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BIO Exam 2

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following correctly lists the five stages of the cell cycle?

a)

G1, S Phase, G2 phase, M Phase, G0

b)

G1, G2, S, M, C

c)

S, G1, G2, M, T

d)

G0, G1, S, T, M

2.

What structure keeps sister chromatids together?

a)

Centromere

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Spindle fiber

d)

Mitochondria

3.

During prophase of mitosis, what happens to the chromosomes?

a)

They are condensed and can be seen with a light microscope

b)

They are replicated for the first time

c)

They are broken down into nucleotides

d)

They are translated into proteins

4.

What is the main event that occurs during anaphase of mitosis?

a)

Chromatids reach their poles and decondense

b)

The connections between the sister chromatids break apart

c)

Nuclear envelope forms creating two nuclei

d)

Sister chromatids align at the metaphase plate

5.

Which of the following is a key difference between meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Chromosomes condense and form bivalents in mitosis

b)

Sister chromatids form a bivalent or tetrad in meiosis

c)

Cytokinesis only occurs in mitosis

d)

Spindle fibers are only formed in mitosis

6.

During which phase of Meiosis II do sister chromatids separate and move towards the poles?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

7.

Which event occurs during Prometaphase II of Meiosis II?

a)

Sister chromatids condense

b)

Nuclear envelope destroyed

c)

Chromosomes decondense

d)

Cleavage furrows separate new cells

8.

What is the genetic composition of an organism called?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosome

d)

Allele

9.

What is the expected ratio when crossing Tt x tt?

a)

3:1

b)

1:1

c)

2:1

d)

1:2:1

10.

Which of the following describes independent events?

a)

The occurrence of one event affects the probability of the other

b)

The occurrence of one event has no effect on the probability of the other

c)

Both events must occur together

d)

Neither event can occur

11.

What does correlation indicate?

a)

One thing causes another

b)

Two things seem to happen in tandem

c)

There is no relationship

d)

One thing prevents the other

12.

What does the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium show?

a)

If a population is evolving

b)

If something is occurring, but no population really applies to it

c)

The ratio of dominant to recessive alleles

d)

The probability of independent events

13.

What is pedigree analysis used for?

a)

To create new breeds

b)

To look at known history in the family tree instead of unethically breeding humans

c)

To determine the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

d)

To calculate sample space

14.

If you cross PPGG with ppgg, what is the phenotype of the F1 generation?

a)

Purple/Green PpGg

b)

Purple/Purple PPGG

c)

Green/Green ppgg

d)

Purple/Green PPGg

15.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four criteria of genetic material?

a)

Information

b)

Replication

c)

Transmission

d)

Mutation repair

16.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group, pentose sugar, nitrogen-containing base

b)

Phosphate group, ribosome, lipid

c)

Pentose sugar, amino acid, nitrogen-containing base

d)

Phosphate group, glucose, protein

17.

Which bases are classified as purines?

a)

Adenine and Guanine

b)

Uracil and Cytosine

c)

Thymine and Cytosine

d)

Adenine and Thymine

18.

What is the directionality of a DNA strand?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

c)

2’ to 4’

d)

1’ to 6’

19.

Which mechanism is the correct model for DNA replication?

a)

Semiconservative

b)

Conservative

c)

Dispersive

d)

Random

20.

What enzyme adds nucleotides during DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA ligase

c)

Helicase

d)

Topoisomerase

21.

What is required for DNA polymerase to begin synthesizing DNA?

a)

A primer made of RNA

b)

A primer made of DNA

c)

A primer made of protein

d)

A primer made of lipids

22.

What distinguishes the synthesis of the leading strand from the lagging strand during DNA replication?

a)

The leading strand is synthesized as one long molecule, while the lagging strand is synthesized in Okazaki fragments

b)

The leading strand uses RNA primers, while the lagging strand does not

c)

The leading strand is synthesized in the 3’-5’ direction, while the lagging strand is in the 5’-3’ direction

d)

The leading strand is made of RNA, while the lagging strand is made of DNA

23.

Explain why Okazaki fragments are necessary during DNA replication on the lagging strand.

a)

Because DNA polymerase can only synthesize DNA in the 5’-3’ direction, and the lagging strand runs in the opposite direction, requiring synthesis in short segments.

b)

Because the lagging strand is made of RNA

c)

Because the leading strand is too long

d)

Because DNA ligase cannot function on the leading strand

24.

How many chromosomes are found in human somatic cells?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

44

d)

92

25.

What is chromatin?

a)

The complex of DNA and proteins that make up eukaryotic chromosomes

b)

A type of nucleotide

c)

A sugar found in RNA

d)

A purine base

26.

Which statement best describes the function of genetic material?

a)

It contains the information that produces the traits of organisms

b)

It only stores energy

c)

It is responsible for cell movement

d)

It forms the cell membrane

27.

In which direction are the sugars in DNA connected by covalent bonds?

a)

5’ to 3’ direction

b)

3’ to 5’ direction

c)

2’ to 4’ direction

d)

1’ to 6’ direction

28.

Which component of a nucleotide is or are always different when comparing DNA and RNA?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Nitrogenous base

c)

Pentose sugar

d)

Hydrogen bond

29.

What did the X-ray diffraction data of Franklin help reveal?

a)

The function of ribosomes

b)

The structure of DNA

c)

The process of translation

d)

The sequence of amino acids

30.

What are the ends of linear chromosomes called, and what are they composed of?

a)

Centromeres, composed of proteins

b)

Telomeres, composed of repeated sequences

c)

Exons, composed of coding DNA

d)

Introns, composed of non-coding DNA

31.

The karyotype is the number, size, and form of the complete set of chromosomes of an organism

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Cancer cells are said to be metastatic when they

a)

migrate to other parts of the body

b)

begin to divide uncontrollably

c)

cause mutations in other healthy cells

d)

Invade healthy tissue

33.

Catabolic reactions

a)

create larger molecules from smaller ones

b)

break down reactants

c)

never occur in biological reactions

d)

biosynthesize

34.

Put C3, C4, and CAM plants in order from least amount of energy used or the most efficient method of photosynthesis (on the left) to most amount of energy used or least efficient method of photosynthesis (on the right):

a)

CAM, C4, C3

b)

C4, CAM, C3

c)

C4, C3, CAM

d)

C3, C4, CAM

35.

kinetic energy is the energy possessed due to location or structure

a)

true

b)

false

36.

The first law of thermodynamics states:

a)

Energy can be created

b)

Energy can be destroyed

c)

Energy always increases

d)

Energy cannot be created

37.

Checkpoints during cell cycle are important because they

a)

Ensure the integrity of the DNA

b)

allow the cell to generate enough ATP for cellular division

c)

Allow the organelle activity to catch up to cellular demands

d)

all of these are correct

38.

Crossing over is the physical exchange between chromosome segments of the bivalent or tetrad

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Homologous chromosomes are identical

a)

true

b)

false

40.

C3 photosynthesis has this name as

a)

The first stable product is a 4 carbon molecule

b)

The first stable product is a 3 carbon molecule

c)

The final product is a 3 carbon molecule

d)

The final product is a 4 carbon molecule

41.

How many PAIRS of chromosomes do humans typically have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

12

d)

92

42.

What is the molecule called that carries genetic information?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

DNA

d)

Lipid

43.

In genetics, what does the term "homozygous" refer to?

a)

Having two different alleles for a trait

b)

Having two identical alleles for a trait

c)

The study of genes and their roles in inheritance

d)

A type of genetic cross

44.

In a pedigree chart, men are represented by

a)

Circles

b)

Diamonds

c)

Squares

45.

What is the term for the passing of traits from parents to offspring?

a)

Metabolism

b)

Genetics

c)

Evolution

d)

Photosynthesis

46.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
47.

What is the significance of mitosis in multicellular organisms?

a)

It helps in the reproduction of organisms.

b)

It is responsible for genetic diversity.

c)

It aids in growth and repair of tissues.

d)

It produces gametes for reproduction.

48.
If base-pairing rules state that Adenine always pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine pairs with Guanine, what would be the complementary strand to ACGGT?
a)
ACGGT
b)
TGGCA
c)
TGCCA
d)
ACCGT
49.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
50.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
51.

Which component of DNA determines the traits that are inherited?

a)

Sugar molecules

b)

Phosphate groups

c)

Nitrogenous bases

d)

Hydrogen bonds

52.
Base pairs in a DNA strand are held together by what type of bonds?
a)
covalent
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)
James
53.

Who is the father of genetics?

a)

George Washington

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

John Deere

d)

Louis Pasteur

54.

A person who has both a dominant allele and a recessive allele would display which phenotype

a)

The recessive phenotype

b)

50% chance of displaying either

c)

The dominant phenotype

d)

A mix of the two alleles

55.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
56.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
57.

CROSSING OVER INCREASES

a)

LIFE SPAN

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

THE NUMBER OF OFF-SPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

58.

The different forms of a gene are called

a)

traits

b)

pollinators

c)

alleles

d)

hybrids

59.

What is the function of spindle fibers during mitosis?

a)

They help separate sister chromatids

b)

They synthesize proteins

c)

They condense chromosomes

d)

They replicate DNA

60.

Which phase of the cell cycle is primarily responsible for DNA replication?

a)

G2 phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

61.

Which one of the following is not one of the conditions that must be met in Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

Random Mating

b)

Small Population Size

c)

No Natural Selection

d)

No Mutations

62.

What pulls the chromosomes apart?

a)

Spinner wheels

b)

Spiral windows

c)

Spindle fibers

d)

Spiral fibers

63.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
64.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
65.

What is the correct order of the phases of Mitosis?

a)

Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase

b)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase

66.

A HAPLOID Human cell has...

a)

1 set of chromosomes

b)

2 sets of chromosomes

c)

3 sets of chromosomes

d)

4 sets of chromosomes

67.

What is this equation for?

a)

Cellular Biography

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Photosensitizes

d)

Photosynthesis

68.

A green chemical that absorbs sunlight is

a)

nutrients

b)

chlorophyll

c)

seed coat

d)

vegetable

69.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
Carbon dioxide and water
b)
Carbon dioxide and oxygen
c)
Glucose and oxygen
d)
Glucose and water
70.

In which part of the plant cell does photosynthesis take place?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosome

71.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
72.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
73.
How did Rosalind Franklin's photo 51 affect the work of Watson and Crick?
a)
It was used to determine the physical structure of DNA
b)
It was used to identify the four bases that make up DNA
c)
It was used to determine the theory of independent assortment
d)
It was used to show DNA was the molecule of inheritance
74.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
75.

Which three parts are found in all nucleotides?

a)

sugar, phosphate, base pairs

b)

phosphate, base pairs and cytosine

c)

sugar, phosphate and cytosine

d)

sugar, phosphate and base

76.

You are completing a single factor cross of two true-breeding plants. The character in question comes in two variants, one dominant and one recessive. This trait shows complete dominance.  What would you expect the F1 generation’s phenotype to be

a)

3:1 ratio of the dominant to recessive traits

b)

All the plants would be heterozygous

c)

All plants would display the recessive traits

d)

All plants would display the dominant traits

77.

The physical location of a gene on a chromosome is called

a)

pleiotropy

b)

locus

c)

filius

d)

monecious

78.

When the true breeding lines of plants were crossed by Mendel, he created a hybrid generation that we referred to as

a)

The P1 generation

b)

The F2 generation

c)

The F1 generation

d)

The P2 generation

79.

When a non-equal distribution of the chromosomes occurs during meiosis, this is called

a)

Karyotype

b)

Gametophyte

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Non-disjunction

80.

One of the advantages of sexual reproduction is:

a)

The two sexes must be able to find one another

b)

The organisms often need to create a large number of gametes

c)

Specialized body parts are often needed for the production of offspring

d)

The offspring tend to have higher genetic diversity

81.

Which of the following is true for organisms with alternation of generations

a)

During the only stage the organism is multicellular they are 2n

b)

There are multicellular phases that are both 1n and 2n

c)

These organisms do not reproduce sexually and are 2n at every stage of their life cycle

d)

During the only stage the organism is multicellular they are 1n

82.

When looking at simple Mendelian Inheritance if you were looking at flower color, flower color would be considered the______ and the colors purple or white would each be considered the______.

a)

Trait, Character

b)

Character, Trait

c)

Loci, allele

d)

allele, loci

83.

Epistasis is

a)

When incomplete dominance occurs and offspring’s phenotype displays an intermediate form of the trait

b)

When environmental factors can influence the phenotype of the organism

c)

When incomplete dominance occurs and offspring’s genotype displays an intermediate form of the trait

d)

The interaction when the allele of one gene can mask the expression of another gene

84.

In haploid dominant organisms, such as some fungi, the multicellular organism is 1n.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

Human blood types are an example of

a)

Complete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Pleiotropy