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Advanced Corporate Finance Quiz

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes 'systematic risk' in capital budgeting?

a)

Risk unique to a firm

b)

Risk that can be diversified away

c)

Market-related risk affecting all firms

d)

Operational risk due to management decisions

2.

The certainty equivalent approach in project evaluation adjusts the project's cash flows to:

a)

Reflect inflation only

b)

Remove risk so they can be discounted at the risk-free rate

c)

Increase the discount rate

d)

Account for sunk costs

3.

Which technique is used to examine how the NPV changes when one variable is changed at a time?

a)

Sensitivity analysis

b)

Scenario analysis

c)

Simulation analysis

d)

Break-even analysis

4.

In decision tree analysis, a 'chance node' represents:

a)

A deterministic outcome

b)

A point where managerial choice is made

c)

A probabilistic event or uncertainty

d)

The final payoff

5.

Using a risk-adjusted discount rate for a risky project generally:

a)

Lowers the discount rate

b)

Raises the PV of future cash flows

c)

Uses the risk-free rate only

d)

Increases the discount rate to reflect risk

6.

Standard deviation as a measure of risk indicates:

a)

The average return

b)

The variability of possible outcomes around the mean

c)

The maximum possible loss

d)

The probability-weighted cash flow

7.

Which of the following statements about coefficient of variation (CV) is correct?

a)

CV = mean / standard deviation

b)

CV helps compare risk across projects with different expected returns

c)

CV is only used for normally distributed returns

d)

CV gives the absolute amount of risk

8.

Scenario analysis in capital budgeting typically involves:

a)

Changing one variable at a time

b)

Creating optimistic, pessimistic and most likely cases

c)

Using historical averages only

d)

Ignoring probabilities

9.

The main purpose of a sensitivity analysis is to:

a)

Provide exact future cash flows

b)

Identify which variables have the greatest impact on project viability

c)

Replace the need for probabilistic models

d)

Determine tax effects

10.

A project's NPV increases when the discount rate decreases because:

a)

Future cash flows are discounted less heavily

b)

Future cash flows become larger

c)

Taxes decrease

d)

Initial investment decreases

11.

Which of the following is NOT a source of risk in capital budgeting?

a)

Market demand uncertainty

b)

Exchange rate fluctuations

c)

Firm's current dividend policy

d)

Technological changes

12.

The use of Monte Carlo simulation in capital budgeting is primarily to:

a)

Generate a single-point estimate of NPV

b)

Model the distribution of possible project outcomes by simulating many scenarios

c)

Eliminate the need for discounting

d)

Compute historical returns

13.

According to Modigliani and Miller (without taxes), the value of a firm is:

a)

Higher with more debt

b)

Lower with more debt

c)

Independent of its capital structure

d)

Dependent on dividend policy

14.

The Net Operating Income (NOI) approach suggests that:

a)

WACC changes with capital structure

b)

Firm value is independent of capital structure

c)

Increasing debt will increase the firm's value

d)

Cost of equity remains constant

15.

The Net Income (NI) approach assumes that:

a)

Both cost of debt and cost of equity change with leverage

b)

WACC remains constant as leverage changes

c)

Increasing leverage always reduces WACC and increases firm value

d)

Taxes are the only determinant of capital structure

16.

The traditional approach to capital structure holds that:

a)

There is an optimal debt-equity mix that minimizes WACC

b)

Firm value is always maximized at zero debt

c)

Modigliani-Miller assumptions always hold

d)

Equity is always cheaper than debt

17.

Under MM with corporate taxes, the value of a levered firm compared to an unlevered firm is:

a)

The same

b)

Less by the PV of tax shield

c)

Greater by the PV of tax shield from debt interest

d)

Dependent only on market imperfections

18.

Which of the following will reduce WACC, all else equal?

a)

Increasing expected inflation

b)

Replacing expensive equity with relatively cheap debt when interest tax shields exist

c)

Reducing leverage to zero

d)

Increasing required return on equity

19.

Financial leverage primarily affects a firm's:

a)

Operating income

b)

Business risk

c)

Financial risk and EPS variability

d)

Product pricing strategy

20.

The cost of equity in the presence of debt is generally measured using:

a)

Risk-free rate only

b)

CAPM or other models that reflect equity risk and leverage

c)

Coupon rate of debt

d)

Book rate of return

21.

Which of the following is a key assumption in the Modigliani-Miller propositions?

a)

No taxes, no bankruptcy costs, and perfect capital markets

b)

Existence of transaction costs

c)

Firms can time the market perfectly

d)

Investors have different information

22.

In practical terms, a firm's target capital structure is often guided by:

a)

Historical book values only

b)

Trade-off between tax benefits of debt and bankruptcy costs

c)

MM theorem without taxes exclusively

d)

Random selection each year

23.

An increase in business risk (operating risk) will generally:

a)

Allow the firm to take on more financial leverage safely

b)

Reduce the firm's capacity to bear additional debt

c)

Not affect capital structure decisions

d)

Lower cost of debt

24.

When calculating WACC, market values should be used because:

a)

They are easier to find than book values

b)

They reflect current investor expectations and opportunity costs

c)

Book values always understate debt

d)

Tax records require market values

25.

According to Walter's model, the choice of dividend policy depends on:

a)

The firm's current share price only

b)

Relationship between internal rate of return (r) and cost of capital (k)

c)

Market interest rates only

d)

Liquidity ratios

26.

Gordon's (Bird-in-the-Hand) model suggests that:

a)

Investors prefer higher retained earnings over dividends

b)

Dividend growth is irrelevant to share valuation

c)

Higher dividends are preferred because they reduce uncertainty of returns

d)

Firms should never pay dividends

27.

MM's dividend irrelevance theory (without taxes) states that:

a)

Dividend policy affects firm value

b)

Dividend policy is irrelevant in perfect capital markets

c)

Investors cannot create homemade dividends

d)

Taxes make dividend decisions critical

28.

In Walter's model if r > k, the firm should:

a)

Retain earnings for internal investment

b)

Pay all earnings as dividends

c)

Neither retain nor distribute

d)

Issue new equity

29.

Gordon growth model requires which key assumption for valuation?

a)

Dividends grow at a constant rate forever

b)

Dividends are zero

c)

Returns are nonexistent

d)

Firm has no shareholders

30.

Which of the following is a limitation common to many dividend models?

a)

They perfectly capture shareholder preferences

b)

They often assume constant growth rates and ignore market imperfections

c)

They account for all taxes and transaction costs accurately

d)

They require no assumptions about future earnings

31.

'Residual dividend policy' implies that dividends are paid from:

a)

A fixed percentage of earnings every year

b)

Earnings left after financing all positive NPV investment opportunities

c)

New equity issuance only

d)

Debt restructuring proceeds

32.

A stock repurchase (buyback) compared to cash dividends typically:

a)

Reduces earnings per share immediately while increasing share count

b)

Is treated identically by all investors for tax purposes

c)

Reduces outstanding shares and can increase EPS if shares are retired

d)

Forces the firm to increase future dividends

33.

In presence of differential taxation (dividends taxed higher than capital gains), investors might:

a)

Prefer dividends always

b)

Prefer capital gains for tax efficiency

c)

Not care about tax differences

d)

Prefer neither

34.

Which model values a share as the present value of all expected future dividends?

a)

Free cash flow model

b)

CAPM

c)

Dividend discount model (DDM)

d)

Residual income model

35.

A firm's stable dividend policy is often chosen to:

a)

Maximize short-term EPS only

b)

Minimize share price volatility and signal stable earnings

c)

Ignore investor preferences

d)

Ensure no retained earnings

36.

Working capital is defined as:

a)

Total assets minus fixed assets

b)

Current assets minus current liabilities

c)

Long-term liabilities only

d)

Equity minus debt

37.

The operating cycle of a firm measures the time between:

a)

Purchase of raw materials and collection of cash from sales

b)

Issuance of shares and payment of dividends

c)

Purchase of machinery and its disposal

d)

Loan disbursal and repayment

38.

In estimating working capital using the operating cycle method, which components are crucial?

a)

Raw material holding period, work-in-progress period, finished goods period, receivables collection period, and payables period

b)

Only cash balances

c)

Long-term investments

d)

Dividend payout ratio

39.

A conservative working capital policy implies:

a)

Lower current asset levels and higher liquidity risk

b)

Higher levels of current assets and lower risk of stockouts

c)

No need for short-term financing

d)

Zero inventories

40.

Cash conversion cycle is computed as:

a)

Inventory period + Receivables period - Payables period

b)

Inventory period - Receivables period + Payables period

c)

Receivables period + Payables period

d)

Payables period - Inventory period

41.

Which of the following will reduce working capital requirement?

a)

Faster inventory turnover

b)

Longer receivables collection period

c)

Increased raw material holding period

d)

Higher finished goods inventory

42.

Collection float refers to:

a)

Time taken for goods to be manufactured

b)

Time between customer payment and when cash is available for use

c)

Time taken to convert cash into inventory

d)

Time needed to pay suppliers