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Anatomy Q1 IA Review

Total questions: 202

Worksheet time: 3hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most basic structural and functional unit of life; the smallest part of an organism that is still capable of all life's processes

a)

cell

b)

organ

c)

organelle

d)

macromolecule

2.

____ refers to the study of the structure of the body and organs.

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

3.

____ are composed of cells of similar types.

a)

Tissues

b)

Organs

c)

Organelles

d)

Organ systems

4.

____ means "toward the midline" of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Deep

c)

Superficial

d)

Lateral

5.

____ means "toward the point of attachment" on a limb.

a)

Inferior

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Deep

6.
The brain is located in the 
a)
vertebral canal
b)
cranial cavity
c)
mediastinum
d)
umbilical region
7.

divides body into equal right and left halves

a)
sagittal plane
b)
mid-sagittal plane
c)
medial
d)
transverse plane
8.
divides the body into upper and lower halves
a)
ventral
b)
medial
c)
transverse plane
d)
mid-sagital plane
9.

Homeostasis

a)

allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment

b)

Is regulated by one body system

c)

is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation

10.

The toes would _______ to the knees?

a)

Inferior

b)

Superior

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

11.

Identify the thoracic cavity

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

b

12.

The sum of all chemical reactions in the body is known as

a)

homeostasis

b)

heredity

c)

algebra

d)

metabolism

13.

Which of the following shows the body in anatomical position

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

The plane that passes from front to back and divides the body into right and left portions.

a)

Sagittal (medial)

b)

Transverse (Horizontal)

c)

Frontal (coronal)

15.

The plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts:

a)

Sagittal (Medial)

b)

Transverse (Horizontal)

c)

Frontal (Coronal)

16.

Feedback that tends to cause the level of a variable to change in the same direction as an initial change.

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Physiology

17.

Net effect is that the output of the system shuts off the original stimulus or reduces its intensity.

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Physiology

18.
The heart is________to the stomach
a)
superficial
b)
deep
c)
superior
d)
inferior
19.

Which condition represents homeostasis?

a)

Having a stroke

b)

Shivering on a cold day

c)

Breaking a bone

20.

The brain is _____ to the ear

a)

lateral

b)

proximal

c)

medial

d)

superior

21.

Which side is facing you?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

22.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
23.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
24.

Your elbows are proximal to your

a)

shoulder

b)

wrist

c)

humerus

d)

ears

25.
Vertical plane that divides the body into ANTERIOR and POSTERIOR parts
a)
Sagittal
b)
Frontal
c)
Transverse
d)
Oblique
26.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
27.

on the opposite sides of the body

a)

contralateral

b)

ipsilateral

c)

lateral

d)

superficial

28.

on the same side of the body

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

ipsilateral

d)

contralateral

29.

The region in the exact center of the abdominopelvic cavity is

a)

Gastric

b)

Umbilical

c)

Epigastric

d)

Lumbar

30.

Inguinal

a)

Arm

b)

Bottom of the foot

c)

Groin

d)

Armpit

31.

Axillary

a)

Arm

b)

Bottom of the foot

c)

Groin

d)

Armpit

32.

Occipital

a)

Forehead

b)

Area behind the knee

c)

Lower region of the head

d)

Neck

33.

Popliteal

a)

kneecap

b)

back of the knee

c)

eye

d)

groin

34.

Brachial

a)

Arm

b)

Armpit

c)

Eye

d)

Finger

35.

Which system regulates body activities (slowly)?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Nervous

c)

Lymphatic

d)

Muscular

36.

Which system regulates body activities (quickly)

a)

Endocrine

b)

Nervous

c)

Lyphatic

d)

Muscular

37.

All of the following are functions of the Integumentary System EXCEPT

a)

Vitamin D production

b)

Protection

c)

Regulating hormones

d)

Regulating temperature

38.

The Digestive system includes

a)

stomach and the brain

b)

mouth, intestines and stomach

c)

uterus and fallopian tubes

d)

heart and lungs

39.

Plantar

a)

Bottom of the feet

b)

Ribs

c)

Back

d)

Abdomen

40.

The study of disease

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Pathology

d)

Embryology

41.

Left eye and the right ear are

a)

Lateral

b)

Contralateral

c)

Medial

d)

Ipsilateral

42.

Right eye and right ear are

a)

Medial

b)

Ipsilateral

c)

Contralateral

d)

Dorsal

43.

The ventral cavity includes all EXCEPT

a)

Pelvic Cavity

b)

Thoracic Cavity

c)

Cranial Cavity

d)

Abdominal Cavity

44.

The heart and lungs are located in the

a)

Abdominal Cavity

b)

Pelvic Cavity

c)

Dorsal Cavity

d)

Thoracic Cavity

45.

A hysterectomy (removal of the uterus) would be performed in which cavity?

a)

Pelvic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Dorsal

d)

Thoracic

46.

Removal of a brain tumor would open what cavity?

a)

Ventral

b)

Vertebral

c)

Cranial

d)

Pelvic

47.

The thumb is ___________ to the ring finger

a)

lateral

b)

proximal

c)

medial

d)

contralateral

48.

Of a CAT has a mass on his liver you would use a __________cut to open the ________ cavity

a)

sagittal, dorsal

b)

oblique, pelvic

c)

frontal, cranial

d)

transverse, abdominal

49.

Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?

a)

Oblique

b)

Sagittal

c)

Frontal

d)

Transverse

50.

Which term refers to the front of the body?

a)

Posterior

b)

Lateral

c)

Anterior

d)

Inferior

51.

5) ​ (a)   9) ​ (b)   10) ​ (c)   6) ​ (d)   11) ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
Brachial
Pectoral
Cervical
Antebrachial
Abdominal
52.

Match the following terms with their definitions

a)

Proximal

1.

Closer to the trunk of the body

b)

Distal

2.

Further from the trunk of the body

c)

Superior

3.

Above

d)

Inferior

4.

Below

e)

Lateral

5.

Away from the midline of the body

53.

Match the following

a)

proximal

1.

closer to point of attachment of the trunk

b)

tarsal

2.

bones of the foot

c)

umbilical

3.

region around the belly button

d)

superior

4.

toward the head end of the body

e)

superficial

5.

closer to surface of the body

54.

All anatomical terms have a (a)   point which is called the ​ (b)   position. This position is when the body is ​ (c)   , head straight and ​ (d)   by your side, with the palms of the hands facing ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
reference
anatomical
standing up
lying down
body
arms
forward
backward
hands
55.
Question Image

Match the correct image below to the correct plane name.

a)

1.

frontal

b)

2.

transverse

c)

3.

midsagittal

56.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Pseudostratified Columnar
57.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Blood
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Reticular
d)
Areolar
58.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Simple columnar
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Pseudostratified columnar
59.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Areolar
b)
Bone
c)
Blood
d)
Reticular
60.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Nervous
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Reticular
d)
Bone
61.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Simple columnar
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Pseuodstratified columnar
d)
Transitional
62.
Identify the picture
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Stratified squamous
d)
Simple columnar
63.
Identify the picture
a)
Pseudostratified columnar
b)
Simple squamous
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Simple columnar
64.
Identify the picture
a)
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
b)
Simple columnar
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Simple squamous
65.
Identify the type of muscle tissue
a)
cardiac
b)
smooth
c)
skeletal
66.
Identify the type of muscle tissue
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
67.
Identify the type of muscle tissue
a)
smooth
b)
skeletal
c)
cardiac
68.

How do we classify epithelial tissue?

a)

Shape

b)

Shape and number of layers

c)

Counting the number of individual cells

d)

Squamous

69.

What are the types of tissues in the human body? (Select all that apply)

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscle

d)

Nervous

70.

What does pseudostratified mean?

a)

Many layers of cells

b)

Single layer that looks like many layers of cells

c)

Single layer of cells

d)

No layer of cells

71.

What are the types of muscle tissue?

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal

d)

biceps femoris

72.

Select the correct tissue type.

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

stratified columnar epithelium

d)

transitional epithelium

73.

Select the correct tissue type.

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

stratified columnar epithelium

d)

transitional epithelium

74.

Which type of muscle tissue is shown here?

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

75.

The epidermis (skin) is composed of _____.

a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
76.

Function of the adipose tissue in the inner layer of skin functions to...

a)

insulate the body

b)

provide pigment to the skin

c)

help to make collagen and elastin

d)

produce sebum

77.

Epithelial cells present in the small intestine are tall and thin. They are called

a)

squamous

b)

cuboidal

c)

columnar

d)

rectangular

78.

______________ tissue provides cushioning to our organs.

a)

Areolar

b)

Adipose

c)

Cartilage

d)

Lymph

79.

Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?

a)

Blood

b)

Bone

c)

Skin

d)

Adipose

80.

Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Transitional

81.

What are the types of tissues in the human body that lines organs?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscle

d)

Nervous

82.

All of the following are epithelial tissues EXCEPT

a)

Simple Squamous

b)

Areolar

c)

Pseudostratified

d)

Adipose

e)

Stratified Columnar

83.

What types of tissues can shorten and thicken?

a)

Nervous

b)

Muscle

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

84.

In which body structure would we find transitional epithelium?

a)

Heart

b)

hamstring muscles

c)

bladder

d)

skin

85.

Nervous tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves and is responsible for communication.

a)

true

b)

false

86.

Striations can be seen in which type of muscle tissues?

a)

Smooth and cardiac

b)

smooth and skeletal

c)

skeletal and cardiac

d)

Cardiac only

87.
What type of connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense Connective Tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose Connective Tissue
88.

​Identify the tissue in the image. ​​ (a)   ​

Choose from the below words
areolar
adipose
reticular
simple squamous
bone
elastic
blood
elastic cartilage
hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
89.

a)

Skeletal

b)

Dense Regular

c)

Smooth

d)

Elastic

90.

a)

Adipose

b)

Reticular

c)

Elastic

d)

Hyaline

91.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Fibrocartilage
b)
Hyaline cartilage
c)
Elastic cartilage
d)
Dense regular
92.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Loose Connective
b)
Reticular
c)
Adipose
d)
Smooth muscle
93.
Name the Tissue Type:
a)
Hyaline cartilage
b)
Elastic cartilage
c)
Fibrocartilage
d)
Adipose
94.

Identify the types of muscle tissue

a)Cardiac
b)Skeletal
c)Smooth
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
95.
This spider shaped cell give the skin its color.
a)
Merkel cells
b)
Langerhan cells
c)
melanocytes
d)
keratinocytes
96.

What is the top layer of the skin called?

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous layer

c)

Epidermis

d)

Matrix

97.
oil gland in the skin that act to lubricate skin and function as a barrier against bacteria
a)
sweat gland
b)
sebaceous gland
c)
nerve gland
98.

Skin helps eliminate wastes and produce

a)

vitamin D

b)

vitamin C

c)

minerals

d)

sweat

99.

Which layer of skin houses blood cells, hair follicles, and sweat glands?

a)

Dermis

b)

Multidermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Pyrodermis

e)

Epidermis

100.
The coloring in the skin; found in the epidermis.
a)
Melanin
b)
Oil
c)
Perspiration
d)
Pores
101.

What layer is represented by letter B?

a)

Stratum Corneum

b)

Dermis

c)

Stratum Lucidum

d)

Epidermis

102.

a structure out of which strands of hair grow

a)

Follicles

b)

Pores

c)

Head

d)

Eyelashes

103.

What causes goose bumps?

a)

Hair follicles

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Arrector pili muscle

d)

Hot weather

104.

The largest organ of the human body is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Skin

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

105.

First degree burns are not very serious because they only affect...

a)

The epidermis.

b)

The dermis.

c)

The hypodermis.

d)

The calluses.

106.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
107.

What part of a hair can be seen?

a)

Follicle

b)

Matrix

c)

Root

d)

Shaft

108.

What is melanoma?

a)

A type of skin cancer

b)

A type of acne

c)

A type of protein found in your skin

d)

A type of oil produced by the skin

109.

What is caused by the Varicella (herpes) virus

Itchy rash with Pox and is very contagious.

a)

Chicken Pox

b)

Small Pox

c)

Shingles

d)

Hemangioma

110.

bacterial infection of a hair follicle or oil gland

which results in a a painful, pus-filled bump

it should resolve on it's own but a warm compress can help

a)

Callus

b)

Boil

c)

Blackheads

d)

Eczema

111.

Caused by HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) which results in rapid growth of skin cells,
You can find Over the counter medication.

a)

Chicken Pox

b)

Shingles

c)

Cold Sore

d)

Wart

112.

caused by a fungal infection that results in a scaly rash that itches and burns. You can cure it with over the counter antifungal cream

a)

Cold Sores

b)

Athlete's Foot

c)

Melanoma

d)

MRSA

113.

Identify the letter pointing to the Pacinian Corpuscle

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

114.

What is letter A?

a)

Sweat gland

b)

Sebaceous Gland

c)

Arrector Pilli Muscle

d)

Hair Follicle

115.

Which letter is the Eponychium?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

116.

Letter C is the

a)

Hyponychium

b)

Eponychium

c)

Lunula

d)

Nail bed

117.

Letter C is the

a)

Hair shaft

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

d)

Cutical

118.
a)
First Degree Burn
b)
Second Degree Burn
c)
Third Degree Burn
d)
Fourth Degree Burn
119.
Sweating and shivering are your body's way of regulating _________.
a)
Water loss
b)
Temperature
c)
Hair growth
d)
Vitamin D absorption
120.
In which order do the layers of skin occur from the outside to the inside
a)
Dermis, Epidermis, Hypodermis
b)
Hypodermis, Dermis, Epidermis
c)
Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis
d)
Epidermis, Hypodermis, Dermis
121.
A 3rd degree burn affects which layers of the skin?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Epidermis, Dermis
c)
Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
d)
Epidermis dermis, and cutaneous layer
122.

Math the types of burns:

a)

skin burn in which the epidermis and dermis are destroyed; this type of burn produces severe hyperesthesia (numbness) depending on the degree of nerve damage

1.

third-degree burns

b)

a skin burn characterized by superficial epidermal lesions, redness (erythema), hyperesthesia (increased sensitivity) with no blisters

2.

first-degree burns

c)

burns characterized by epidermal and dermal lesions, erythema, blisters, and hyperesthesia

3.

second-degree burns

123.
Nails are made out of what?
a)
All of the Above 
b)
Terminal 
c)
 Vellus 
d)
Keratin 
124.
Which layer of the skin contains lots of adipose tissue and connects the skin to muscle?
a)
Dermis
b)
Epidermis
c)
Keratin
d)
Subcutaneous
125.

How often does your skin replace itself?

a)
Every 14 days
b)
Every 28 to 30 days
c)
Every 60 days
d)
Every year
126.

Keratinization

a)

The process when skin cells move to the top of the epidermis and harden.

b)
The formation of collagen in the skin.
c)
A method of dyeing hair using keratin.
d)
The process of breaking down keratin in skin and hair.
127.

Hair is formed from

a)

collagen and elastin

b)

elastin and kerti

c)
fatty acids
d)

keratinized epidermal cells

128.

What is the purpose of finger prints?

a)

The purpose of fingerprints to increase friction.

b)
To detect temperature changes on the skin.
c)
To store personal information securely.
d)

To identify people.

129.

What makes tattoos permanant?

a)

Tattoos are permanent due to macrophages holding onto the ink.

b)
Tattoos are only permanent if they are done by a professional.
c)

Tattoos are made with water-based ink and epidemal cells are attacted to the ink

d)
Tattoos are temporary and fade over time.
130.

What are symptoms of a heat stroke? Hint- from our Case Study

a)

Excessive sweating, mental fatigue and low blood pressure

b)

Symptoms of heat stroke include high body temperature altered mental state, hot and dry skin, rapid pulse, and nausea.

c)

Low body temperature and blood pressure

d)

Severe headache, high body temperature but low skin temerature

131.

If someone has had a heat stroke why would you NOT give him distilled water?

a)
Distilled water helps to cool the body faster.
b)
You should not give distilled water because it does not contain electrolytes needed for recovery.
c)
Distilled water is more hydrating than electrolyte solutions.
d)
Electrolytes are not necessary for heat stroke recovery.
132.

The most common type of skin cancer is _____________.

a)

Melanoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Basal cell carcinoma

d)

Oil gland carcinoma

133.

What is your diagnosis for this patient?

a)

third degree burn

b)

MRSA

c)

frostbite

d)

shingles

134.

This patient has had chicken pox as a child. What is your diagnosis?

a)

Chicken Pox

b)

Shingles

c)

Warts

d)

Cold Sore

135.

What is your diagnosis?

a)

Shingles

b)

Birthmark

c)

Hemangioma

d)

Mole

136.

What is MRSA?

a)

The same as boils

b)

Moles that turn into cancer

c)

A contagious skin rash

d)

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

137.

What is your diagnosis?

a)

MRSA

b)

Alopecia

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Eczema

138.

What is your diagnosis?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Chicken Pox

c)

Cold Sores

d)

Shingles

139.
The adult skeletal system is composed of how many bones?
a)
216
b)
371
c)
206
d)
199
140.

All of the following are major functions of skeletal system EXCEPT

a)

body movement

b)

posture and balance

c)

support and protection

d)

storage of calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium

141.

The two main divisions of skeleton are

a)

axial and appendicular skeleton

b)

central and peripheral nervous

c)

pectoral and pelvic girdle

d)

long and short bone

142.

The bones in the appendicular skeleton includes

a)

head, neck, trunk

b)

pectoral and pelvic girdle

c)

vertebral column and thoracic cage

d)

limbs and bones that connect to the pectoral and pelvic girdle

143.

Axial bones includes

a)

scapula, clavicle, legs

b)

head, neck, trunk

c)

thigh, legs, arms

d)

arms, legs scapula

144.

The two ends of the long bone is called

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

spongy bones

d)

articular cartilage

145.

Inside the long bone, the hollow chamber filled with bone marrow is called

a)

compact bone

b)

spongy bone

c)

medullary cavity

d)

red marrow

146.

The membrane that covers the entire bone is called

a)

endosteum

b)

endomysium

c)

periosteum

d)

perimysium

147.

The shaft or the central part of a long bone is called

a)

epihysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

perosteum

d)

articular cartilage

148.

Types of bone tissues are

a)

red and yellow marrow

b)

compact and spongy

c)

epiphysis and diaphysis

d)

endosteum and perosteum

149.

Hyaline cartilage covering the ends of the bones is called

a)

epiphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

medullary cavity

d)

articular cartilage

150.

The "ends" of a long bone are:

a)

Ends

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Diaphysis

151.

The epiphysis nearest the torso is:

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

152.

The "shaft" of a long bone is called:

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Metaphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Shaft

153.

What is #3?

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Proximal Metaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Distal Diaphysis

154.

What is #1?

a)

Synovial Joint

b)

Insertion areas

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Metaphyseal Cartilage

155.

Another name for a "growth plate" on a long bone:

a)

Epiphyseal plate

b)

Metaphyseal Plate

c)

Diaphyseal Plate

d)

Articular Cartilage

156.

What type of "bone" is represented by #12?

a)

Compact

b)

Ground

c)

Funky

d)

Spongy

157.

What type of bone is represented by #11?

a)

Spongy

b)

Ground

c)

Compact

d)

Marrow

158.

Yellow Marrow mainly does this:

a)

Stores potassium

b)

Stores Fat

c)

Produces RBC's

d)

Produces WBC's

159.

Which number represents yellow marrow?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

9

160.

The transitional area between the epiphysis and the diaphysis is called:

a)

Middle area

b)

Metaphysis

c)

Metaphyseal Plate

d)

Meta Bone

161.

The medullary cavity is:

a)

1

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

162.

Which number represents the periosteum?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

5

d)

3

163.
Question Image

Match the images of bones to their bone shape.

a)
1.

short bones

b)
2.

long bones

c)
3.

flat bones

d)
4.

irregular bones

e)
5.

sesamoid bones

164.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

A

1.

Haversian canal

b)

B

2.

Osteocyte

c)

C

3.

Canaliculi

d)

D

4.

Osteon

165.

Identify the area that consists of compact bone

A
B
C
166.

Match the following

a)

Maintain healthy bone by responding to stimuli

1.

Osteocytes

b)

Build or construct new bone by calcifying it

2.

Osteoblasts

c)

Critical in bone regeneration or remodeling, absorb bone tissue where it is not needed

3.

Osteoclasts

167.
What type of bone makes up the diaphysis?
a)
spongy bone
b)
compact bone
c)
rigid bone
d)
soft bone
168.
The bone building process is called?
a)
collagen
b)
ossification
c)
hypertrophy
d)
getting stronger
169.
The continuous breakdown and reforming of bone tissue is called ______.
a)
remodeling
b)
rebuilding
c)
rehabituation
d)
renewl
170.
Make up of a shaft and two ends .  Shaft is compact bone and the ends of the bone contain spongy bone
a)
Long bones
b)
Flat bones
c)
Short bones
d)
Irregular bones
171.
Make up of mostly spongy bone with a thin layer of compact bone on the surface.
a)
Irregular bones
b)
Flat bones
c)
Long bones
d)
Short bones
172.

Compact bone is characterized by , whereas spongy bone is characterized by ___:

a)

having epiphyses; having diaphysis

b)

having red marrow; having osteons

c)

dense tissue that looks smooth and homogenous; small needlelike pieces of bone and lots of open space

d)

small needlelike pieces of bone and lots of open space; dense tissue that looks smooth and homogenous

173.
Make up of a thin layer of spongy bone between two thin layers of compact bone.
a)
Short bones
b)
Long bones
c)
Flat bones
d)
Irregular bones
174.

What mineral makes bones strong?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

175.
What part of an osteon is number 3 pointing to?
a)
Lamellae
b)
Central Canal
c)
Osteocyte
d)
Canaliculi
176.
A mature bone cell is called a _________.
a)
osteon
b)
osteocyte
c)
osteoclast
d)
osteoblast
177.
what are the rings around the haversian canal called?
a)
lacunae
b)
lamella
c)
osteocyte
d)
volkmann's canal
178.

Compact bone is made of

a)

trabeculae

b)

osteons

c)

canaliculi

d)

central canals

179.

Which part of the osteon contains the osteocytes?

a)

Lacunae

b)

Lamellae

c)

Canaliculi

d)

Central Canal

180.

Where is red bone marrow located?

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

181.

Where is yellow bone marrow located?

a)

Within the trabeculae

b)

Within the medullary cavity

182.

Which hormone is released when blood calcium levels rise above homeostasis?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

PTH

c)

Endorphins

d)

Calcitriol

183.

Name of the hormone that increases the levels of calcium in the blood.

a)
Calcitonin
b)
Calcium
c)
Phosphatase
d)

PTH

184.

This is the second step of fracture repair

a)

hematoma forms

b)

bony callus forms

c)

cartilage callus forms

d)

bone remodeling

185.

During fracture repair, the cartilage callus is replaced with

a)

compact bone

b)

cartilage and collagen

c)

bony callus

d)

hematoma

186.

Reorder the stages of bone repair

a)

Hematoma formation

b)

cartilage callus formation

c)

bone callus formation

d)

Remodeled

1)
2)
3)
4)
187.

A female patient is brought to the emergency room with an injury to her lower leg from an ATV accident. You notice a white tip of a bone protruding through the skin as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is described as what kind of fracture.

a)

Comminuted

b)

Pathologic

c)

Compound

d)

Stress

188.
a)
compression
b)
simple
c)
compound
d)
spiral
189.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Fracture
c)
Diagonal Fracture
d)
Horizontal Fracture 
190.
a)
Compression Fracture
b)
Compound Fracture
c)
Greenstick Fracture
d)
Comminuted Fracture
191.

Immobilization

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

192.

What is an impacted fracture?

a)

The broken ends of the bones are jammed together by the force of the injury

b)

The bone is broken into at least 3 pieces

c)

The bone is broken in 2 places

d)

A fracture that does not break the skin

193.

What is a greenstick fracture?

a)

Occurs in children; a partial fracture that causes the bone to bend

b)

A break that goes completely through the bone

c)

A fracture in which the bone goes through the skin

d)

A break that occurs at a diagonal angle

194.

What characterizes a comminuted fracture?

a)

Intense trauma causes the bone to be broken into at least 3 pieces with many fragments at the fracture site

b)

The bone is broken in 2 places

c)

The broken ends of the bones are jammed together

d)

A fracture that does not break the skin

195.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Greenstick

b)

Comminuted

c)

Hairline

d)

Spiral

196.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Greenstick

b)

Comminuted

c)

Hairline

d)

Spiral

197.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Comminuted

b)

Open

c)

Closed

d)

Spiral

198.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Oblique

b)

Spiral

c)

Transverse

d)

Comminuated

199.

Match the following

a)

1.

Transverse

b)

2.

Oblique

c)

3.

Comminuted

d)

4.

Displaced

e)

5.

Greenstick

200.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Communiuted

b)

Avulsion

c)

Greenstick

d)

Transverse

201.

What is this condition called?

a)
Arthritis
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Osteomalacia
d)
Rheumatism
202.

What type of fracture is this

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Oblique

d)

Spiral

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