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BIO 101 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make each polymer from monomers?

a)

phosphodiester linkages

b)

hydrolysis

c)

dehydration reactions

d)

ionic bonding of monomers

e)

the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

2.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated?

a)

It is a saturated fatty acid.

b)

A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.

c)

Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

d)

It is an unsaturated fat

3.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 5.5?

a)

It is a hydrolysis reaction.

b)

It results in a peptide bond.

c)

It joins two fatty acids together.

4.

Which bonds are created during the formation of a polysaccharide?

a)

peptide bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

glycosidic

d)

ester

e)

B and C

5.

Which bonds connect multiple nucleotides together to form nucleic acids?

a)

Ester

b)

Phosphodiester

c)

Glycosidic

d)

Hydrogen

e)

Disulfide Bridges

6.

Examine the figure. Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely

a)

positively charged.

b)

negatively charged.

c)

without charge.

d)

hydrophobic.

e)

nonpolar.

7.

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

a)

A) Bacteria and Eukarya

b)

B) Bacteria and Archaea

c)

C) Archaea and Protista

d)

D) Bacteria and Protista

e)

E) Bacteria and Fungi

8.

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

a)

lipids

b)

glycogen

c)

proteins

d)

cellulose

e)

nucleic acids

9.

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

a)

lysosome

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondrion

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

peroxisome

10.

Which size cell would be considered to be the most efficient?

a)

Large surface area, small volume

b)

Large volume, large surface area

c)

Small volume, small surface area

d)

Small surface area, large volume

11.

Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?

a)

phospholipids and cellulose

b)

nucleic acids and proteins

c)

phospholipids and proteins

d)

proteins and cellulose

e)

glycoproteins and cholesterol

12.

What is the function of cholesterol in the cell membrane

a)

stabilize the membrane during temperature fluctuations

b)

permit passage of materials

c)

cell communication & recognition

13.

In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to have a

a)

hydrophilic region only.

b)

hydrophobic region.

c)

amphipathic cis face.

d)

phospholipid bilayer.

e)

location on only 1 side of the membrane.

14.

What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

a)

large and hydrophobic

b)

small and hydrophobic

c)

large polar

d)

ionic

e)

monosaccharides such as glucose

15.

Which of the following statements is correct about simple diffusion?

a)

It is very rapid over long distances.

b)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

c)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

d)

It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.

16.

Water passes quickly through cell membranes because

a)

the bilayer is hydrophilic.

b)

it moves through hydrophobic channels.

c)

water movement is tied to ATP.

d)

it is a small, polar, charged molecule.

e)

it moves through aquaporins in the membrane.

17.

If a plant root with a water potential of -1 is placed in a sucrose solution that has a water potential of -4, water will

a)

Move into the cell, and it will be turgid

b)

Move out of the cell, and it will be turgid

c)

Move into the cell, and it will be flaccid

d)

Move out of the cell resulting in plasmolysis

18.

Which of the following is the correct order of a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Transduction, Reception, Response

b)

Ligand, Transduction, Reception

c)

Reception, Transduction, Response

d)

GTP, cAMP, ATP

e)

Ligand, Reception, Response

19.

Which of the following is a type of long-distance cellular messaging?

a)

Endocrine signaling

b)

Paracrine signaling

c)

Synaptic signaling

d)

Quorum Sensing

e)

Gap junction communication

20.

The term “ligand” refers to

a)

A molecule that acts as a secondary messenger

b)

cAMP

c)

A molecule that initiates a signal on a cell-surface receptor protein

d)

The process of transduction

21.

A GPCR is activated by a ligand which then triggers the phosphorylation of what energy molecule that activates the G-protein to react with a target enzyme?

a)

cAMP

b)

GTP

c)

ATP

d)

Phosphate

e)

Yeast mating factor

22.

Some molecules enter a target cell and acts as a transcription factor. The function of a transcription factor is to

a)

Begin the process of apoptosis

b)

Phosphorylate a tyrosine kinase receptor

c)

Activate GTP and cAMP

d)

Inhibit Kinase enzymes

e)

Activate a gene

23.

One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

a)

G protein-coupled receptors

b)

ligand-gated ion channels

c)

steroid receptors

d)

receptor tyrosine kinases

e)

Voltage gated ion channel

24.

In the figure the dots in the space between the two structures represent which of the following?

a)

receptor molecules

b)

signal transducers

c)

hormones

d)

neurotransmitters

e)

pheromones

25.

Which of the following is NOT a function of mitosis in regards to cellular activity?

a)

Tissue Repair

b)

Development (creation of an embryo from a zygote)

c)

Asexual reproduction

d)

Production of gametes

e)

All of the above are true

26.

Which of the following cellular divisions occurs in bacteria (prokaryotes)?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

27.

During which phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes duplicated?

a)

M

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

28.

Where do the microtubules of the spindle fibers originate during mitosis in an animal cell?

a)

centromere

b)

nucleus

c)

centriole

d)

chromatid

e)

kinetochore

29.

p53 can trigger apoptosis if certain cell cycle events fail. How does this regulatory outcome benefit a multicellular organism?

a)

Apoptosis helps in controlling the consumption of energy by extra cells

b)

Apoptosis inhibits the production of faulty proteins, which could be due to DNA damage

c)

Apoptosis stops the invasion of viruses in the other cells

d)

Cells are killed to prevent production of reactive oxygen which can harm the organism.

30.

Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?

a)

catabolism

b)

metabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

dehydration

e)

catalysis

31.

Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?

a)

They do not depend on enzymes.

b)

They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions.

c)

They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.

d)

They release energy as they break down polymers to monomers.

e)

They consume energy to perform catabolic reactions

32.

Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics?

a)

Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy.

b)

Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work.

c)

Without an input of energy, organisms decrease entropy.

d)

Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe

e)

Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization and decrease entropy.

33.

A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is correctly described as

a)

enzymatic

b)

entropy

c)

endergonic

d)

spontaneous.

e)

exothermic.

34.

Which molecule is an important energy carrying molecule?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

PEP Carboxylase

d)

IP3

e)

Hexokinase

35.

Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

a)

C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

b)

O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.

c)

CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.

36.

The ATP made during glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle is generated by

a)

substrate-level phosphorylation.

b)

electron transport.

c)

photophosphorylation.

d)

chemiosmosis.

37.

Pyruvate must be transported into the mitochondria. How does pyruvate enter the mitochondrion?

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

through a channel

e)

through a pore

38.

Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?

a)

It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.

b)

It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.

c)

It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.

d)

It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.

e)

It uses ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.

39.

Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric acid cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a carbon (CO2) from one molecule of pyruvate?

a)

lactate

b)

glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate

c)

oxaloacetate

d)

acetyl CoA

e)

citrate

40.

Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?

a)

pyruvate

b)

malate or fumarate

c)

acetyl CoA

d)

α-ketoglutarate

e)

succinyl CoA

41.

Deamination is the metabolism and break down of what organic molecules?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Citric Acid

d)

Organic Acids

e)

Lipids

42.

Which of the following is the correct order of events in photosynthesis?

a)

Citric Acid Cycle ➔ Photosystem II ➔ Photosystem I ➔ Photophosphorylation

b)

Photosystem I ➔ Photosystem II ➔ Calvin Cycle

c)

Photosystem II ➔ Photosystem I ➔ Calvin Cycle

d)

Photophosphorylation ➔ Water splitting ➔ Calvin Cycle ➔ Dark Reaction

e)

Glycolysis ➔ Citric Acid Cycle ➔ Oxidative Phosphorylation

43.

For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. What was the basis of this thinking?

a)

Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA.

b)

Proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four.

44.

Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Phages with labeled proteins or DNA were allowed to infect bacteria. It was shown that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic material.

a)

Frederick Griffith

b)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

c)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod

d)

Erwin Chargaff

e)

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

45.

Identify which of the following best describe purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines include cytosine, thymine and uracil and have single rings while pyrimidines include adenine and guanine and have double rings.

b)

Purines include cytosine, thymine and uracil and have double rings, while pyrimidines include adenine and guanine and have single rings.

c)

Purines include adenine and guanine and have double rings, while pyrimidines include thymine, uracil and cytosine and have single rings.

d)

Purines include adenine and guanine and have single rings, while pyrimidines include thymine, uracil and cytosine and have double rings.

46.

Pyrimidines and purines complementary base pair due to

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

ionic bonding

c)

covalent bonding

d)

sulfhydryl bridges

e)

phosphodiester linkages

47.

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following?

a)

sequence of bases

b)

phosphate-sugar backbones

c)

complementary pairing of bases

d)

side groups of nitrogenous bases

e)

different five-carbon sugars

48.

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.

b)

The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.

c)

Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.

d)

One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.

e)

One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.

49.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?

a)

primase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

topoisomerase

e)

helicase

50.

What is the effect of a silent mutation in a gene?

a)

It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein.

b)

It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein.

c)

It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.

d)

It alters the reading frame of the mRNA.

e)

It prevents introns from being excised.

51.

What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

a)

introns

b)

exons

c)

codons

d)

replicons

e)

transposons

52.

Which statements are TRUE about the cell theory:

a)

Cells come from existing cells; All living things are made of cells; Cells are the basic unit of life; All cells contain the same basic components

b)

Cells can only be seen with the naked eye; Only animals are made of cells; Cells are not necessary for life; All cells are identical in function

c)

Cells are made only of water; Only plants have cells; Cells do not divide; Cells are not found in bacteria

d)

Cells are made of plastic; All living things are made of rocks; Cells are not found in humans; Cells are not important for life

53.

Prokaryote, Eukaryote, or Both?

Categorize the following

Ribosomes

Cytoplasm

Cell Membrane

DNA

No Nucleus

Nucleoid Region

Unicellular

Bacteria

Nucleus

Membrane Bound Organelles

No membrane bound organelles

specialized

often multicellular

Prokaryote
Both
Eukaryote
54.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Translation

d)

Mitosis

55.

Where does transcription occur?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

56.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

Which molecule carries the anticodon?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

DNA

d)

tRNA

58.

A polypeptide (protein chain) is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a _______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

proteins; hydrogen

c)

fatty acids; ionic

d)

fatty acids; covalent

59.

Transcribe this DNA sequence: 3' TACGTTACT 5'

a)

5' AUGCAAUGA 3'

b)

5' AUGGATUGA 3'

c)

3' ATGCAATGA 5'

d)

3' AUGCAAUGA 5'

60.

What process is going on in this photo?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mitosis

61.

Where is the TATA box located?

a)

Near the introns

b)

Near the exons

c)

Near the poly adenylation sequence

d)

Near the promoter

62.

Which of the following is the enzyme used in the process of transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

63.

Which of the following describes the direction the DNA template strand is read during transcription?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5'

c)

N terminus to C terminus

d)

C terminus to N terminus

64.

Which of the following is the function of the poly-A tail?

a)

To protect mRNA from hydrolytic enzymes

b)

To allow for entry into the nucleus

c)

To signal for termination of translation

d)

To decrease the length of mRNA molecules

65.

Where on the DNA does the enzyme responsible for transcription bind?

a)

Promoter

b)

Enhancer

c)

Polyadenylation sequence

d)

Start codon

66.

Where does transcription take place in a eukaryote?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Cytosol

d)

Ribosome

67.

Which of the following is NOT involved in transcription?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

ribosome

d)

TATA box

68.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

A base insertion only

b)

A base deletion only

c)

A base substitution only

d)

Deletion or insertion

69.

Identify the levels of Protein Structure

Categorize the following

Amino Acid chain

beta sheets, alpha helixes

Hydrogen Bonding

3 D folding

ionic bonds

disulfide bridges

hydrophobic interactions

interactions of multiple protiens

functional protein

peptide bonds

R group interactions

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
70.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
71.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

72.

What type of impact?

a)

Silent

b)

Nonsense

c)

Missense

d)

Frameshift

73.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
74.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
75.

Which of the following are post-transcriptional modification of the primary mRNA transcript?

a)

5' methyl cap

b)

Poly A tail

c)

Removal of introns

d)

Removal of Exons

76.

Identify to which category each molecule belongs

Categorize the following
Protein
Lipid
Nucleic Acid
Carbohydrate