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Physics and Chemistry Quiz

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A planet revolving around the sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 4 days and A3 in 8 days. The ratio A1: A2: A3 is

a)

1 : 2 : 4

b)

1 : 4 : 8

c)

2 : 5 : 6

d)

4 : 8 : 1

2.

A block of wood floats in water with (2/3)rd of its volume submerged. If the same block floats in an oil with (1/3)rd of its volume submerged, then density of oil (in kg/m3) will be

a)

2

b)

20/3

c)

200/3

d)

2000

3.

Stress versus strain graph within elastic limit of the two substances, A and B, is given below. The ratio of Young’s modulus of elasticity of substance A to substance B is

a)

√3 : √2

b)

√2 : 1

c)

√6 : 1

d)

√3 : 1

4.

Equation of a standing wave is given by

a)

y = Asin(ωt – kx)

b)

y = Asinωt

c)

y = 2Asinkx cosωt

d)

All of the above

5.

In a hydraulic lift, used at car service station, the radius of the large and small piston are in the ratio of 10 : 1. What weight placed on small piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1000 kg?

a)

10 kg

b)

20 kg

c)

50 kg

d)

100 kg

6.

A : Black colour is a good absorber of heat. R : All black coloured objects are considered as perfect black bodies.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

7.

For a thermometer, if the ice point on a hypothetical scale is 10° X and the steam point is 60° X. If it measures 20° X then the temperature in °C is

a)

30°C

b)

20°C

c)

40°C

d)

50°C

8.

In a thermodynamic system, internal energy decreases by 300 J when it is doing 350 J of work. What net heat is taken by system in the process?

a)

150 J

b)

650 J

c)

100 J

d)

50 J

9.

A gas mixture consists of a 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

a)

4RT

b)

15RT

c)

9RT

d)

11RT

10.

For a particle performing SHM, differential equation of motion is given as d2x/dt2 + 4x = 0. The frequency of oscillation is

a)

π Hz

b)

1/π Hz

c)

2π Hz

d)

2 Hz

11.

For a particle of mass(m) under SHM displacement-time graph (sinusoidal) is as shown (ω is angular frequency) Choose the correct expression of force (F)

a)

F = Asinωt

b)

F = –mω²Asinωt

c)

F = Aωcosωt

d)

F = mω²Asinωt

12.

A cylindrical tube, is open at both the ends, it has fundamental frequency 200 Hz in air. Now half of length contains water. The fundamental frequency will now be

a)

600 Hz

b)

500 Hz

c)

200 Hz

d)

100 Hz

13.

By what percentage will the acceleration due to gravity at a height of 1600 km from the surface of the Earth differ from that on the surface of the Earth? (Take radius of Earth to be 6400 km)

a)

20%

b)

15%

c)

24%

d)

36%

14.

The density of a planet is 4 times that of the earth and radius is 1/2 times that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet is

a)

4.9 m s–2

b)

3.92 m s–2

c)

19.6 m s–2

d)

9.8 m s–2

15.

The ratio of the masses and radii of two planets are 2 : 3 and 8 : 27. The ratio of respective escape speeds from their surfaces are

a)

√3:√2

b)

9:4

c)

3:2

d)

3:4

16.

A rope 1.5 cm in diameter breaks, if the tension in it exceeds 700 N. The maximum tension, that a rope of diameter 3 cm and of same material can bear is

a)

1400 N

b)

700 N

c)

2800 N

d)

2100 N

17.

The extension produced in a wire by the application of load is 5 mm. The extension in a wire of the same material and length but half the radius, by the same load is

a)

40 mm

b)

20 mm

c)

50 mm

d)

30 mm

18.

A bar of cross-section area A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile forces F and F at its ends as shown. Consider a plane PQ through the bar making an angle θ with a plane at right angles to the bar length. The tensile stress at this plane PQ in terms of F, A and θ is

a)

Fcosθ/A

b)

Fcos²θ/A

c)

F/A

d)

F/Acosθ

19.

A liquid is filled upto a height of 80 cm in a cylindrical vessel. The speed of liquid coming out of a small hole at the bottom of vessel is (g = 10 m/s²)

a)

2 m/s

b)

4 m/s

c)

6 m/s

d)

8 m/s

20.

The energy radiated per second by a spherical black body will be doubled if its

a)

Radius is doubled and other parameters remains same

b)

Radius is increased by nearly 41% and other parameters remains same

c)

Temperature is increased by 41% and other parameters remains same

d)

Temperature is doubled and other parameters remains same

21.

Surface tension of soap solution is 4 × 10–2 N/m. If a soap bubble of radius 5 cm is blown, then the amount of work done is

a)

8π × 10–4 J

b)

4π × 10–4 J

c)

2π × 10–4 J

d)

8π J

22.

Along a streamline,

a)

The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant

b)

The velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant

c)

The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant

d)

The speed of a fluid particle remains constant

23.

In the given cyclic process, work done by gas is

a)

Greater than zero

b)

Less than zero

c)

Zero

d)

Infinite

24.

The rate of energy radiated from a black body at 227°C is 20 W. If temperature of the black body is changed to 727°C then its rate of energy radiated will be

a)

160 W

b)

320 W

c)

160/3 W

d)

320/3 W

25.

The amount of heat required to convert 20 gram of ice at 0°C to water at 10°C is

a)

1600 cal

b)

1000 cal

c)

1400 cal

d)

1800 cal

26.

Potential energy for a particle under SHM at mean position of a particle is 5 J. If the mean kinetic energy is 8 J then its total energy is

a)

5 J

b)

10 J

c)

21 J

d)

50 J

27.

If P, V, T represents pressure, volume and temperature of an ideal gas system, the choose the correct graph for constant pressure.

4 lines
28.

A Carnot engine rejects 500 cal heat to the sink at 127°C. If temperature of source is 327°C, then amount of work done by the engine will be

a)

500 cal

b)

400 cal

c)

250 cal

d)

600 cal

29.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: At room temperature, all the gases behave as ideal gas. Statement II: Re

4 lines
30.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: At room temperature, all the gases behave as ideal gas. Statement II: Real gas curve approach the ideal gas behaviour for high pressure and low temperature. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

a)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

b)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

c)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

d)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

31.

The product of wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation and absolute temperature of a body, is a constant (i.e., λmT = constant). This fact is

a)

Newton’s law of cooling

b)

Wein’s displacement law

c)

Stefan’s law

d)

Charles’ law

32.

Ratio of mean free path of the molecules of two gases, if the ratio of their number density is 3 : 4 and the ratio of molecular diameters is 2 : 5, will be

a)

25/3

b)

4/3

c)

4/25

d)

3/16

33.

The K.E and P.E of a particle executing SHM with amplitude A will be equal, then at that instant find its displacement.

a)

A/√2

b)

A/2

c)

A/√2

d)

A/√2*3

34.

The ratio of intensities of two coherent waves is 9 : 4. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity due to superposition of the two waves will be

a)

5 : 1

b)

25 : 1

c)

9 : 4

d)

3 : 2

35.

If a closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe have the same frequency in third overtone, then their lengths are in the ratio

a)

3 : 4

b)

7 : 8

c)

2 : 1

d)

7 : 4

36.

If the tension on a stretched string is quadrupled, then the ratio of the initial and final speed of a transverse wave along the string is

a)

1 : 2

b)

2 : 1

c)

1 : √2

d)

√2 : 1

37.

Two bodies A and B of masses m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 16 kg respectively are placed 1.0 m apart. A third mass m = 3 kg is placed at point C on line joining A and B. If mass m experience no force then what is its distance from m1?

a)

0.5 m

b)

0.4 m

c)

0.3 m

d)

0.2 m

38.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Phenomenon) List-II (Underlying principle) a. Falling of a raindrop with constant speed (i) Surface tension b. Dynamic lift (ii) Stoke's law c. Excess pressure inside liquid drop (iii) Bernoulli's principle d. Hydraulic lift (iv) Pascal law Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a)

a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

b)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

c)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

d)

a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

39.

The Bulk modulus for the perfectly rigid body is

a)

1

b)

Zero

c)

Infinite

d)

1/2

40.

If C_p for a diatomic gas is 7/2 R then C_v for the gas will be

a)

2/3 R

b)

5/2 R

c)

2R

d)

3/2 R

41.

During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature. The ratio C_P/C_V for the gas is

a)

2/3

b)

4/3

c)

5/3

d)

4/7

42.

The equation for a travelling wave along negative x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength λ equals 0.5 m is given by

a)

y = 0.25sin (ωt – 4πx)

b)

y = 0.25sin (2ωt + 2πx)

c)

y = 0.25sin (ωt + 4πx)

d)

y = 0.25sin (4ωt – kx)

43.

A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is

a)

4n

b)

n

c)

2n

d)

3n

44.

Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4sin(400πt) and y2 = 3sin(408πt) An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear

a)

2 beats per second

b)

8 beats per second

c)

4 beats per second

d)

16 beats per second

45.

Number of translational degrees of freedom for an ideal diatomic gas is

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

4

46.

If the solubility of Ag2CrO4 in water is s mol L–1 at 298 K, then its solubility product (Ksp) will be

a)

2s^2

b)

4s^3

c)

4s^3

d)

8s^3

47.

An example of Heterogeneous equilibrium is,

a)

N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)

b)

2SO2(g)+O2(g)⇌2SO3(g)

c)

Ni(s)+4CO(g)⇌Ni(CO)4(g)

d)

CO(g)+1/2O2(g)⇌CO2(g)

48.

A 0.2 M solution of monoprotic acid is 40% ionised. The ionization constant of this acid is

a)

5.33 × 10–2

b)

4.7 × 10–4

c)

2 × 10–1

d)

3.23 × 10–2

49.

Value of ΔG° of an equilibrium reaction at 27°C having the value of equilibrium constant 10–2 is

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2.303 × 600 R

d)

600 R

50.

Given the standard electrode potentials: Na+/Na = –2.71 V Pb+2/Pb = –0.13 V K+/K = –2.93 V Mg+2/Mg = –2.37 V Arrange these metals in their decreasing order of reducing power.

a)

Na > K > Mg > Pb

b)

Pb > Mg > Na > K

c)

K > Na > Mg > Pb

d)

Pb > K > Mg > Na

51.

At 25°C, 100 ml 0.1 M HCl and 50 ml 0.2 M NaOH was mixed. pH of the mixture will be

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

52.

Moles of C2O42− ion oxidised by 2 moles of permanganate ion in acidic medium is

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

53.

One litre of a buffer solution contains 0.01 M NH4Cl and 0.1 M NH4OH. (pKb of the base is 5). Then, pH value of the solution is

a)

6

b)

10

c)

2

d)

8

54.

Oxidation state of middle carbon of C3O2 molecule is

a)

0

b)

–2

c)

+2

d)

–4

55.

Number of sp hybridised carbon in the given structure is CH3CH2CH = C = C = C = CH – C ≡ CH

a)

7

b)

5

c)

4

d)

6

56.

Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

4 lines
57.

Arrange the following carbocations in their decreasing order of stability

a)

(IV) > (II) > (I) > (III)

b)

(I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

c)

(IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)

d)

(I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)

58.

Heterocyclic compound in the following is

4 lines
59.

Given below are two statements. Statement I: Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by “Lassaigne’s test”. Statement II: Kjeldahl method is applicable to both pyridine and pyrrole compounds. In the light of above statements, choose the answer from the options given below.

a)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

b)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

c)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

d)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

60.

In the following reaction The products (A) and (B) respectively are

4 lines
61.

Match the reactions given in List-I with the catalyst required, given in List-II List-I List-II (a) CH4 + H2O Δ → CO + 3H2 (i) Mo2O3 (b) 2CH4 + O2 523 K → 100 atm 2CH3OH (ii) Ni (c) CH4 + O2 Δ → HCHO + H2O (iii) (CH3COO)2Mn (d) 2CH3CH3 + 3O2 Δ → 2CH3COOH + 2H2O (iv) Cu Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a)

(a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iii)

b)

(a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)

c)

(a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i)

d)

(a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii)

62.

Which of the following has highest boiling point?

4 lines
63.

major product is

4 lines
64.

Products A and B respectively are

a)

Trans-2-butene and Cis-2-butene

b)

Cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

c)

Both Cis-2-butene

d)

Both trans-2-butene

65.

Ph–C≡CH HgSO4/H2SO4 → H2O, 333 K P Major product (P) is

a)

Ph–CH2–CH2OH

b)

Ph–CH2CHO

c)

Ph–CO–CH3

d)

Ph–CH2–O–CH3

66.

The values of Henry's law constant, KH (in k bar) at 298 K for some gases in water are given below. S.No.Gas KH (in k bar) 1.Ar40.3 2.

4 lines
67.

The gas which is least soluble in water is

a)

Ar

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

HCHO

68.

For an exothermic reaction, A2(g)+B2(g)⇌A2B2(g) Formation of A2B2 will be favoured at

a)

High temperature and high pressure

b)

High temperature and low pressure

c)

Low temperature and low pressure

d)

Low temperature and high pressure

69.

In which of the following species, hyper-conjugation does not take place?

4 lines
70.

IUPAC name of given compound is

a)

2-Ethyl-5-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene

b)

3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene

c)

4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene

d)

1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

71.

0.1 mole of sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 500 g of water. If Kb of water is 0.52 K kg mol–1 then the boiling point of the solution will be nearly

a)

98.5°C

b)

101.5°C

c)

100.1°C

d)

102.2°C

72.

If the mass percentage ww of ethanol in water is 18.4% then the molality of ethanol in the aqueous solution will be

a)

7.1 m

b)

4.9 m

c)

2.7 m

d)

4.0 m

73.

If 3 mol of liquid A( PA° = 400 mmHg) and 5 mol of liquid B( PB° = 300 mmHg) are mixed to form a ideal solution then mole fraction of A in vapour is

a)

1/3

b)

2/3

c)

4/9

d)

5/9

74.

0.5 M solution of MgCl2 will have the same osmotic pressure as (consider complete dissociation of electrolytes)

a)

1 M NaCl

b)

1.5 M KCl

c)

1.5 M urea

d)

1 M AlCl3

75.

Molar conductivities (Λm0) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are x, y and z S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Λm0 for CH3COOH will be

a)

x + y + z

b)

x – y – z

c)

y + z – x

d)

y – z – x

76.

If the resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.01 mol/L KCl solution at 298 K is 1000 Ω, then the conductivity of the cell is [cell constant = 0.219 cm–1]

a)

2.19 × 10–3 S cm–1

b)

2.19 × 10–4 S cm–1

c)

21.9 S cm–1

d)

2.19 S cm–1

77.

Limiting molar conductivity of which ion in water is highest at 298 K?

a)

Na+

b)

K+

c)

Mg2+

d)

Ca2+

78.

A solution of AgNO3(aq) is electrolysed for 10 min with a current of 3A then mass of Ag deposited at cathode will be (Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol–1)

a)

4.02 g

b)

1.005 g

c)

2.01 g

d)

8.04 g

79.

If the electrode potential of A2+ + e– → A+ is x1 V and of A2+ + 2 e– → A is x2 V then electrode potential of A+ + e– → A will be

a)

(x1 – x2)V

b)

(x1 + x2)V

c)

(2 x1 – x2)V

d)

(2 x2 – x1)V

80.

For the given cell, Mg(s) | Mg2+(0.2 M) || Al3+(10–3 M)|Al(s) If EMF of the cell is

a)

0.46 V

b)

0.69 V

c)

0.21 V

d)

1.1 V

81.

Anode and Cathode of lead storage battery respectively are made up of

a)

Lead plates, grid of Pb packed with Fe2O3

b)

Lead plates, grid of Pb packed with PbO2

c)

Iron plates, grid of Pb packed with Fe2O3

d)

Iron plates, grid of Pb packed with PbO2

82.

Given below are the two statements. Statement I : Propan-2-ol is an achiral molecule. Statement II : Butan-2-ol is a chiral molecule. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

a)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

b)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

c)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

d)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

83.

The correct order of melting point among the following is

4 lines
84.

The rate constant for a chemical reaction taking place at 500 K is expressed as k = Ae–1000. The activation energy of the reaction is

a)

100 cal mol–1

b)

1000 k cal mol–1

c)

10^4 k cal mol–1

d)

10^6 k cal mol–1

85.

For a chemical reaction H2O2(aq) + 3I–(aq) + 2H+(aq) → 2H2O + I3−(aq) If rate of disappearance of I–(aq) is x mol l–1 s–1 then rate of appearance of I3−(aq) will be

a)

3x

b)

x/3

c)

x

d)

1/x

86.

The given reaction is known as

a)

Wurtz reaction

b)

Wurtz-Fittig reaction

c)

Fittig reaction

d)

Friedel-Craft reaction

87.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Benzyl chloride and chlorobenzene can be distinguished by using alcoholic AgNO3 solution. Reason (R) : Chlorobenzene gives white ppt of AgCl but benzyl chloride does not. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

88.

If 40% of first order reaction was completed in 50 minutes, then 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately. [Given : log 3 = 0.47, log 5 = 0.7]

a)

79 minute

b)

65 minute

c)

61 minute

d)

74 minute

89.

Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to

a)

HCOOH

b)

CH3OH

c)

CO2

d)

COCl2

90.

Pinus

a)

Is a dioecious plant

b)

Has unbranched stem

c)

Has symbiotic association of fungi with its roots

d)

Does not form female strobili

91.

Which of the following features is true regarding the first terrestrial plants possessing the vascular tissues?

a)

Dominant gametophytic phase

b)

Non-motile male gametes

c)

Presence of compact sporophylls in all the members

d)

Occurrence of photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte in the life cycle called prothallus

92.

Living pteridophytes are restricted to narrow geographical regions because

a)

Their main plant body is a sporophyte

b)

They possess well-differentiated vascular tissues

c)

Their gametophytes require cool, damp and shady places to grow and need water for fertilization

d)

They bear strobili or cones

93.

How many of the following is/are filamentous algae? Ulothrix, Laminaria, Chlamydomonas, Ectocarpus, Spirogyra, Volvox, Eudorina

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

One

d)

Four

94.

Green algae lack

a)

Cell wall

b)

Chlorophyll molecules

c)

Motile spores

d)

Coating of algin in cell wall

95.

Isogamy through non motile gametes takes place in

a)

Eudorina

b)

Spirogyra

c)

Ulothrix

d)

Fucus

96.

Lax is

a)

Compact strobilus or cone in bryophytes

b)

Sporangium having spores

c)

Spirally arranged sporophylls along an axis

d)

Female gametophyte in gymnosperms

97.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement (A) : The gene controlling starch grain size in pea shows incomplete dominance. Statement (B) : Morgan united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with mendelian principles and called it chromosomal theory of inheritance.

a)

Both statement (A) and statement (B) are correct

b)

Both statement (A) and statement (B) are incorrect

c)

Statement (A) is correct but statement (B) is incorrect

d)

Statement (A) is incorrect but statement (B) is correct

98.

The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was described by the experiment performed by A while experimenting on B

a)

Joseph Priestley–Mint plant

b)

T.W. Engelmann–Cladophora

c)

Cornelius van Niel–Purple sulphur bacteria

d)

Julius von Sachs–Chlorella

99.

In the above equation, what is the source of released O2?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Both CO2 and H2O

d)

Glucose

100.

Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D in the given table.

a)

A – Marine B – Chlorophyll a & c C – Absent D – Starch

b)

A – Mostly marine B – Chlorophyll a & d C – Present D – Starch

c)

A – Fresh water B – Chlorophyll a & d C – Absent D – Laminarin

d)

A – Mostly marine B – Chlorophyll a & c C – Absent D – Starch

101.

In C4 pathway, the primary accepter of CO2 is

a)

A 5C compound

b)

RuBP

c)

First stable product of Hatch and Slack cycle

d)

PEP

102.

Alignment of chloroplasts along the walls of the mesophyll cells

a)

Helps in suppressing the carboxylase activity of RuBisCO in C3 plants

b)

Helps in enhancing the rate of photorespiration in maize

c)

Ensures the receiving of optimum quantity of the incident light

d)

Ensures the maximum efficiency of carbon reaction in granal thylakoids

103.

Consider the following (a) CO2 fixation (b) NADP reductase enzyme (c) RuBisCO activity (d) ATPase complex Which among the above are associated with thylakoid of chloroplast?

a)

(a) & (c)

b)

(b) & (d)

c)

(b) & (c)

d)

(a) & (b)

104.

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. Column-I (Pigments) Column-II (Colour observed in chromatogram) a. Chlorophyll a (i)Yellow b.Carotenoids (ii)Yellow-green c.Xanthophylls (iii)Yellow to yellow-orange d. Chlorophyll b (iv)Blue green

a)

a(i); b(ii); c(iii); d(iv)

b)

a(iv); b(iii); c(i); d(ii)

c)

a(ii); b(iii); c(iv); d(i)

d)

a(iii); b(iv); c(i); d(ii)

105.

Find the odd one w.r.t. processes lead to development of a proton gradient

a)

Movement of proton across the membrane to stroma through F0 part of ATPase

b)

Transport of protons from stroma to lumen as electrons move through photosystem

c)

Removal of protons from stroma for reduction of NADP+ to NADPH

d)

Accumulation of H+ within the lumen by splitting of water molecules

106.

Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non-cyclic photophosphorylation as it involves

a)

Synthesis of ATP

b)

PS I

c)

Photolysis of water

d)

Cyclic flow of electrons

107.

Dark reaction in photosynthesis

a)

Occurs in dark only

b)

Does not require light energy directly

c)

Cannot occur during day time

d)

Does not use reducing power

108.

Select the incorrect statement from the following.

a)

In living organisms, respiratory substrates are often more than one

b)

Pure proteins or fats are never used by organisms as respiratory substrates

c)

In case of anaerobic respiration, respiratory quotient of glucose would be less than one

d)

The value of respiratory quotient of tripalmitin is 0.7

109.

A TCA cycle

a)

Involves two steps at which CO2 is removed

b)

Starts with condensation of acetyl group with pyruvic acid

c)

Involves two successive steps of substrate level phosphorylation

d)

Requires continued replenishment of citric acid for continued reduction of Acetyl CoA

110.

The enzyme complex, pyruvate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of

a)

Acetaldehyde into ethyl alcohol

b)

Pyruvate into lactic acid

c)

Pyruvate into acetyl CoA

d)

Phosphoenolpyruvate into pyruvic Acid

111.

During oxidative decarboxylation, a 3C molecule (Pyruvic acid) is converted into a

a)

5C compound

b)

2C compound

c)

4C compound

d)

6C compound

112.

In oxidative phosphorylation, complex V is

a)

ATP synthase

b)

Succinate dehydrogenase

c)

Cytochrome bc1

d)

Cytochrome c oxidase

113.

How many types of gametes can be produced by a plant with genotype PPQQRrSS?

a)

Four

b)

Six

c)

Eight

d)

Two

114.

Invertase enzyme catalyzes the conversion of

a)

Sucrose into glucose and fructose

b)

1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid into 3-phosphoglyceric acid

c)

Phosphoenol pyruvate into pyruvic acid

d)

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate into DHAP

115.

Coconut milk can be used to

a)

Promote root growth and root hair formation

b)

Promote senescence

c)

Induce formation of male flower

d)

Counteract apical dominance

116.

Ethephon is

a)

Most widely used compound as a source of ABA

b)

Used in artificial ripening of fruits

c)

Used to promote male flowers in cucumber

d)

Used to inhibit flowering in mango

117.

ABA is also called stress hormone because

a)

It increases the stress conditions for the plants

b)

It regulates the opening and closing of stomata

c)

It increases the tolerance of plants in adverse environmental conditions

d)

It increases the water absorption capacity of the plant

118.

Find the correct application of cytokinin.

a)

Acts as antitranspirant and induces closure of stomata

b)

To promote root development on various types of cuttings

c)

In tea plantation for giving bushy appearance

d)

Promotes parthenocarpy in fruits like banana and grapes

119.

E. Kurosawa found that ‘foolish seedling’ disease in rice plant

a)

Was caused by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi

b)

Occurred due to high internal concentration of auxins

c)

Occurred due to high concentration of ABA

d)

Is induced by a hormone called cytokinin

120.

Which of the following hormone help to form new leaves, lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation?

a)

Zeatin

b)

2, 4-D

c)

Dormin

d)

IAA

121.

Which growth curve is true for living organisms that grow in natural environment?

a)

Sigmoid

b)

Linear

c)

J shaped

d)

Parabola

122.

Which of the following steps would not be needed for artificial hybridisation involving dioecious plants?

a)

Bagging of female flower

b)

Dusting of pollen on stigma

c)

Removal of anther, i.e., emasculation

d)

Re-bagging of flower after pollen dusting

123.

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t flowers.

a)

Several hormonal and structural changes lead to the differentiation and development of floral primordium.

b)

They are the site for sexual reproduction in angiosperms.

c)

Corolla consists of sepals which are sterile

d)

Gynoecium consists of carpels which is an essential whorl of flower

124.

In an angiospermic plant, how many meiosis are required for the formation of 104 male gametes from microspore mother cell?

a)

100

b)

25

c)

13

d)

26

125.

Identify the following statements as true(T) or false(F) and choose the option accordingly. a. Parthenocarpic fruits do not develop from ovary. b. False fruit can have fleshy thalamus. c. False fruit cannot have seeds.

a)

a-T, b-T, c-F

b)

a-F, b-F, c-T

c)

a-F, b-T, c-F

d)

a-T, b-F, c-T

126.

Epiblast is

a)

The smaller cotyledon in dicot seeds

b)

Remains of second cotyledon in some grasses

c)

The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons

d)

An undifferentiated sheath that encloses the root cap

127.

How apomixis can be beneficial to the hybrid seed industry?

a)

Seeds will become too expensive for the farmers

b)

Progeny plants will not be able to maintain hybrid characters

c)

There will be no segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny

d)

Hybrid seed cultivation will decrease productivity