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Unity Storage System Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is used by the Native SAN Copy Import data mobility feature?

a)

SAN Copy funning on VNX

b)

Common base Snapshots

c)

SAN Copy running on Unity

d)

Transparent Data Transfer

2.

What block size do Dell EMC Unity systems use to copy highly accessed blocks of data from spinning drives into FAST Cache?

a)

128 KB

b)

32 KB

c)

16 KB

d)

64 KB

3.

After installing a new Unity VSA, when do alerts concerning license expiration first occur?

a)

7 days prior to expiration

b)

15 days prior to expiration

c)

1 month prior to expiration

d)

2 months prior to expiration

4.

What is the granularity of FAST VP when relocating data in the pool?

a)

512 MB

b)

1024 MB

c)

256 MB

d)

128 MB

5.

What can be used by advanced users to create scripts for automating routine Unity tasks?

a)

Unisphere GUI

b)

Service CLI commands

c)

CloudIQ

d)

UEMCLI commands

6.

Which Unity feature benefits oracle OLTP environments by improving storage utilization?

a)

4 block formatting

b)

increased SP Cache size

c)

Automatic Storage tiering

d)

VVOLS

7.

What term refers to the link between a host initiator and a target port on a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system?

a)

Initiator Path

b)

Logical Path

c)

Physical Path

d)

Target Path

8.

When connecting hosts to a Unity storage array, which protocols are supported?

a)

FICON and iSCSIsss

b)

Fibre Channel and FCoE

c)

iSCSI and FCoE

d)

iSCSI and Fibre Channel

9.

Which Unity features use supported SAS Flash 2 drives to improve system performance?

a)

Compression and FAST Cache

b)

FAST Cache and FAST VP

c)

QoS and FAST VP

d)

QoS and Compression

10.

A storage administrator wants to create a series of daily snapshots for an existing critical LUN. How can the snapshots be created?

a)

Snapshot schedules can only be configured within the LUN Creation wizard

b)

From the Pool Properties page configure the Snapshot schedule

c)

only manually taken snapshots are supported on existing LUNs

d)

From the LUN Properties page, configure the Snapshot schedule

11.

Which disk format is recommended for Dell EMC Unity's OVA?

a)

Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed

b)

raw

c)

Thick Provision Eager Zeroed

d)

Thin Provision

12.

What is the correct sequence of steps taken by the storage array during the synchronous replication process? Match the steps to their correct order:

a)

Create destination resource and create write intent logs

1.

STEP 1

b)

Perform initial copy of source data to destination

2.

STEP 2

c)

Host writes to source then writes are replicated to destination

3.

STEP 3

d)

Destination acknowledges the write to the source

4.

STEP 4

e)

Source acknowledges the write to the host

5.

STEP 5

13.

Which Dell EMC Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the existing data intact?

a)

Restart the Management Software

b)

Reimage the Storage Processor

c)

Restart the Management Server

d)

Reinitialize the Storage System

14.

What is a consideration when designing a replication solution using the native Dell EMC Unity XT Replication feature?

a)

Asynchronous remote replication supports replication to only one remote Dell EMC Unity XT system

b)

Synchronous remote replication supports replication to only one remote Dell EMC Unity XT system

c)

Synchronous remote replication supports replication to up to two remote Dell EMC Unity XT systems

d)

Asynchronous remote replication supports replication to up to two remote Dell EMC Unity XT systems

15.

What is the significance of the best practices recommendation to maintain 10% free capacity on a storage pool?

a)

Provides enough space for drive failures

b)

Allows enough capacity for Snapshots

c)

Improves FAST Cache warmup times

d)

Reduces cache flush times

16.

What is the maximum number of SAS ports available on a Dell EMC Unity XT 680?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

17.

A storage administrator has set a soft quota of 20 GB and a hard quota of 25 GB on a die system. At what usage capacity will the administrator receive the first quota alert?

a)

17 GB

b)

18 GB

c)

20 GB

d)

22 GB

18.

What is a characteristic of the iSCSI interface on Dell EMC Unity storage arrays?

a)

Only one iSCSI interface can exist on a physical network port at a time.

b)

IQN aliases are automatically generated.

c)

A VLAN can only be assigned during the creation of the iSCSI interface.

d)

IQNs are associated with an iSCSI interface.

19.

A storage administrator has added multiple resources to a single density-based Host I/O Limit policy for the following storage resources: - LUN A: 100 GB - LUN B: 100 GB - LUN C: 600 GB - Density-Based Limit 10 IOPS What is the total IOPS set by this policy?

a)

80

b)

800

c)

810

d)

8,000

20.

Under what conditions should fully provisioned storage be recommended?

a)

Workloads requiring high throughput

b)

Storage objects subject to snapshots

c)

Storage objects subject to replication

d)

Workloads requiring high bandwidth

21.

Which UnityVSA storage resource can be configured with Host I/O limits?

a)

NAS Server

b)

Pool

c)

File System

d)

LUN

22.

Dell EMC Unity systems collect several metrics at various time intervals and use ESRS to send the information to CloudIQ. What are those metrics and their time intervals?

a)

Alerts = 5 min Performance = 5 min Capacity = 1 hr Configuration = 1 hr

b)

Alerts = 2 min Performance = 1 hr Capacity = 1 hour Configuration = 1 hr

c)

Alerts = 5 min Performance = 1 hr Capacity = 2 hour Configuration = 1 hr

d)

Alerts = 2 min Performance = 30 min Capacity = 1 hr Configuration = 1 hr

23.

A system administrator experienced a power failure in their environment. To which device will cache de-stage?

a)

2 SSD on each Storage Processor

b)

First four disks in the Disk Processor Enclosure

c)

Cache does not need to de-stage as it is now non-volatile

d)

Backup Battery Unit will keep the data alive in cache

24.

What is the maximum storage capacity supported by a Dell EMC UnityVSA with the Community Edition subscription?

a)

4 TB

b)

10 TB

c)

25 TB

d)

50 TB

25.

What describes multiple LUN snapshots?

a)

Captures multiple point-in-time data states. Snapshot data state is marked "unmodified" from its source when attached. Snapshot tree supports multiple simultaneous attaches.

b)

Captures multiple point-in-time data states. Snapshot data state is marked "unmodified" from its source when attached. Snapshot tree supports only one attach at a time.

c)

Captures multiple point-in-time data states. Snapshot data state is marked "modified" from its source when attached. Snapshot tree supports multiple simultaneous attaches.

d)

Captures multiple point-in-time data states. Snapshot data state is marked "modified" from its source when attached. Snapshot tree supports only one attach at a time.

26.

Which storage pool object is created for every RAID group in a traditional pool?

a)

Stripe Volume

b)

MetaLUN

c)

Pool Slice

d)

Private LUN

27.

A system administrator has deployed a Dell UnityVSA to their vSphere

environment. They did not add the management IP to the UnityVSA during the

installation.

What two actions can be taken to apply the management IP from the vSphere

console? (Select 2)

a)

- Use the svc_network command to apply the IP address.

b)

- Use the svc_inject command to apply the IP address.

c)

- Use the svc_initial_config command with the Connection Utility.

d)

- Use the svc_diag command with the Connection Utility.

e)

- Use the svc_initial_config command to apply the IP address.

28.

Which VVol object stores a copy of a VM's memory pages when the VM is powered on?

a)

Config

b)

Memory

c)

Swap

d)

Data

29.

What storage resources can be provisioned to a host that is connected to a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system via Fibre Channel?

a)

LUNs, CIFS shares, and Consistency Group LUNs

b)

VMFS datastores, NFS datastores, and VVol(file) datastores

c)

LUNs, Consistency Group LUNs, and NFS datastores

d)

Consistency Group LUNs, VMFS datastores, and VVol (block) datastores

30.

Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first storage pool?

a)

Create an ESXi host profile

b)

License the system for NFS and SMB support

c)

Add vDisks to the storage appliance

d)

Install license keys for thin provisioning

31.

A storage administrator is tasked with configuring a density-based Host I/O policy based on the following requirements: - Resource Size: 400 GB LUN - Density Limit: 15 IOPS What is the total IOPS set by this policy?

a)

4000

b)

6000

c)

6500

d)

8000

32.

In which CloudIQ proactive health score category is CPU utilization monitored?

a)

Capacity

b)

System Health

c)

Configuration

d)

Performance

33.

Which types of quota policies are used to calculate disk usage when implementing file system quotas?

a)

Disk capacity, block

b)

File size, disk capacity

c)

Block, inode

d)

File size, block

34.

What is an example of a NAS Server replication session grouped operation?

a)

Create

b)

Sync

c)

Resume

d)

Delete

35.

What can be used to initially configure a static management IPv6 address on a Dell EMC Unity array?

a)

symcli

b)

navisecCLI

c)

uemcli

d)

initCLI

36.

A storage administrator wants to configure a system to join the list of arrays remotely monitoring for activity and system status using Central. The security policy on the Unisphere server is set to "automatic". What additional security information must be specified in the Unispered Settings window to enable communication with Unisphere Central?

a)

Unisphere Central IP address and Central Hash

b)

Unisphere Central IP address and login credentials Hash

c)

Unisphere Central Hash and challenge phrase

d)

Unisphere Central Hash and login credentials

37.

What is one method that is used to verify an ESRS configuration?

a)

Proxy server authentication

b)

RSA authentication

c)

Trigger an SNMP trap test

d)

Send an e-mail verification

38.

A system administrator has installed the Units' Connection Unity on a Microsoft Windows host. The Windows host is connected to the same physical subnet as a newly installed Unity storage system. When the utility is run, it does not discover any Unity storage systems. What should be checked on the host that may be preventing the utility from discovering any Unity storage systems?

a)

Java SE version

b)

Ethernet adapter flow control

c)

Network Access Filter Driver

d)

Host firewall services

39.

What should be done prior to a Unity software upgrade to ensure that no underlying problems exist that may prevent a successful upgrade?

a)

Check for ETAs

b)

Perform a Health Check

c)

Check for FCOs

d)

Enable Service mode

40.

When a storage resource has a snapshot taken of it, where are writes to the storage resource written?

a)

New space allocated from the storage resource parent pool

b)

New space allocated in 256 MB stripes from FAST Cache

c)

Existing space of the storage resource

d)

Existing space from the Reserves LUN Pool

41.

What is a characteristic of host Fibre Channel initiators?

a)

Can only have one path to a Unity SP

b)

Must have a FCoE connection to the Unity target port

c)

Can be associated with multiple initiator paths

d)

Can only have a connection to one Unity SP front-end port

42.

What is the significance of Multi-Path software on a SAN host?

a)

Manages the connections between host and storage to maintain storage access if one of

the connections fails

b)

Allows data migrations to Unity by splitting host IOs from an original source array to a

target Unity array

c)

Provides the host access to both the source and destination storage resource when that

resource is replicated remotely

d)

Enables a host to access snapshot point-m-time data states to recover data without

administrative intervention

43.

When is it safe to swap a Storage Processor (SP) when performing a Data in Place upgrade?

a)

SP fault and power lights on both SPs are off Amber fault LEDs on both power supplies are off

b)

SP fault and power lights on both SPs are blinking at 1Hz Amber fault LEDs on both power supplies are lit

c)

SP fault and power lights on both SPs are off Amber fault LEDs on both power supplies are lit

d)

SP fault and power lights on both SPs are solid amber Amber fault LEDs on both power supplies are off

44.

Which Unity models allow for the addition of a 12 Gb/s SAS SLIC?

a)

Unity 300 and Unity 400

b)

Unity 400 and Unity 500

c)

Unity 400 and Unity 600

d)

Unity 500 and Unity 600

45.

A user has deployed an OVA template, leaving the System Name and both the IPv4 and IPv6 management settings blank on the Customize Template page. What can be used from a vSphere Console session to assign a static IPv4 address to the unconfigured UnityVSA management interface?

a)

svc_arrayconfig command

b)

InitCL

c)

exe tool

d)

Connection Utility

e)

svc_initial_config command

46.

What is the maximum number of file system snapshots that are supported by Unity?

a)

512

b)

256

c)

16

47.

Using the fan-out topology, what is the maximum number of sites a resource can be replicated to asynchronously?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

48.

How long before a license expires will UnityVSA send the first alert warning?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

15 days

d)

1 month

49.

On which storage objects is Unity compression supported?

a)

VMFS datastores and Wols

b)

Thick LUNs and Wols

c)

Thin LUNs and VMFS datastores

d)

Thin LUNs and Thick LUNs

50.

What is the minimum VMware Hypervisor version a server must be running in order to support the deployment of a UnityVSA system?

a)

4.0

b)

5.0

c)

5.5

d)

6.0

51.

Which feature is supported on a UnityVSA operating environment?

a)

Asynchronous Replication

b)

MCC Write Caching

c)

Quick Start Pool Provisioning

d)

Data at Rest Encryption