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Cranial Bones Anatomy Ch 11 Part 1

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following bones is part of the floor of the cranium?

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Frontal

d)

Parietal

2.

How many bones make up the facial bone region?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

3.

Which bony landmark represents the highest level of the facial bone mass?

a)

Nasion

b)

Acanthion

c)

Orbital plates

d)

Supraorbital notch

4.

The widest portion of the cranium is found at the level of the:

a)

parietal tubercles.

b)

right and left perion.

c)

squamous portion of the temporal bone.

d)

external acoustic meatus (EAM).

5.

What is the name of the joint found between the lateral condylar processes of the skull and the atlas of C1?

a)

Zygapophyseal joint

b)

Intervertebral joint

c)

Atlanto-occipital joint

d)

Cervico-occipital joint

6.

Which cranial bone articulates with the other seven cranial bones?

a)

Parietal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

None of the above

7.

The slight depression above each eyebrow is termed the:

a)

glabella.

b)

supraorbital foramina.

c)

supraorbital groove.

d)

frontal tuberosity.

8.

Which of the following cranial bones does not articulate with the parietal bone?

a)

Frontal

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Occipital

d)

All of the above articulate with the parietal bone.

9.

The left mastoid fontanel becomes the_____in an adult.

a)

left asterion

b)

left pterion

c)

left bregma

d)

squamosal suture

10.

There are a total of _______fontanels in an infant.

a)

four

b)

two

c)

six

d)

eight

11.

The frontal bone articulates with______cranial bones.

a)

four

b)

six

c)

two

12.

Which of the following landmarks corresponds with the level of the petrous ridge?

a)

EAM

b)

Top of ear attachment (TEA)

c)

Squamosal suture

d)

Inion

13.

The pituitary gland (hypophysis cerebri) is associated with and protected by the______bone.

a)

temporal

b)

ethmoid

c)

palatine

d)

sphenoid

14.

Which cranial bone contains the foramen ovale?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Occipital

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Temporal

15.

Which cranial bone contains the cribriform plate?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Occipital

c)

Temporal

d)

Ethmoid

16.

Which of the following sutures separates the parietal from the occipital bone?

a)

Squamosal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Coronal

d)

Lambdoidal

17.

Which of the following terms describes the anterior fontanel found in the adult skull?

a)

Bregma

b)

Pterion

c)

Asterion

d)

Lambada

18.

Which of the following terms describes the small irregular bones occasionally found in the sutures?

a)

Asterion

b)

Wormian

c)

Sesamoid

d)

Squamosal

19.

The ethmoid notch is part of which cranial bone?

a)

Temporal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Frontal

20.

Which cranial bone is labeled vi in this figure?

a)

Temporal

b)

occipital

c)

Greater wing of Sphenoid

d)

Parietal

21.

Which bony structure is labeled v? through and sutures a through

a)

EAM

b)

Mastoid process

c)

Styloid process

d)

Zygomatic process

22.

The cranial bone labeled i is the:

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Lacrimal

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Palatine

23.

 Which cranial suture is labeled g?

a)

Coronal

b)

Squamosal

c)

Lambdoidal

d)

Sagittal

24.

The sutural point or area labeled e is the:

a)

Lambda

b)

Asterion

c)

Bregma

d)

Pterion

25.

The sutural point or area labeled d is the:

a)

Bregma

b)

Lambda

c)

Asterion

d)

Pterion

26.

The suture labeled f is the:

a)

Asterion

b)

Lambdoidal

c)

Coronal

d)

Squamosal

27.

The term that describes the anterior fontanel found in the adult skull is:

a)

Bregma

b)

Lambda

c)

Pterion

d)

Asterion

28.

Which of the following terms describes the small irregular bones occasionally found in the sutures?

a)

Asterion

b)

Wormian

c)

Sesamoid

d)

Squamosal

29.

The ethmoid notch is part of which cranial bone?

a)

Temporal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Frontal

30.

Which of the fontanels is the last to close at about 18 months of age?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Mastoid

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

31.

An average-shaped skull with a 47° angle between the petrous pyramids and the midsagittal plane is classified as:

a)

mesocephalic.

b)

brachycephalic.

c)

dolichocephalic.

d)

morphocephalic.

32.

An axiolateral oblique projection (modified Law method) for the temporomandibular joints on a brachycephalic type of skull would require____rotation as compared with an average-shaped skull.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same

d)

Rotation depends on the patient’s age.

33.

Which term describes the small flap of cartilage covering the opening to the ear?

a)

Tragus

b)

Pinna

c)

Acanthion

d)

EAM

34.

What is the difference, in degrees, between the infraorbitomeatal and orbitomeatal lines?

a)

10°

b)

15° to 22°

c)

7° to 8°

d)

20° to 25°

35.

Which one of the following technical considerations is most critical for demonstrating air and/or fluid levels within the cranium?

a)

Low kV range

b)

Detail image receptor (IR)

c)

Short exposure time

d)

Erect or horizontal x-ray beam positioning

36.

A radiograph of an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the cranium reveals that the dorsum sellae is projected below the foramen magnum, but the posterior arch of C1 is visible within the foramen. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome?

a)

Excessive central ray (CR) angulation

b)

Insufficient CR angulation

c)

Insufficient flexion of the head and neck

d)

Tilt of the skull

37.

Which one of the following positioning errors most often results in a repeat exposure of a cranial position?

a)

Incorrect rotation and tilt

b)

Incorrect central ray placement

c)

Slight flexion

d)

Slight extension

38.

A radiograph of a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium reveals that the petrous ridges are located at the level of the lower one-third of the orbits. The technologist performed this projection with the CR angled 15° caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML). How must positioning be altered if a repeat exposure is performed?

a)

Increase the extension of the skull.

b)

Increase the flexion of the skull.

c)

Increase the CR angulation.

d)

None of the above; positioning was correct.

39.

A radiograph of a submentovertex projection of the cranium reveals that the mandibular mentum are projected into the ethmoid sinuses. What must be altered during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic radiograph?

a)

Increase the extension of the skull.

b)

Increase the flexion of the skull.

c)

Decrease the CR angulation.

d)

None of the above; it is an acceptable image.

40.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital roofs (plates) are not superimposed—one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome?

a)

Rotation

b)

Tilt

c)

Excessive Flexion

d)

Excessive Extension

41.

A radiograph of a lateral cranium reveals that the mentum of the mandible was cut off from the bottom of the radiograph. A 24 × 30-cm (10 × 12-inch) IR was used, and it was placed landscape. What must be altered if a repeat exposure is performed?

a)

Center the CR at the EAM.

b)

Increase SID to reduce magnification.

c)

Place the 24 × 30-cm (10 × 12-inch) IR lengthwise.

d)

None of the above; all of the critical structures were demonstrated.

42.

A patient comes to radiology for a routine study of the cranium. He is unable to flex his head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial projection. What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the occipital bone?

a)

Use the inferior OML and increase the CR angulation by 7°.

b)

Perform the Haas method.

c)

Perform a submentovertex projection in place of the AP axial projection.

d)

Use the AML and increase the CR angulation by 10°.

43.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible basilar skull fracture. Which of the following skull projections would best demonstrate any blood present in the sphenoid sinus?

a)

AP with a 15° cephalic angle

b)

Haas method

c)

Submentovertex

d)

Horizontal beam lateral projection

44.

A patient comes to radiology with a history of a possible erosion of the superior orbital fissures. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this structure?

a)

PA axial with a 15° caudad angle to OML

b)

Submentovertical

c)

PA axial with a 25° to 30° caudad angle to OML

d)

AP axial with a 37° caudad angle to OML

45.

Which of the following positioning errors most often results in a repeat exposure of a lateral projection of the skull?

a)

Rotation

b)

Tilt

c)

Excessive flexion

d)

Excessive extension

46.

A patient comes to radiology with a possible bone cyst within the squamous portion of the frontal bone. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this region with a minimal amount of distortion of the frontal bone?

a)

AP axial with a 30° caudad angle to OML

b)

PA axial with a 30° caudad angle to OML

c)

PA axial with a 15° caudad angle to OML

d)

PA with no CR angulation to OML

47.

A PA axial projection with a 25° caudad angle of the cranium reveals that the petrous ridges are at the level of the superior orbital margins. Which of the following modifications are required to correct this error?

a)

Decrease CR angle.

b)

Increase extension of cranium.

c)

Increase flexion of cranium.

d)

No corrections are required; this is an acceptable position.

48.

Which one of the following cranial projections will best demonstrate a possible basilar fracture?

a)

PA axial (Caldwell method)

b)

Lateral recumbent

c)

Horizontal beam lateral

d)

AP axial (Towne method)

49.

Which positioning line should be perpendicular to the plane of the IR for the AP axial (Towne) projection with a 37° caudad CR angle?

a)

OML

b)

IOML

c)

AML

d)

LML

50.

Which division of the temporal bone contains the organs of hearing and equilibrium?

a)

Petrous

b)

Mastoid

c)

Squamous

d)

Antrum

51.

Which one of the following structures is part of the middle ear?

a)

Tragus

b)

Cochlea

c)

Tympanic cavity

d)

Eustachian tube

52.

To which aspect of the ear does the eustachian tube attach?

a)

External ear

b)

Middle ear

c)

Inner ear

d)

Cochlea

53.

The aditus is defined as a(n):

a)

large chamber containing the mastoid air cells.

b)

thin plate of bone separating the mastoid air cells from the brain.

c)

passageway for the auditory nerve.

d)

opening between the epitympanic recess and the mastoid air cells.

54.

The mastoid air cells communicate with the:

a)

inner ear.

b)

middle ear.

c)

external ear.

d)

base of the brain.

55.

Which of the following structures of the inner ear is responsible for hearing?

a)

Vestibule

b)

Semicircular canals

c)

Cochlea

d)

Round window

56.

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the cranium?

a)

EAM

b)

Three-fourths inch (2 cm) anterior and three-fourths inch (2 cm) superior

c)

Two inches (5 cm) superior to EAM

d)

Midway between EAM and nasion

57.

Which cranial bone possesses the sella turcica?

a)

Temporal

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Occipital

58.

Which cranial bone possesses the superior nasal conchae?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Frontal

d)

Temporal

59.

Which cranial bone possesses the zygomatic process?

a)

Frontal

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Temporal

d)

Ethmoid

60.

Which of the following modalities best demonstrates early signs of Paget’s disease of the skull?

a)

CT

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

MRI

d)

Sonography

61.

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of an acoustic neuroma. Which of the following imaging modalities will provide the best assessment for this tumor?

a)

Radiography

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Nuclear medicine

d)

MRI

62.

A patient comes to radiology with acute mastoiditis. Which one of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate possible bony destruction within the mastoid region?

a)

CT

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

Ultrasound

d)

PET

63.

A patient comes in with a clinical history of a possible pituitary adenoma. Because this is a rural hospital, CT and MRI are not available. Which radiographic projection or position would best demonstrate signs of bony erosion of the sella turcica because of the tumor?

a)

AP axial (Towne method)

b)

PA axial (Caldwell method)

c)

Lateral position

d)

Both A and C

64.

What is the largest immovable bone of the face?

a)

Vomer

b)

Mandible

c)

Maxilla

d)

Zygomatic

65.

Which facial bone forms the majority of the hard palate?

a)

Mandible

b)

Palatine

c)

Maxilla

d)

Zygomatic

66.

Which three cranial bones articulate directly with the zygomatic bone?

a)

Frontal, ethmoid, temporal

b)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal

c)

Sphenoid, frontal, occipital

d)

Ethmoid, parietal, frontal

67.

Which of the following terms describes the junction of the two nasal bones?

a)

Nasion

b)

Acanthion

c)

Glabella

d)

Supraorbital groove

68.

Which of the following structures are described as scroll-like projections found in the nasal cavity?

a)

Perpendicular plate

b)

Pterygoid processes

c)

Septal cartilage

d)

Conchae

69.

Which two bones form the bony nasal septum?

a)

Superior and inferior nasal conchae

b)

Ethmoid and vomer

c)

Vomer and maxilla

d)

Sphenoid and ethmoid

70.

The upper and lower teeth are embedded in the:

a)

symphysis menti.

b)

condyloid processes.

c)

palatine processes.

d)

alveolar processes.

71.

The point of union between both halves of the mandible is termed:

a)

gonion.

b)

ramus.

c)

symphysis menti.

d)

mental foramina.

72.

What primary type of joint movement occurs with the temporomandibular joint?

a)

Plane

b)

Gomphosis

c)

Spheroidal

d)

Bicondylar

73.

What is the classification of the joint found between the teeth and maxilla?

a)

Synovial

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synarthrodial

74.

The posterior aspect of the orbit is termed the:

a)

apex.

b)

base.

c)

sphenoid strut.

d)

crown.

75.

How many facial bones help make up the bony orbit?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Seven

76.

The bone labeled 2 is the:

a)

lacrimal.

b)

maxilla.

c)

ethmoid.

d)

palatine.

77.

79. Part 10 is part of which bone?

a)

Maxila

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Ethmoid

78.

Refer to the diagram. Part 7 is part of which bone?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Lacrimal

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Sphenoid

79.

Refer to the diagram. Part 3 is part of which bone?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Lacrimal

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Sphenoid

80.

Part 6 is which of the following?

a)

inferior orbital fissure

b)

Optic Foramina

c)

Superior Orbital Fissure

d)

Lacrimal duct

81.

Part 9 is part of which bone?

a)

Zygomatic

b)

Maxilla

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Ethmoid

82.

The part labeled 8 is part of which bone?

a)

Palatine

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Zygomatic

83.

What is the only paranasal sinus not contained within a cranial bone

a)

Maxillary

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Frontal

84.

The term antrum of Highmore is an older term for the:

a)

Frontal Sinuses

b)

Ethmoid Sinuses

c)

Maxillary Sinuses

d)

Nasal Cavity

85.

Which sinus often produces an air/fluid level indicating a basilar skull fracture?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Maxillary

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Frontal

86.

Where are the ethmoid sinuses located within the ethmoid bone?

a)

Perpendicular Plate

b)

Pterygoid processes

c)

Cribriform plate

d)

Lateral masses

87.

The      passageway drains the maxillary sinus into the middle nasal conchae.

a)

Ethmoid Bulla

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Uncinate Process

d)

inferior nasal concha

88.

The      sinuses develop last and are not fully developed until the teenage years.

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Nasal

d)

Maxillary