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DFT-SURGERY D1-03/10/2025

Total questions: 10

Worksheet time: 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, accompanied by regurgitation of undigested food. High-resolution manometry reveals an elevated integrated relaxation pressure (IRP) of 25 mmHg (normal <15 mmHg) and 100% failed peristalsis with pan-esophageal pressurization in all swallows. According to the Chicago classification v3.0, which type of achalasia does this patient have?

a)

Type II Achalasia

b)

Type I Achalasia

c)

Type III Achalasia

d)

Esophagogastric junction outflow obstruction (EGJOO)

2.

A 30-year-old male with progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, regurgitation, and atypical chest pain is diagnosed with Type III (spastic) achalasia. High-resolution manometry confirms premature, high-amplitude contractions in the distal esophagus. Which of the following therapeutic interventions offers the highest likelihood of long-term symptom resolution for this specific subtype?

a)

Peroral endoscopic myotomy (POEM)

b)

Laparoscopic Heller myotomy (LHM) with Dor fundoplication

c)

Endoscopic pneumatic dilation

d)

Botulinum toxin injection into the lower esophageal sphincter

3.

Killian's dehiscence, the site of herniation for a pharyngeal pouch, is the natural area of weakness located between which two muscular components?

a)

The oblique fibers of the thyropharyngeus and the transverse fibers of the cricopharyngeus.

b)

The superior and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscles.

c)

The stylopharyngeus and palatopharyngeus muscles.

d)

The buccopharyngeal fascia and the prevertebral fascia.

4.

A 45-year-old executive complains of worsening heartburn and regurgitation, particularly after his morning coffee and business lunches which often include rich, fatty foods. From a pathophysiological standpoint, what is the primary mechanism by which these specific dietary triggers exacerbate his gastro-esophageal reflux symptoms?

a)

Increasing the frequency of transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations (TLESRs)

b)

Acutely sharpening the anatomical Angle of His

c)

Enhancing the efficacy of esophageal peristaltic clearance

d)

Augmenting the protective diaphragmatic crural pinch mechanism

5.

A 62-year-old male with a long history of nocturnal regurgitation and heartburn undergoes an endoscopy which reveals metaplastic columnar epithelium replacing the normal squamous epithelium in the distal esophagus. This finding represents the most significant risk factor for developing which of the following?

a)

Esophageal adenocarcinoma

b)

A Schatzki ring

c)

Esophageal candidiasis

d)

Zenker's diverticulum

6.

A 48-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of retrosternal burning and regurgitation, refractory to over-the-counter antacids. An upper GI endoscopy reveals no mucosal breaks or evidence of Barrett's esophagus. A subsequent 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring study reports a DeMeester score of 25.4 (normal <14.7) and a positive symptom association probability (SAP) of 96%. What is the most accurate diagnosis?

a)

Non-erosive Reflux Disease (NERD)

b)

Esophageal Hypersensitivity

c)

Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

d)

Eosinophilic Esophagitis

7.

A pathologist is reviewing four-quadrant biopsies taken at 2 cm intervals from the distal esophagus of a patient with known long-segment Barrett’s esophagus, as stipulated by the Seattle protocol. Which of the following histologic findings is the sine qua non for establishing the definitive diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus?

a)

Presence of intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells

b)

Columnar epithelial lining

c)

Chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate in the lamina propria

d)

Squamous epithelial islands within columnar mucosa

8.

Which molecular alteration is most characteristic of the progression from low-grade to high-grade dysplasia in Barrett's esophagus?

a)

Inactivation of TP53

b)

Loss of CDKN2A (p16).

c)

Activating KRAS mutations.

d)

High microsatellite instability (MSI-H)

9.

A 5-week-old male infant is brought to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening, non-bilious projectile vomiting immediately after feeding. On examination, he appears lethargic with sunken fontanelles and dry mucous membranes. A firm, olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. An arterial blood gas analysis confirms metabolic alkalosis. Which set of findings is most anticipated on his urine analysis?

a)

pH 5.0, low chloride, high potassium

b)

pH 7.8, high chloride, low potassium

c)

pH 7.9, low chloride, low potassium

d)

pH 5.2, high chloride, high potassium

10.

A 5-week-old infant undergoes a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. Two days post-operatively, he continues to have persistent projectile vomiting. What is the most likely etiology?

a)

Incomplete myotomy

b)

Postoperative gastric atony

c)

Mucosal perforation

d)

Gastroesophageal reflux