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PODA Exam 2 Review Questions 2025

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

WOTF is most likey to reach therapeutic concentration in the bones? SATA

a)

Ceftazidime (Fortaz)

b)

Ceftizoxime (Cefizox)

c)

Zinacef (Cefuroxime)

d)

Cefaclor (Ceclor)

e)

Cefobid (Cefoperazone)

2.

WOTF is most likely to be employed in the treatment of Buruli Ulcer?

a)

Capreomycin (Capastat)

b)

Tigecycline (Tygacil)

c)

Ceclor (Cefaclor)

d)

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

e)

Sitafloxacin (Gracevit)

3.

WOTF is best classified as a macrolide?

a)

Seysara (Sarecycline)

b)

Deficid (Fidaxomicin)

c)

Ilotycin (Erythromycin)

d)

Ketek (Telithromycin)

e)

Cleocin (Clindamycin)

4.

What is Hansen’s Disease?

a)

Leprosy; causative agent is Mycobacterium leprae

b)

Tuberculosis; causative agent is Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Syphilis; causative agent is Treponema pallidum

d)

Malaria; causative agent is Plasmodium falciparum

5.

WOTF inhibits folic acid synthase and can be used in the treatment of Hansen’s Disease

a)

Sulfisoxazole

b)

Isoniazid (INH, Hyzyd)

c)

Pyrimethamine (Daraprim)

d)

Proguanil

e)

Dapsone (Aczone) - like a sulfonamide, any drug that has a sulfonamide structure, inhibits folic acid synthase.

6.

WOTF is the active ingredient in ATS? (Acne Topical Solution)

a)

Biaxin (Clarithromycin)

b)

Achromycin (Tetracycline)

c)

Deficid (Fidaxomicin)

d)

Erythromycin

e)

Azamulin - a Pleuromutillin

7.

WOTF is the primary indication of Bactroban (Mupirocin)?

a)

Acne

b)

Dermatitis

c)

Furunculosis

d)

Rosacea

e)

Impetigo

8.

WOTF is a protozoan that you can use tetracycline for if it causes an infection?

a)

Plasmodium falciparum – causes malaria

b)

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

c)

Entamoeba histolytica, causes Amoebiasis

d)

Balantidium coli

e)

Dientamoeba fragilis

9.

When you are dispensing Zyvox (Linezolid), you would advise the patient to?

a)

Avoid ingestion of fermented meat, red wine, and sourkraut - due to the MAOI effect

b)

Avoid operating dangerous machinery while taking drug

c)

Avoid excessive exposure to sunlight

d)

Get a complete blood count - because Zyvox can cause bone marrow depression (Thrombocytopenia, Anemia, Leukopenia)

e)

Take the drug with plenty of water

10.

WOTF statements about Chloramphenicol is FALSE?

a)

It is a cell membrane function inhibitor

b)

It works at the 30S ribosomal subunit in the cytoplasm

c)

It causes aplastic anemia

d)

It produces leukocytosis

e)

It inhibits protein synthesis within the mitochondria (inhibits 70S subunit)

11.

WOTF is an indication of Cephalosporins? SATA

a)

Endocarditis caused by HACEK organisms

b)

Diabetic Foot Infection caused by Staphylococcus epidermitis

c)

Flesh-eating bacteria infection caused by Vibrio Vulnificus

d)

Nosocomial infections, particularly secondary peritonitis, caused by CAPES organisms

e)

Cellulitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

12.

WOTF is an inhibitor of DNA Gyrase?

a)

Amzeeq (Minocycline - topical foam)

b)

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

c)

Eravacycline (Xerava)

d)

Tobramycin (Nebsin, Tobrex, Tobi)

e)

Finafloxacin (Xtoro)

13.

What class of enzymes does the DNA Gyrase enzyme belong to?

(a)  

14.

WOTF is the correct INITIAL DOSE (loading dose) of Omadacycline (Nuzyra) when it is employed in the treatment of acute bacterial SSSI

a)

450 mg PO daily for 1-2 days

b)

100 mg IV daily - maintenance

c)

200 mg IV once

d)

300 mg PO QD - maintenance

e)

300 mg IV QD

15.

WOTF statements about Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is correct?

a)

It has a PPB of about 80-95%

b)

The half-life is about 15-25 hrs

c)

It should be taken with food or milk

d)

Its pharmacokinetics will not be altered by renal dysfunction (Excreted non-renally and through feces)

e)

It penetrates the CSF

16.

Which Cephalosporin would you use for nosocomial infections caused by CAPES?

(a)  

17.

What is the sulfonamide preparation of choice to treat Typhoid fever?

(a)  

18.

What is the sulfonamide preparation of choice to treat Otitis Media?

(a)  

19.

What is the sulfonamide preparation of choice to treat Ulcerative Colitis?

(a)  

20.

What is the sulfonamide preparation of choice to treat Malaria?

(a)  

21.

What is the sulfonamide preparation of choice to treat Vaginitis induced by Candida albicans (fungus)?

(a)  

22.

whats included in the combination drug Sultrin?

a)

Sulfacetamide

b)

Sulfabenzamide

c)

Sulfathiazole

d)

sulfathalidine

23.

WOTF is an indication of Gentamicin (Garamycin)?

a)

Chronic Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

Cellulitis caused by Bacteroides melaninogenicus - you do not use an aminoglycoside for any infection caused by an anaerobe (they are universally ineffective against anaerobes)

c)

Brucellosis caused by Brucella Melitensis

d)

Impetigo

e)

Folliculitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus

24.

WOTF is least likely to be an adverse effect of Fetroja (Cefiderocol)?

a)

Hypomagnesemia

b)

Status Epilepticus

c)

Asterixis (weakened muscles in hand)

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

e)

Hyperkalemia

25.

WOTF is classified as a cell membrane inhibitor? (Inhibits the function of the cell membrane)

a)

Coly-Mycin-S (Polymyxin E)

b)

Gramicidin (antifungal) and

Nystatin (antifungal)

c)

Aeromycin (Polymyxin B)

d)

Colistin (Polymyxin E)

e)

Amphotericin B (AmB)

26.

WOTF should not be administered concurrently with alcohol?

a)

Cefoperazone (Cefobid)

b)

Moxalactam (Moxam)

c)

Cephalexin (Keflex)

d)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone)

e)

Cefotetan (Cefotan)

27.

A tetracycline would be least effective in managing WOTF conditions?

a)

Infections caused by Borrelia burgdorferi

b)

Infections caused by Brucella abortus

c)

Infections caused by Francisella tularensis

d)

Infections caused by Bacteroides fragilis (Tetracyclines are very weak against bacteroides, despite being broad-spectrum)

e)

Infections caused by Vibrio cholerae (causes cholera)

28.

What is the initial dose and maintenance dose of Tigecycline (Tygacil) for CRE?

(a)  

29.

What is the usual dose of Xerava (eravacycline)?

(a)  

30.

WOTF falls within the antibacterial spectrum of tetracycline HCl (Achromycin)?

a)

Propionibacterium Acnes

b)

Chlamydia psittacosis

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Klebsiella granulomatis

e)

Haemophilus ducreyi

31.

Based on the antibacterial spectrum of tetracycline HCl (Achromycin) what are the conditions that match with each, respectively?

Propionibacterium Acnes

Chlamydia psittacosis

Helicobacter pylori

Klebsiella granulomatis

Haemophilus ducreyi

a)

ACNE- Propionibacterium Acnes

b)

CHLAMYDIA, ornithosis- Chlamydia psittacosis- (from birds, usually via inhalation of dried feces)

c)

PUD, Helicobacter pylori

d)

Donovanosis, "granuloma inguinale, GI"- STD, Klebsiella granulomatis

e)

chancroid- Haemophilus ducreyi

32.

WOTF is a 3rd-gen cephalosporin?

a)

Claforan (Cefotaxime)

b)

Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)

c)

Maxipime (Cefepime)

d)

Zinacef (Cefuroxime)

e)

Moxam (Moxalactam)

33.

WOTF cephalosporins can reach the CSF?

a)

Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zinacef)

b)

Maxipime (Cefepime)

c)

Claforan (Cefotaxime)

d)

Moxalactam (Moxam)

e)

Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)

34.

What causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

(a)  

35.

What causes Q fever? aka: 9 mile fever

(a)  

36.

What is the causative agent of Bush typhus treated by tetracyclines?

(a)  

37.

You can use Flagyl (Metronidazole) to treat WOTF diseases?

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) - used in combination therapy (Helidac) against Helicobacter pylori

b)

Trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis)

c)

Pseudomembranous colitis (caused by Clostridioides (Clostridium) difficile)

d)

Bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella vaginalis)

e)

Guinea worm (Dracunculus medinensis)

38.

What would you tell the patient that you are dispensing Flagyl (Metronidazole) to?

a)

Take it with food

b)

Avoid operating dangerous machinery

c)

Urine discoloration - makes it darker

d)

Expect a metallic taste (aftertaste)

e)

Avoid alcohol

39.

WOTF is a sign/symptom of Gray Baby Syndrome?

a)

Abdominal distension (protusion of the belly)

b)

Torrential/ Severe Diarrhea

Greyish discoloration of the stool

c)

Blueish discoloration of the skin due to cyanosis

d)

lead water system (the fluids) will effect the conc of the electrolytes

e)

Cardiovascular collapse

40.

Which drug produces Gray Baby Syndrome?

(a)  

41.

Which is the #1 sulfonamide for managing/preventing gram-negative colonization of the skin when you have a burn?

(a)  

42.

Which flouroquinolone would you use for the treatment and prophylaxis of pneumonic plague?

(a)  

43.

what is the brand name of sitafloxacin?

a)

Cipro

b)

Besivance

c)

Xtoro

d)

Baxdela

e)

Gracevit

44.

How would you classify Seysara?

(a)  

45.

Do The mechanisms of action below describe Bactrim or Dapsone?

a)
  • Mechanism: Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS).

b)
  • Effect: Blocks bacteria from using para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to make dihydrofolic acid (a folate precursor).

c)
  • Result: Stops folate synthesis → bacteria can’t make DNA.


d)

in short: Blocks the first step (PABA → dihydrofolic acid).

46.

The MOA of Bactrim's components are matched correctly.

  • Sulfamethoxazole part: Also inhibits dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS), just like dapsone.

  • Trimethoprim part: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), which is the next step in folate metabolism.

  • Result: Double blockade of folate synthesis → much stronger inhibition of DNA synthesis.

a)
True
b)
False
47.

Which salt form of the macrolide, erythromycin is only available for injection only?

(a)  

48.

What is the brand name of the erythromycin that is ophthalmic used for bacterial eye infections?

(a)  

49.

what tetracycline is indicated for Rosacea?

(a)  

50.

What protozoan infections are treated by clindamycin?

a)

pneumocytis pneumonia (PCP), caused by pneumocystis jirovecii, best managed by clindamycin + pyrimethamine

b)

lung, abdominal abcess- f nucleatum,

c)

babesios- caused by babesia microti

d)

cellulitis- caused by bacteriodes melaninogenica

e)

bacteremia- caused by bacteriodes fusobacterium

51.

what are major counseling points for ciprofloxacin?

a)
  • Avoid antacids, iron, zinc, magnesium, calcium supplements within 2 hours before or 6 hours after the dose (these chelate the drug and decreases absorption). (i.e. pepto bismol, carafate)

  • Limit caffeine (cipro slows caffeine breakdown → jitteriness, insomnia).

b)

Arthropathy- avoid older and younger patients- tendinitis / tendon rupture (older) → Report tendon pain (esp. Achilles tendon). Higher risk if >60 yrs, transplant patient, or on steroids.

(younger)- Not ideal for children or pregnant women (can affect cartilage growth)

c)

Can be taken with or without food → but avoid dairy (milk, yogurt) or calcium-fortified juices alone, since they reduce absorption.

  • Avoid alcohol excess (decreases effectiveness)

d)

special precaution- diabetic patients- oral hypoglycemic agents- increase insulin dose bc cipro elevates blood glucose

e)

Drink plenty of water- can cause crystalluria,

and Do NOT DRIVE- eyes, cataracts, opacity bc crystals can form in the eyes and CNS stimulation- HA, dizziness

52.

How would you councel a patient on Vibramycin?

a)

Take with food/ milk, unlike all the other tetracyclines

b)

Avoid sunlight- photosensitivity

c)

Esophageal irritation → take upright with water, don’t take right before bed.

d)
  • Tooth discoloration / bone effects → avoid in pregnancy and in children under 8 years (unless specifically directed).

e)

May reduce effectiveness of some oral contraceptives → recommend backup contraception (condoms) during therapy.

53.

Which is the only aminoglycosides that interacts with 30s, 50s, and 70s and only used for TB?

(a)  

54.

What is true about Fetroja? SATA

a)

6th gen Cefiderocal + siderophore (Fe+++) combo used for chronic UTI and HAP/VAP

b)

usual dosage: 2 g q 8 h iv, slow infusion over 3 hours

c)

Electron embalance- drop in Mg2+ and  K+

d)

CNS- seizures, status epilepticus, coma, Asterixis-(weakened muscles in hands), nervousness, ataxia

e)

All of the above

55.

ADME of Which drug

PO, IV 400-600mg q 12 h

-       Lower end 400mg used only in one situation- uncomplicated SSSI

-       po preparation can be in the form of tablet or suspension, the suspension already has 20% of phenol alanine, which means oral suspension must not be used in patient with PKU (phenylketouric acid) bc this condition will worsen. PKU patients exhibit shaken, seizures, jerking of the extremities, and bad behavior and also have a foul smell like that ketone.

-       Duration of therapy- usually 10- 14 days,

-       Exception: VRE infections & VISA- then 28 days  

 

D- T ½ 4.5- 5.5 h (range is from 3-7 hours)

-       Ppb: 31% low

-       F factor- 100%, dosage started is dosage to continue when they leave the hospital

M- not a cyp450 substrate, however it has a MAOI effect,

-       Can undergo demethylation- results carboxyl derivatives, that are not active and it is a non enzymatic metabolic pathway

E- non renal elimination, 38% urine, 0% fecal

a)

doxycycline

b)

linezolid

c)

erythryomycin

d)

Cefaroline

e)

Cefepime

56.

ADME of Erythromycin include:

a)

many salt forms availble: base, Ethylsuccinate (EES), Sterate, Glucepate (IV, IM- infusion only), lactobionate (IV, IM) topically, eye

b)

distributes to everywhere, CSF, prostatic tissue, not safe for pregnant women

c)

t 1/2- 1.6 h

ppb 70-80%

d)

can inhibit 3A4

e)

bilary excretion, urine 2-6%

57.

Which drug has this ADME?

binds to PBP2A,

A, 400-600 IV q 12 h x 10-14 days for SSI (same as below except e.coli)

-       If used for CAP x 5-7 days (when CAP is caused by staph, strep./ HIKE- Hae inf, kleb, e coli)

-       T ½ 2.6 hours

-       PPB 20%

-       88% renal exec, 6% feces

-       Not broken down by CYP450, but broken down by phosphatase,

-     a prodrug activated by phosphatase.

(a)  

58.

What is 4th gen cepholsporin that has this ADME?

A, Dosage/ ROA : 1-2 g q 8-12 h IV or IM

-       PPB- only 20%

-       T ½- 2.3 hours

-       Excreted unchanged, almost 100% renal (so reduce for renal dys patients)

-       One of the few 4th gen cep agent that can gain entry to CSF

-       Used in CAPES and also empirical nosocomial infection

-       ADE- bad effect on the renal system (esp vascular effect)

-       Decreased blood flow to renal

-       Impairment of renal tubular system

-       Leading to glycosuria, proteinuria, and ¯ GFR

(a)  

59.

SPOC for the STD, chlamydia

(a)  

60.

Select the ADE of Aeromycin (Polymyxin B)?

a)

i.   Nephrotoxicity-  BUN, Azotemia, Uremia, Oliguria, Casts (in urine), Albuminuria

b)

ii.     Neurotoxicity- muscle weakness, lethargy, irritability, numbness, circumoral/ perioral paresthesia, drowsiness, ataxia, neuromuscular blockade, apnea

c)

iii.     Hypersensitivity

d)

none of the above