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End of Unit I Final Test (BONES)

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 37hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the function of the axial skeleton?

a)

It supports only the limbs.

b)

It forms the central "axis" of the body.

c)

It produces red blood cells exclusively.

d)

It is responsible for muscle contraction.

2.

Explain why the vertebral column is considered part of the axial skeleton and not the appendicular skeleton.

a)

Because it is made of cartilage only.

b)

Because it is not connected to the skull.

c)

Because it forms the central support structure of the body.

d)

Because it is located in the limbs.

3.

Which bones are included in the pectoral (shoulder) girdles of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Ilium and ischium

b)

Radius and ulna

c)

Clavicles and scapula

d)

Femur and tibia

4.

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper limbs in the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Forearms

b)

Ankles

c)

Hands

d)

Arms

5.

To which vertebrae is the thoracic cage anchored posteriorly?

a)

Thoracic vertebrae (T1–T12)

b)

Cervical vertebrae (C1–C7)

c)

Sacral vertebrae (S1–S5)

d)

Lumbar vertebrae (L1–L5)

6.

Why are the first seven ribs called "true ribs"?

a)

They are fused together at the back.

b)

They are the longest ribs in the body.

c)

They are directly attached to the sternum via their own costal cartilages.

d)

They are not connected to the sternum at all.

7.

Why are the 11th and 12th pairs of ribs called "floating ribs"?

a)

Because they do not attach to the sternum at all

b)

Because they are the longest ribs

c)

Because they are attached to the pelvis

d)

Because they are fused together

8.

What are the functions of the vertebral column?

a)

Supports body

b)

All of the above

c)

Protects spinal cord and nerves

d)

Allows movement and flexibility

9.

How many vertebrae are there in total in the vertebral column?

a)

28

b)

33

c)

24

d)

30

10.

The vertebral column protects the spinal cord and nerves.

a)

False

b)

True

11.

Which of the following are primary spinal curves?

a)

Cervical and sacrococcygeal

b)

Thoracic and lumbar

12.

Which of the following are secondary spinal curves?

a)

Cervical and lumbar

b)

Cervical and sacrococcygeal

c)

Thoracic and lumbar

d)

Thoracic and sacrococcygeal

13.

The cervical spine consists of how many vertebrae that support the skull, enable neck movement, and protect neural and vascular structures?

a)

Nine vertebrae

b)

Twelve vertebrae

c)

Seven vertebrae

d)

Five vertebrae

14.

Which vertebra is responsible for facilitating head flexion and extension (nodding)?

a)

C7

b)

C2 (Axis)

c)

C1 (Atlas)

d)

T1

15.

Which vertebra is responsible for enabling head rotation ("no" movement)?

a)

C1 (Atlas)

b)

T1

c)

C2 (Axis)

d)

C7

16.

The cervical vertebrae are more mobile than thoracic or lumbar vertebrae.

a)

False

b)

True

17.

Sits on top of the foot and connects to the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint; Transfers weight from the leg to the foot.

a)

Talus

b)

Phalanges

c)

Metatarsals

d)

PCL

18.

This bone forms the heel of the foot and serves as the attachment point for the Achilles tendon.

a)

Navicular

b)

Cuboid

c)

Talus

d)

Calcaneus

19.

Which group of bones forms the arch of the foot and helps in weight distribution during walking?

a)

Tibia

b)

Phalanges

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Fibula

20.

These are the small bones at the front of the foot that make up the toes.

a)

Talus

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Phalanges

21.

Which bone is located on the lateral side of the foot and helps stabilize the foot during movement?

a)

Navicular

b)

Cuboid

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Talus

22.

What is the collective name for the seven bones that make up the rear part of the foot?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Carpals

23.

Which bone in the foot articulates directly with the first metatarsal and plays a key role in the medial arch?

a)

Cuboid

b)

Talus

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Navicular

24.

Which bone in the foot is located between the talus and the cuneiform bones?

a)

Cuboid

b)

Metatarsal

c)

Navicular

d)

Calcaneus

25.

Which bones form the toes of the foot?

a)

Talus

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Tarsals

26.

Which tarsal bone is found on the lateral side of the foot and articulates with the fourth and fifth metatarsals?

a)

Cuboid

b)

Talus

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Navicular

27.

Which bone in the foot is commonly known as the 'ankle bone' and helps connect the leg to the foot?

a)

Navicular

b)

Cuboid

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Talus

28.

Which group of bones is located between the tarsals and the phalanges in the foot?

a)

Sesamoids

b)

Talus

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Phalanges

29.

Which bone supports the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot and is found on the outer side?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Talus

c)

Cuboid

d)

Navicular

30.

Which bone in the foot is the largest and forms the foundation of the rear part of the foot?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Navicular

c)

Cuboid

d)

Talus

31.

Which group of bones connects the tarsals to the phalanges and plays a crucial role in foot movement?

a)

Phalanges

b)

Sesamoids

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Calcaneus

32.

Which tarsal bone is located medially and articulates with all three cuneiform bones?

a)

Talus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Navicular

d)

Calcaneus

33.

Anterior Talofibular Ligament connects which two bones?

a)

Tibia and Talus

b)

Fibula and Talus

c)

Femur and Fibula

d)

Tibia and Fibula

34.

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

a)

Sternum

b)

Pisiform

c)

Carpal

d)

Humerus

35.

What type of bone is the pisiform classified as?

a)

Long bone

b)

Short bone

c)

Irregular bone

d)

Sesamoid bone

36.

Which bone is the only bone in the upper arm, stretching from the shoulder to the elbow?

a)

Ulna

b)

Radius

c)

Humerus

d)

Femur

37.

Which structure of the proximal (upper) region of the humerus fits into the glenoid fossa of the scapula to facilitate multi-directional shoulder motion?

a)

Greater tubercle

b)

Head

c)

Surgical neck

d)

Lesser tubercle

38.

Which tubercle serves as the attachment site for the subscapularis muscle (rotator cuff)?

a)

Greater tubercle

b)

Intertubercular groove

c)

Surgical neck

d)

Lesser tubercle

39.

What is the primary function of the greater tubercle of the humerus?

a)

Attachment site for the subscapularis muscle

b)

Houses the tendon of the long head of the biceps

c)

Common fracture site in falls

d)

Attaches three of the four rotator cuff muscles, providing shoulder stability and arm rotation

40.

Why is the surgical neck of the humerus clinically significant?

a)

It houses the tendon of the long head of the biceps

b)

It is the site where the rotator cuff muscles attach

c)

It fits into the glenoid fossa of the scapula

d)

It is a common fracture site with risk to the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery

41.

Which structure houses the radial nerve and profunda brachii artery?

a)

Radial (Spiral) Groove

b)

Greater tubercle

c)

Anatomical neck

d)

Deltoid tuberosity

42.

Which bone is located on the lateral (thumb) side of the forearm, running parallel to the ulna?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Radius

c)

Humerus

d)

Lunate

43.

Which vertebra allows your head to nod "yes"? Which allows you to shake "no"?

a)

Lumbar for "yes", Sacrum for "no"

b)

Atlas (C1) for "yes", Axis (C2) for "no"

c)

Axis (C2) for "yes", Atlas (C1) for "no"

d)

Thoracic for "yes", Lumbar for "no"

44.

What three bones make up the shoulder joint?

a)

Clavicle, Sternum, Fibula

b)

Clavicle, Femur, Tibia

c)

Clavicle, Scapula, Humerus

d)

Scapula, Radius, Ulna

45.

Calcaneofibular Ligament connects what two bones?

a)

Calcaneus and femur

b)

Talus and Calcaneus

c)

Talus and fibula

d)

Calcaneus and fibula

46.

Which bone in the foot directly receives the weight from the tibia?

a)

Cuboid

b)

Talus

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Navicular

47.

Which bone in the foot is located directly anterior to the calcaneus?

a)

Cuboid

b)

Navicular

c)

Talus

d)

Phalanges

48.

The ball-shaped upper part of the femur that fits into the acetabulum of the pelvis, forming the hip joint

a)

Femoral Neck

b)

Femoral Toe

c)

Femoral Shaft

d)

Femoral Head

49.

This is the narrow portion just below the femoral head that connects the head to the shaft of the femur.

a)

Acetabulum

b)

Femoral Head

c)

Femoral Neck

d)

Femoral Shaft

50.

The long, cylindrical portion of the femur that extends from the hip to the knee.

a)

Femoral Neck

b)

Femoral Head

c)

Femoral Shaft

d)

Femoral Finger

51.

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia to form part of the ankle joint?

a)

Talus

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Cuboid

d)

Navicular

52.

What is the main function of the plantar fascia?

a)

To facilitate foot inversion

b)

To enhance toe flexion

c)

To provide shock absorption

d)

To support the arch of the foot

53.

In the Cervical Vertebrae Anatomy, what is the name of the bony projection at the back of the vertebra?

a)

Vertebral body

b)

Lamina

c)

Transverse foramen

d)

Spinous process

54.

In the Cervical Vertebrae Anatomy, what is the name of the curved bony structure that forms the posterior part of the vertebra?

a)

Vertebral body

b)

Vertebral arch

c)

Transverse process

d)

Spinous process

55.

In the Cervical Vertebrae Anatomy, what is the name of the part labeled as the flat plate of bone forming the roof of the vertebral arch?

a)

Lamina

b)

Spinous process

c)

Pedicle

d)

Transverse process

56.

In the Cervical Vertebrae Anatomy, what is the name of the thick, disc-shaped anterior portion of the vertebra?

a)

Spinous process

b)

Body

c)

Transverse foramen

d)

Lamina

57.

Which of the following correctly matches the number of bones with their type in the phalanges?

a)

5 proximal, 5 intermediate, 4 distal

b)

5 proximal, 4 intermediate, 5 distal

c)

4 proximal, 4 intermediate, 6 distal

d)

4 proximal, 5 intermediate, 5 distal

58.

Where is the ethmoid bone located?

a)

At the back of the head, forming the occipital region

b)

In the cheek, forming the zygomatic arch

c)

At the base of the skull, forming the lower jaw

d)

Between the orbits, forming part of the anterior cranial fossa, roof of nasal cavity, medial walls of orbit, and superior portion of nasal septum

59.

Why can a fracture of the ethmoid bone, especially the lamina papyracea, be dangerous?

a)

It can lead to orbital complications and cerebrospinal fluid leaks.

b)

It can cause permanent deafness.

c)

It can cause paralysis of the facial muscles.

d)

It can result in loss of taste.

60.

Which part of the sternum directly articulates with the first pair of ribs?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Xiphoid Process

c)

Manubrium

d)

Body (Gladiolus)

61.

What is the primary role of the scapula in the pectoral girdle?

a)

To provide a surface for muscle attachment and facilitate shoulder movement

b)

To connect the ribs to the sternum

c)

To anchor the lower limbs

d)

To protect the spinal cord

62.

Which part of the rib cage provides direct attachment for most of the ribs?

a)

Sternum

b)

Scapula

c)

Pelvis

d)

Clavicle

63.

Which of the following bones is found in the appendicular skeleton but not in the axial skeleton?

a)

Rib

b)

Scapula

c)

Vertebra

d)

Sternum

64.

Which bone forms the anterior connection between the left and right sides of the pectoral girdle?

a)

Scapula

b)

Humerus

c)

Sternum

d)

Clavicle

65.

What is the primary function of the vertebral body?

a)

It produces red blood cells for the body.

b)

It serves as the primary load-bearing structure in the spine, absorbing compressive forces during motion or impact.

c)

It regulates the movement of the diaphragm during breathing.

d)

It transmits nerve impulses between the brain and the limbs.

66.

The vertebral body is especially important in sports because it absorbs compressive forces during motion or impact.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

What is the vertebral foramen?

a)

The central opening formed between the vertebral body (anteriorly) and the vertebral arch (posteriorly).

b)

A bony projection on the posterior side of the vertebra.

c)

The cartilage disc between two vertebrae.

d)

The outer layer of the vertebral body.

68.

What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

a)

It connects muscles to bones.

b)

It houses and protects the spinal cord.

c)

It produces red blood cells.

d)

It stores calcium.

69.

The vertebral foramen is formed between which two structures?

a)

Spinal canal and vertebral arch

b)

Vertebral body and spinal cord

c)

Vertebral body and vertebral arch

70.

The vertebral foramen forms the spinal canal when aligned across vertebrae.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Which of the following is a function of the vertebral arch?

a)

Produces red blood cells

b)

Protects the spinal cord by forming the back wall of the vertebral foramen

c)

Stores calcium

d)

Filters waste from blood

72.

The vertebral arch serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments, acting as levers for movement.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is the spinous process?

a)

The spinous process is a nerve bundle running along the spinal cord.

b)

The spinous process is a single bony projection extending posteriorly in the midline of the vertebra, where the laminae meet.

c)

The spinous process is a cartilage disc located between vertebrae.

d)

The spinous process is a muscle attached to the vertebral column.

74.

What is the primary site for muscle and ligament attachment in the vertebra?

a)

The transverse foramen is the primary site for muscle and ligament attachment, including those involved in extension and stabilization.

b)

The spinous process is the primary site for muscle and ligament attachment, including those involved in extension and stabilization.

c)

The vertebral body is the primary site for muscle and ligament attachment, including those involved in extension and stabilization.

d)

The intervertebral disc is the primary site for muscle and ligament attachment, including those involved in extension and stabilization.

75.
Name this bone.
a)
femur
b)
humerus
c)
tibia
76.
Name this bone.
a)
fibula
b)
tibia
c)
femur
77.
Name this bone.
a)
sternum
b)
xyphoid process
c)
coccyx
78.
Name this bone.
a)
scapula
b)
clavicle
c)
sternum
79.
Name this bone.
a)
patella
b)
phalange
c)
femur
80.
What is the name of the part in green?
a)
manubrium
b)
sternum
c)
xiphoid process
d)
body
81.
What is the name of the section in purple?
a)
manubrium
b)
sternum
c)
xiphoid process
d)
body
82.

Which bone forms the base of the skull and articulates with the first cervical vertebra?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Temporal bone

c)

Parietal bone

d)

Frontal bone

83.

What is the main function of the intervertebral discs in the vertebral column?

a)

Anchor ribs to the sternum

b)

Allow attachment of muscles

c)

Provide cushioning and absorb shock between vertebrae

d)

Facilitate head rotation

84.

Which bone forms the lateral side of the forearm and articulates with the wrist on the thumb side?

a)

Humerus

b)

Radius

c)

Ulna

d)

Scapula

85.

What is the name of the flat bone located at the front of the chest, to which most ribs are attached anteriorly?

a)

Scapula

b)

Sternum

c)

Clavicle

d)

Manubrium

86.

Which group of bones in the hand is located between the carpals and the phalanges?

a)

Metacarpals

b)

Tarsals

c)

Sesamoids

d)

Talus

87.

What is the name of the cartilage that connects the ribs to the sternum?

a)

Articular cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Costal cartilage

d)

Fibrocartilage

88.

Which bone forms the anterior portion of the pelvic girdle and joins at the pubic symphysis?

a)

Ischium

b)

Ilium

c)

Sacrum

d)

Pubis

89.

Which vertebra articulates directly with the occipital condyles of the skull to allow nodding ("yes" movement)?

a)

C1 (Atlas)

b)

C2 (Axis)

c)

T1

d)

C7

90.

Which of the following bones is NOT found in the lower limb?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Radius

d)

Femur