell creation

c)

Tissue swelling

d)

Fluid retention

49.

Passive natural immunity occurs when:

a)

A person receives a vaccine

b)

Antibodies pass from mother to baby

c)

A person recovers from an illness

d)

Immune globulin is injected

50.

Passive artificial immunity example:

a)

Hepatitis B vaccine

b)

Breast milk antibodies

51.

Term describing proper immune system function:

a)

Immunocompetence

b)

Immunodeficiency

c)

Immunosuppression

d)

Hypersensitivity

52.

HIV patient develops more infections. This indicates:

a)

Disease progression and immune system failing

b)

Antibody levels rising

c)

Viral load decreasing

d)

Immunity improving

53.

Shingles (herpes zoster) is:

a)

Bacterial

b)

Viral, causes painful rash

c)

Fungal

d)

Noninfectious

54.

Standard precautions are used with:

a)

Only infectious patients

b)

All patients

c)

Immunocompromised patients only

d)

Patients with HIV only

55.

Drug used for HIV patient with TB:

a)

Rifampin

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Ceftriaxone

56.

Frequency of Tdap booster:

a)

Every 5 years

b)

Every 10 years

c)

Every 15 years

d)

Once

57.

Vaccine recommended annually for older adults:

a)

Influenza

b)

Varicella

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

MMR

58.

Sign of immune system activation:

a)

Swollen lymph nodes

b)

Weight loss

c)

Fatigue

d)

Headache

59.

Which test is most reliable for allergy testing?

a)

Skin scratch test

b)

Patch test

c)

RAST

d)

Chest X-ray

60.

Which hypersensitivity reaction is IgE mediated (anaphylaxis)?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

61.

Which hypersensitivity is delayed T-cell mediated (poison ivy)?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

62.

Which clients are at highest risk for immunosuppression?

a)

Asthma on corticosteroids

b)

Joint replacement therapy

c)

Cancer on chemo

d)

HIV positive

63.

HIV clients should avoid which animal exposure?

a)

Cats

b)

Dogs

c)

Fish

d)

Birds