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Exam 2 (MedSurg) - Fluid and Electrolytes

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a sub-compartment of the Extracellular Fluid (ECF)?

a)

A) Interstitial

b)

B) Intravascular

c)

C) Transcellular

d)

D) Intracellular

2.

Body weight change is an excellent indicator of overall fluid volume loss or gain.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

One liter of water weighs how many kilograms and pounds?

a)

One kilogram or 2.2 pounds

b)

Two kilograms or 4.4 pounds

c)

Half a kilogram or 1.1 pounds

d)

Five kilograms or 11 pounds

4.

Which of the following ions is a cation?

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Phosphate

d)

Bicarbonate

5.

Which of the following ions is an anion?

a)

Potassium

b)

Calcium

c)

Chloride

d)

Magnesium

6.

The concentration of electrolytes is expressed in which unit?

a)

milliequivalents (mEq/L)

b)

grams per deciliter (g/dL)

c)

percent (%)

d)

moles per liter (mol/L)

7.

What is the most prevalent cation in Intracellular Fluid (ICF)?

a)

K+ (Potassium)

b)

Na+ (Sodium)

c)

Ca2+ (Calcium)

d)

Mg2+ (Magnesium)

8.

What is the most prevalent anion in Intracellular Fluid (ICF)?

a)

(PO4)3- (Phosphate)

b)

Cl- (Chloride)

c)

HCO3- (Bicarbonate)

d)

SO4^2- (Sulfate)

9.

What is the most prevalent cation in Extracellular Fluid (ECF)?

a)

Na+ (Sodium)

b)

K+ (Potassium)

c)

Ca2+ (Calcium)

d)

Mg2+ (Magnesium)

10.

What is the most prevalent anion in Extracellular Fluid (ECF)?

a)

Cl- (Chloride)

b)

HCO3- (Bicarbonate)

c)

SO4^2- (Sulfate)

d)

PO4^3- (Phosphate)

11.

Fill in the blank: Osmolarity is defined as total ________ per liter of solution.

a)

milliosmoles

b)

milligrams

c)

liters

d)

moles

12.

Fill in the blank: Osmolality is defined as total ________ per kilogram of water.

a)

milliosmoles

b)

milligrams

c)

milliliters

d)

millimoles

13.

Which is the preferred measure to evaluate concentration of plasma, urine, and body fluids?

a)

Osmolarity

b)

Osmolality

c)

Hydrostatic Pressure

d)

Oncotic Pressure

14.

Fill in the blank: The osmolality of the fluid surrounding cells affects them. Isotonic solutions include ________ and LR.

a)

NS

b)

D5W

c)

0.45% NS

d)

3% NaCl

15.

Fill in the blank: Hydrostatic pressure is blood pressure generated by ________.

a)

heart contraction

b)

lung expansion

c)

kidney filtration

d)

liver secretion

16.

Fill in the blank: Oncotic pressure is osmotic pressure caused by ________.

a)

plasma proteins

b)

red blood cells

c)

glucose molecules

d)

electrolytes

17.

Which of the following determines the amount and direction of fluid movement in capillaries?

a)

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Plasma oncotic pressure

c)

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

d)

Interstitial oncotic pressure

e)

All of the above

18.

Plasma to interstitial fluid shift results in edema.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Interstitial fluid drawn into plasma increases edema.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Fill in the blank: An increase in plasma osmotic or oncotic pressure draws fluid into the plasma from the ________ space.

a)

interstitial

b)

intracellular

c)

pleural

d)

alveolar

21.

Fill in the blank: First spacing refers to ________ fluid distribution.

a)

normal

b)

abnormal

c)

life-threatening

d)

clustered

22.

Fill in the blank: Second spacing refers to abnormal ________.

a)

edema

b)

bleeding

c)

calcification

d)

pigmentation

23.

Which region regulates water balance by sensing fluid deficit or increase through osmoreceptors?

a)

Adrenal-pituitary region

b)

Hypothalamic-pituitary region

c)

Temporal lobe and thalamus

d)

Adrenal-thalamic region

24.

Decreased plasma osmolality (water excess) suppresses the release of which hormone?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

ADH

c)

Renin

d)

Natriuretic peptides

25.

Which organs are the primary regulators of fluid and electrolyte balance?

a)

Heart

b)

Kidneys

c)

Liver

d)

Lungs

26.

Natriuretic peptides are antagonists to the RAAS produced by cardiomyocytes in response to increased ______ pressure. Fill in the blank.

a)

atrial

b)

venous

c)

pulmonary

d)

capillary

27.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of hypovolemia?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hemorrhage

28.

Clinical manifestations of hypovolemia include all EXCEPT:

a)

Restlessness

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Hypertension

d)

Confusion

29.

What are some symptoms of fluid volume deficit? Fill in the blank: Weakness, dizziness, weight loss, seizures, and _______.

a)

coma

b)

hypertension

c)

bradycardia

d)

edema

30.

Which of the following is a cause of hypervolemia (ECF fluid excess)?

a)

Excess intake of fluids

b)

Abnormal retention of fluids: heart failure, renal failure

c)

Interstitial to plasma fluid shifts: colloids

d)

All of the above

31.

Clinical manifestations of excess fluid volume include which of the following? Select all that apply:

a)

Headache, confusion, lethargy

b)

Peripheral edema, JVD, bounding pulse

c)

HTN, dyspnea, crackles, pulmonary edema, muscle spasms

d)

Seizures, coma

32.

What is the treatment for hypervolemia? Fill in the blank: Remove fluid WITHOUT changing _______ or osmolality of ECF.

a)

electrolyte composition

b)

blood pressure

c)

body weight

d)

body temperature

33.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate measure of volume status in nursing management of fluid volume disorders?

a)

Daily weights

b)

I+Os

c)

Lab findings: urine specific gravity

d)

Administer IV fluids as ordered

34.

Lab findings: If urine specific gravity is 1.025 or over, it is considered _______.

a)

concentrated

b)

diluted

c)

alkaline

d)

acidic

35.

Lab findings: If urine specific gravity is 1.010 or under, it is considered _______.

a)

dilute

b)

concentrated

c)

alkaline

d)

acidic

36.

What is the normal range of sodium (Na+) in the body?

a)

120-130

b)

135-145

c)

150-160

d)

100-110

37.

Sodium plays a major role in which of the following? (Select all that apply)

a)

ECF volume and concentration

b)

Muscle contractility

c)

Acid-base balance

d)

Blood sugar regulation

38.

Fill in the blank: Sodium is important for the generation and transmission of ______ impulses.

a)

nerve

b)

blood

c)

muscle

d)

hormone

39.

Imbalances in sodium are typically associated with parallel changes in _______.

a)

osmolality

b)

phosphate levels

c)

blood pressure

d)

calcium levels

40.

What is the body's primary protective mechanism against hypernatremia?

a)

micturition

b)

thirst

c)

diaphoresis

d)

bicarbonate buffer system

41.

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of hypernatremia?

a)

Thirst

b)

Agitation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Seizure

42.

Hypernatremia can cause alterations in mental status such as agitation, restlessness, confusion, lethargy, seizure, and coma.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What is the management for primary water deficit in hypernatremia?

a)

Replace fluid orally or IV with hypertonic fluids

b)

Replace fluid orally or IV with isotonic or hypotonic fluids

c)

Increase sodium intake

d)

Administer diuretics

44.

Fill in the blank: Causes of hypernatremia include hyperosmolality leading to cellular _______.

a)

dehydration

b)

swelling

c)

division

d)

lysis

45.

What is the primary cause of hyponatremia?

a)

Excess sodium intake

b)

Water excess

c)

Increased potassium intake

d)

Decreased oral intake

46.

Which of the following is a mild manifestation of hyponatremia?

a)

Seizures

b)

Coma

c)

Headache

d)

Vomiting

47.

Fill in the blank: Severe manifestations of hyponatremia include confusion, vomiting, ________, and coma.

a)

seizures

b)

headache

c)

palpitations

d)

rash

48.

Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia are a result of cellular swelling and are first manifested in the ______.

a)

CNS

b)

PNS

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver

49.

SATA: What are some possible complication of hyponatremia?

a)

Severe neurologic changes

b)

Decreased LOC

c)

Acute confusion

d)

Altered sensorium

e)

Permanent, irreversible neurologic damage if untreated

50.

Fill in the blank: The cause of hyponatremia is usually water excess, such as in _______.

a)

SIADH

b)

Diabetes insipidus

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

51.

Which management strategy is appropriate for severe symptoms (i.e. seizures) in hyponatremia?

a)

Give small amounts of hypotonic saline solution (1/2NS)

b)

Give large amounts of a volume expander (desmopressin)

c)

Give small amount of hypertonic saline solution (3% NS)

d)

Give large amounts of an isotonic saline solution (LR)

52.

Fluid replacement with sodium-containing solution and increased oral intake are management strategies for hyponatremia.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What is the normal range of potassium in the blood?

a)

3.5-5.0

b)

2.0-3.0

c)

5.5-6.5

d)

6.0-7.0

e)

3.5-5.5

54.

Which of the following is NOT a necessary function of potassium?

a)

A) Transmission and conduction of nerve and muscle impulses

b)

B) Cellular growth

c)

C) Maintenance of cardiac rhythms

d)

D) Blood clotting

e)

E) Acid-base balance

55.

Select all the sources of potassium from the following:

a)

Fruits and vegetables (bananas and oranges)

b)

Salt substitutes

c)

Stored blood

d)

Produced by kidneys

56.

The only mechanism to clear excess potassium (K+) is regulated by the kidneys.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

High serum potassium (hyperkalemia) is MOST commonly caused by:

a)

Impaired renal production of K+

b)

Fluid shift from ICF to ECF (acidosis)

c)

Massive intake

d)

Renal failure

e)

Cirrhosis

58.

Which of the following is a manifestation of hyperkalemia?

a)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

b)

Cramping leg pain

c)

Weak or paralyzed skeletal muscles

d)

Abdominal cramping or diarrhea

e)

All of the above

59.

Weak or paralyzed skeletal muscles can be a manifestation of hyperkalemia.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is a major complication associated with hypokalemia?

a)

Dysrhythmias

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Tachypnea

61.

SATA: Which medications can be administered in urgent scenarios for hyperkalemia?

a)

Insulin+D50 IV

b)

Calcium gluconate IV

c)

Bicarbonate IV

d)

Potassium IV bolus

e)

KCl IV

62.

What is the most common cause of low serum potassium?

a)

Increased loss of potassium via kidneys or GI tract

b)

Decreased dietary intake of potassium

c)

Excessive potassium absorption from the gut

d)

Decreased potassium production by the nephrons

63.

Diabetic ketoacidosis causes increased shift of K+ from ______ to ______.

a)

ECF to ICF

b)

ICF to ECF

c)

Blood to urine

d)

Cells to plasma

64.

Which manifestation of hypokalemia is considered most serious?

a)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

b)

Skeletal muscle weakness

c)

Decreased GI motility

d)

Hyperglycemia

65.

Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and ______.

a)

Hyporeflexia

b)

Hyperreflexia

c)

Dsypnea

d)

Tachypnea

66.

What is the normal range of serum calcium in mg/dL?

a)

8.5-10.2 mg/dL

b)

6.0-7.5 mg/dL

c)

10.5-12.0 mg/dL

d)

4.0-6.0 mg/dL

67.

Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium?

a)

Myocardial contractions

b)

Transmission of nerve impulses

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Formation of teeth and bone

e)

Oxygen transport

68.

Calcium balance is controlled by which hormones?

a)

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

b)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone and calcitonin

c)

Thyroxine and calcitonin

d)

Just calcitonin

e)

Milk

69.

Vitamin D is needed to absorb calcium from ingested foods.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

High levels of serum calcium (hypercalcemia) are MOST commonly caused by which condition?

a)

Hyperparathyroidism

b)

Hypoparathyroidism

c)

Vitamin D deficiency

d)

Chronic kidney disease

71.

Changes in which two factors affect calcium levels in the body?

a)

pH and albumin

b)

sodium and potassium

c)

glucose and insulin

d)

chloride and sulfate

72.

NEVER GIVE KCL AS IV PUSH OR AS A BOLUS.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is the maximum rate at which a pump should deliver KCl?

a)

10 mEq/hr

b)

20 mEq/hr

c)

5 mEq/hr

d)

15 mEq/hr

74.

Fill in the blank: Excess calcium acts like a ________.

a)

SEDATIVE

b)

STIMULANT

c)

HORMONE

d)

ENZYME

75.

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of hypercalcemia?

a)

Fatigue, lethargy, confusion

b)

Hallucinations, seizures, coma

c)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

d)

Hypotension

76.

Fill in the blank: One of the manifestations of hypercalcemia is ________ pain, fractures, nephrolithiasis.

a)

Bone

b)

Muscle

c)

Joint

d)

Abdominal

77.

Fill in the blank: Polyuria and ________ are manifestations of hypercalcemia.

a)

dehydration

b)

hypokalemia

c)

bradycardia

d)

hypoglycemia

78.

Which of the following is a common method for implementing treatment for hypercalcemia?

a)

Excretion of Ca+ with a loop diuretic

b)

Excretion of Ca+ with a mucolytic

c)

Excretion of Ca+ with an osmotic laxative

d)

Excretion of Ca+ with a osmotic diuretic

79.

Fill in the blank: ________ is an option in life-threatening situations of hypercalcemia.

a)

Dialysis

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Intense milk therapy

d)

Cardioversion

e)

Thyroidectomy

80.

Low serum calcium levels can be caused by decreased production of ________.

a)

PTH

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Aldosterone

e)

TSH

81.

Multiple blood transfusions can cause hypocalcemia because citrate used to anticoagulate the blood binds with calcium.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Fill in the blank: Surgical removal of a portion of or injury to the ________ glands during thyroid or neck surgery can cause hypocalcemia.

a)

parathyroid

b)

adrenal

c)

pituitary

d)

salivary

83.

Fill in the blank: The main manifestation of hypocalcemia is ________.

a)

TETANY

b)

BRADYCARDIA

c)

HYPERTENSION

d)

JAUNDICE

84.

A finding of a positive Trousseau's sign and/or a positive Chvostek's sign is indicative of which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

hypophosphatemia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypokalemia

85.

Laryngospasm is a manifestation of which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

hypercalcemia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

hypokalemia

86.

When a patient is experiencing hypocalcemia, it is important to treat their pain and anxiety to avoid ________-induced _______ __________.

a)

hypoventilation, metabolic alkalosis

b)

hyperventilation, metabolic acidosis

c)

hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis

d)

hyperventilation, respiratory alkalosis

87.

SATA: What does phosphate play a major role in?

a)

muscle function

b)

red blood cell formation

c)

nervous system function

d)

bone growth and repair

e)

insulin production

88.

Phosphate has a _____ relationship with calcium.

a)

indirect

b)

direct

c)

parasitic

d)

symbiotic

89.

SATA: Select all of the following conditions that can lead to hyperphosphatemia.

a)

AKI

b)

chemotherapy with tumor lysis syndrome

c)

excess intake of Vitamin D

d)

hypoparathyroidism

e)

hyperparathyroidism

90.

SATA: Which electrolyte imbalances can cause neuromuscular excitability and tetany?

a)

hypocalcemia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

hyperphosphatemia

d)

hypophosphatemia

e)

hypomagnesemia

91.

Maintenance of adequate phosphate levels in turn requires adequate _______ functioning.

a)

hepatic

b)

respiratory

c)

renal

d)

lymphatic

92.

Volume expanders and forced diuresis are an acceptable method of treatment for ________.

a)

hyperphospatemia

b)

hypophosphatemia

c)

hypercalcemia

d)

hypermagnesemia

e)

chloride excess

93.

What is the most common cause of hypophosphatemia?

a)

trauma

b)

SIADH

c)

malnourishment

d)

obesity

94.

Which condition can lead to impaired cellular energy and oxygen delivery?

a)

hyperphosphatemia

b)

hypophosphatemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

hyponatremia

e)

hypocalcemia

95.

SATA: Select the following manifestations of hypophosphatemia.

a)

CNS depression

b)

muscle weakness and pain

c)

respiratory failure

d)

liver failure

e)

heart failure

96.

Magnesium acts as a coenzyme in the metabolism of _______.

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

fiber

d)

lipids

97.

SATA: Select all of the bodily functions that magnesium is REQUIRED for.

a)

DNA synthesis

b)

protein synthesis

c)

ATP production

d)

blood pressure regulation

e)

urobilinogen synthesis

98.

Renal function is vital for proper EXCRETION of magnesium.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

A common electrolyte used to manage eclampsia is ____. Pregnant women who are being treated for eclampsia therefore run the risk of _______.

a)

sodium, hypernatremia

b)

phosphate, hyperphosphatemia

c)

magnesium, hypermagnesemia

d)

potassium, hypokalemia

100.

Severe hypermagnesemia can lead to both cardiac and respiratory arrest.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which of the following IV medications can be used to treat hypermagnesemia?

a)

KCl

b)

3%NS

c)

CaCl

d)

D10W

102.

Low serum magnesium is most commonly caused by starvation and _________.

a)

respiratory distress

b)

chronic alcoholism

c)

cigarette smoking

d)

lymphatic dysfunction

103.

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and cardiac dysrhythmias are hallmark manifestations of hypomagnesemia. These occur because of corresponding ______ and _________.

a)

hypocalcemia, hypokalemia

b)

hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia

c)

hypercalcemia, hypokalemia

d)

hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

104.

SATA: Select the cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypomagnesemia.

a)

cor pulmonale

b)

torsade des pointes

c)

atrial fibrillation

d)

ventricular fibrillation

e)

myocarditis

105.

SATA: Administering magnesium too QUICKLY can result in what serious adverse affects?

a)

cardiac arrest

b)

respiratory arrest

c)

severe hypotension

d)

severe hypertension

e)

seizures

106.

Oral fluid replacement is used to correct ______ fluid and electrolyte deficits.

a)

severe

b)

moderate

c)

mild

d)

life-threatening

107.

In patient with a fluid and electrolyte deficit, IV fluid replacement is always required, even when oral fluid intake is adequate.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Hypotonic IV solutions move water from ___ to ___ via ________.

a)

ICF, ECF, osmosis

b)

ICF, ECF, diffusion

c)

ECF, ICF, osmosis

d)

ECF, ICF, diffusion

109.

Hypotonic IV solutions are usually ______ fluids.

a)

curative

b)

volume-reducing

c)

maintenance

d)

caustic

110.

Cellular swelling is a possible adverse effect of hypotonic IV solutions. What should the RN monitor for MOST closely in a patient receiving hypotonic fluids?

a)

cerebral edema

b)

diuresis

c)

pitting edema

d)

dehydration

111.

Most isotonic fluids expand:

a)

only the ICF

b)

only the ECF

c)

both the ECF and the ICF

112.

Why is D5W different from other isotonic IV solutions like NS and LR?

a)

it is physiologically hypotonic and expands both the ECF and ICF proportionately

b)

it is physiologically hypertonic and expands both the ECF and ICF proportionately

c)

it is physiologically hypotonic and expands both the ECF and ICF, but has more effect on the ECF

d)

it is physiologically hypertonic and expands both the ECF and ICF, but has more effect on the ECF

113.

D5W provides free _____ without _______.

a)

electrolytes, water

b)

water, electrolytes

c)

calories, dextrose

d)

dextrose, calories

114.

SATA: What are some common uses for D5W?

a)

replace water loss

b)

treat hypernatremia

c)

treat hyponatremia

d)

prevent ketosis

e)

prevent alkalosis

115.

The preferred isotonic IV fluid for IMMEDIATE response is:

a)

NS

b)

D5W

c)

LR

d)

Gatorade

116.

What is the ONLY IV fluid that can be ran ALONGSIDE blood products?

a)

LR

b)

D5W

c)

D10W

d)

NS

e)

Colloids

117.

SATA: Lactated Ringer's is composed of which substances?

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

chloride

d)

calcium

e)

lactate

118.

Lactated Ringer's is commonly used to treat burns and GI losses.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Lactated Ringer is CONTRAINDICATED IN ______ as well as lactic acidosis patients.

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypomagnesemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

hypocalcemia

120.

Does LR provide free water or calories?

a)

LR provides free water, but no calories

b)

LR provides calories, but no free water

c)

LR provides both calories and free water

d)

LR does not provide calories or free water

121.

Hypertonic IV solutions are PRIMARILY used for:

a)

provide free water as part of parenteral nutrition

b)

provide calories as part of parenteral nutrition

c)

expand ECF only as part of parenteral nutrition

d)

prevent ketosis as part of parenteral nutrition

122.

A patient on hypertonic IV fluids needs to be frequently monitored for:

a)

volume overload

b)

dehydration

c)

sepsis

d)

diuresis

123.

SATA: Select all of the hypertonic IV fluids.

a)

D5W

b)

D51/2NS

c)

D10W

d)

Colloids

e)

1/2NS

124.

What is the highest percentage of dextrose that can be administered through a peripheral line?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

20%

125.

D10W provides free water, but does not provide any electrolytes.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Colloids are large molecules that increase _______ pressure and pull fluid ______ the blood vessels.

a)

hydrostatic, into

b)

hydrostatic, out of

c)

oncotic, into

d)

oncotic, out of

127.

SATA: Select all of the human plasma products.

a)

blood

b)

fresh frozen plasma

c)

albumin

d)

hespan

128.

When fluid is trapped where it is difficult or impossible for it to move back into cells or blood vessels, this is called:

a)

first spacing

b)

second spacing

c)

third spacing

d)

fourth spacing

129.

What should the RN do IMMEDIATELY when they suspect their patient is suffering from hypokalemia?

a)

call a rapid response

b)

place the patient on pulse oximetry

c)

place the patient on telemetry

d)

place the patient on Q5min BP checks

130.

The nurse should ______ dilute IV KCl.

a)

always

b)

never

c)

sometimes

d)

maybe

131.

When KCl is running on an IV pump for a hypokalemic patient, the flow rate should NEVER EXCEED _________.

a)

10 mEq/hr

b)

5 mEq/hr

c)

1 mEq/hr

d)

8 mEq/hr

132.

KCl is NOT given unless there is urine output of at least _______ of body weight per hour, unless the deficiency is extremely severe.

a)

5 ml/kg

b)

1.5 ml/kg

c)

0.5 ml/kg

d)

3.5 ml/kg

133.

SATA: Which types of cancers can result in an excess of serum calcium?

a)

breast cancers

b)

lung cancers

c)

leukemia

d)

lymphomas

e)

prostate cancers

134.

When a patient has an excess or deficit of sodium, the RN should be MOST worried about:

a)

the heart

b)

the kidneys

c)

the liver

d)

the brain

135.

When a patient has an excess or deficit of potassium, the RN should be MOST worried about:

a)

the brain

b)

the lungs

c)

the liver

d)

the heart