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Worksheets1st 9 Weeks Test LPSCS
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
How often should you check the batteries in your smoke detectors?
a)
Once a month
b)
Twice a year
c)
Every 2 years
d)
Once a year
2.
Which of the following statements about NIMS are correct? Select all that apply.
a)
NIMS is scalable, flexible, & adaptable for all incidents.
b)
NIMS is a resource ordering system & communications plan.
c)
NIMS is a set of concepts & principles for all threats.
d)
NIMS is used only during large-scale incidents.
3.
What are values?
a)
The physical characteristics of a person
b)
The financial worth of an object
c)
The beliefs of a person or social group in which they have an emotional investment
d)
The historical significance of an event
4.
Which of the following is NOT listed as an institution of social control ?
a)
The law
b)
Schools
c)
Healthcare
d)
The media
5.
What contact information should be in your cover letter?
a)
Email address, name
b)
Phone number, email, address, name
c)
Name, Address, Phone number
d)
Name, Email address
6.
When should you use an Objective in your resume?
a)
When you have extensive experience
b)
When you are looking for a job in the same field
c)
When you are applying for a managerial position
d)
When you are just starting out
7.
How should you send your resume electronically?
a)
Google Slides
b)
Word Document
c)
Canva Slide
d)
PDF
8.
Which type font should you not use on a resume?
a)
Times New Roman
b)
Cosmic Sans MS
c)
Arial
d)
Courier
9.
Which skill is related to enjoying talking and socializing?
a)
Athletic ability
b)
Organizastional skills
c)
Strong mathematical skills
d)
Exceptional interpersonal skills
10.
What is a cover letter?
a)
A letter that tells about your family life & experience
b)
A letter introducing yourself, qualities, & why you are applying
c)
A letter telling of your abilities
d)
A letter thanking the company to reading your resume
11.
True or False: A resume gets you the job you're applying for.
a)
True
b)
False
12.
What is a goal of obtaining a position according to the résumé objectives?
a)
To relax and take a break.
b)
To explore different cultures.
c)
To enhance skills and knowledge in a specific area.
d)
To make new friends.
13.
What is advised against when describing your education?
a)
Listing your favorite teacher
b)
Lying about or exaggerating your education
c)
Including your hobies
d)
Mentioning your grades
14.
What is an important characteristic of an email address used for business or job search?
a)
It should include emojis.
b)
It should be creative and unique.
c)
It must be professional.
d)
It must be used for personal communication.
15.
What should you avoid in your voicemail message according to the document?
a)
A short greeting
b)
A clear message
c)
Background music
d)
A professional tone
16.
What is the purpose of the "Objective or Statement of Interest" in a resume?
a)
To provide a clear and concise statement of your professional goal
b)
To describe your educational background
c)
To list your hobbies and interests
d)
To include your references
17.
What should you list first when detailing your education?
a)
Your first school
b)
Your most recent job
c)
Your highest level of education
d)
Your favorite subject
18.
What is a key characteristic of the most effective resume objective?
a)
It is personalized to the job you are applying for.
b)
It focuses solely on your past experiences.
c)
It is generic and can be used for any job.
d)
It lists all your skills without context.
19.
How should employment experience be listed on a resume?
a)
By job title length
b)
By salary amount
c)
In alphabetical order
d)
In reverse chronological order
20.
What size type should you use on a resume?
a)
14-16 point
b)
12-14 point
c)
10-12 point
d)
9-10 point
21.
How should employment experience be listed on a resume?
a)
It's one of the paragraphs in the body of the letter
b)
It's how you end your letter
c)
It's your signature
d)
It's the opening of your letter
22.
Which of the following is typically included in the employment record section of a resume?
a)
Personal references
b)
Hobbies and interests
c)
Companies and jobs
d)
Educational background
23.
What information about previous work experiences is important to include in a resume?
a)
Travel history
b)
Family members
c)
Favorite books
d)
Addresses and dates of employment
24.
What is a jurisdiction?
a)
A type of court
b)
A politically defined geographical area
c)
A type of legal system
d)
A method of law enforcement
25.
What is the role of a prosecutor after a suspect has been arrested and booked?
a)
To arrest the suspect
b)
To release the suspect immediately
c)
To defend the suspect in court
d)
To review the facts of the case and the available evidence
26.
Which charging document outlines the formal charge against a suspect?
a)
A subpoena
b)
A complaint
c)
An information
d)
A grand jury indictment
27.
What is a misdemeanor?
a)
A crime that cannot be punished by incarceration
b)
A less serious crime generally punishable by a fine or less than one year in jail
c)
A serious crime punishable by more than one year in prison
d)
A violation of federal law
28.
What is bail in the context of a preliminary hearing?
a)
A legal document for the suspect's release
b)
A form of community service
c)
A type of punishment for the suspect
d)
A monetary guarantee to ensure court appearance
29.
What percentage of criminal defendants plead guilty to the charges against them?
a)
50%
b)
70%
c)
90%
d)
100%
30.
What is a bench trial?
a)
A trial before a judge, without a jury
b)
A trial with multiple judges
c)
A trial before a jury
d)
A trial with no legal representation
31.
What is parole?
a)
The conditional release of prisoners before they have served their full sentences
b)
A mandatory release after serving a full sentence
c)
A type of punishment
d)
A reward for good behavior in prison
32.
Which task involves determining the best response in an emergency situation?
a)
Filing reports
b)
Conducting interviews
c)
Determining best response
d)
Writing citations
33.
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Fire Department?
a)
Fire prevention education
b)
Medical research
c)
Traffic control
d)
Urban planning
34.
What is the primary goal of the Emergency Medical System (EMS)?
a)
To provide long-term care
b)
To offer routine check-ups
c)
To conduct medical research
d)
To stabilize the patient & transport to the hospital
35.
What does "shrinkage" refer to in the context of asset protection?
a)
Inventory surplus
b)
Employee bonuses
c)
Increase in inventory
d)
Percentage loss of inventory
36.
Which of the following is a component of the Public Safety System?
a)
Healthcare
b)
Fire
c)
Transportation
d)
Education
37.
What is the most important function of criminal justice in the crime control model?
a)
Community service
b)
Rehabilitation of offenders
c)
Protection of individual rights
d)
Control of criminal behavior
38.
What is the due process model based on?
a)
Doctrine of legal guilt & presumption of innocence
b)
Doctrine of suspicion & accusation
c)
Doctrine of immediate guilt & punishment
d)
Doctrine of evidence & assuption of guilt
39.
Which of the following is not a type of hazardous material handled by the Fire Department?
a)
Chemical
b)
Electrical
c)
Biological
d)
Radiological
40.
What is an arrest warrant?
a)
A verbal order given by a police officer
b)
A document allowing someone to travel abroad
c)
A certificate of good conduct
d)
A written order directing law enforcement officers to arrest a person
41.
What is a complaint in the context of charging documents?
a)
A document that provides evidence for a trial.
b)
A written accusation by a grand jury that a person has committed a crime.
c)
A document specifying that an offense has been committed.
d)
A document that outlines the formal charge against a suspect.
42.
What is the definition of an arrest?
a)
The seizing and detaining of a person by lawful authority
b)
The act of charging someone with a crime
c)
The administrative recording of an arrest
d)
The process of taking fingerprints
43.
What are "Grass Eaters" according to the Knapp Commission?
a)
Officers who actively seek ways to make money illegally while on duty
b)
Officers who report corruption within their department
c)
Officers who refuse to accept any form of bribery
d)
Officers who occasionally engage in illegal and unethical activities
44.
What is ethics?
a)
Concern with the judgement of right or wrong, human action, & character.
b)
Principles of conduct dealing with what is right & wrong, and morally duty & obligation.
c)
Firm & incorruptible adherence to a code of moral values. Basically doing the right thing when no one is looking.
d)
The beliefs of a person or social group in which they have an emotional investment. You are either for or against something
45.
What does "Shakedown" mean in the context of police misconduct?
a)
Lying for other officers apprehended in illegal activity
b)
Taking small, inexpensive items from a crime scene
c)
Accepting free food, drinks, and admission to entertainment
d)
Taking items from the scene of a theft or burglary
46.
What is bribery?
a)
Accepting free food, drinks, & admission to entertainment
b)
Accepting cash or gifts in exchange for non-enforcement of the law.
c)
Giving breaks on law enforcement to family & friends
d)
Demanding discounts, free admission, & free food
47.
True or False: Morals is the firm & incorruptible adherence to a code of moral values. Basically doing the right thing when no one is looking.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
What distinguishes "Meat Eaters" from "Grass Eaters" in terms of corruption?
a)
Meat Eaters report illegal activities
b)
Meat Eaters ignore violations of the law
c)
Meat Eaters occasionally engage in unethical activities
d)
Meat Eaters actively seek ways to make money illegally
49.
What is extortion?
a)
Giving breaks on law enforcement to family & friends
b)
Demanding discounts, free admission, & free food.
c)
The threat of enforcement Y arrest if a bribe is not given.
d)
Accepting cash or gifts in exchange for non-enforcement.
50.
What can cause police to sometimes use excessive force?
a)
High crime rates in the area
b)
The use of any physical force by police
c)
A measure of coercion beyond that necessary to control participants in a conflict
d)
A standard procedure in all arrests
51.
Why is uniform enforcement of the law important in reducing police corruption?
a)
It reduces the number of laws officers must follow
b)
It ensures all officers receive the same salary
c)
It prevents selective enforcement and bias
d)
It allows for more flexible law interpretation
52.
The NIMS guiding principle of ____ facilitates interoperability among organizations in incident response.
a)
Flexibility
b)
Standardization
c)
Unity of Effort
d)
Planned Events
53.
Leadership roles, processes, & recommended organizational sructures for incident management at the operation & incidentn support levels and how these structures interact to manage incidents effectively & efficiently.
a)
Communications and Information
b)
Command and Coordination
c)
Resource Management
54.
Standard mechanisms to identify resource requirements and to order, acquire, mobilize, activate, track & report, demobilize, reimburse for, and inventory resources such as personnel, euqipment,teams, and facilities.
a)
Communications and Information
b)
Command and Coordination
c)
Resource Management
55.
Systems to ensure that decision makers, incident managers, & incident personnel have the informationneeded to make & implement decisions
a)
Communications and Information
b)
Command and Coordination
c)
Resource Management
56.
Which of the following resource management key activities defines and categorizes incident resources by capability?
a)
Qualifying, Certifying, and Credentialing Personnel
b)
Planning for Resources
c)
Acquiring, Storing, and Inventorying Resources
d)
Identifying and Typing Resources
57.
Which of the following take place within the Track and Report stage of the resource management process? Select all that apply.
a)
Protects the safety and security of personnel and resources
b)
Enables resource coordination and movement
c)
Estimates date and time of arrival
d)
Helps staff prepare to receive and use resources
58.
The orderly, safe, and efficient return of a resource to its original location and status" is the goal of which of the following?
a)
Order and Acquire
b)
Demobilize
c)
Track and Report
d)
Mobilize
59.
The role of the receiving jurisdiction for mutual aid includes which of the following?
a)
Arranging for deployment of resources.
b)
Determining whether exchange is within the mutual aid agreement.
c)
Declining resources that do not meet needs.
d)
Evaluating the mutual aid request against capacity.
60.
Which of the following NIMS Management Characteristics allow units from diverse agencies to connect, share information, and achieve situational awareness?
a)
Integrated Communications
b)
Common Terminology
c)
Unified Command
d)
Incident Facilities and Locations
61.
Typical designated ____________ include Incident Command Post (ICP), incident base, staging areas, camps, mass casualty triage areas, points-of-distribution, and emergency shelters.
a)
Management by Objectives
b)
Comprehensive Resource Management
c)
Incident Facilities and Locations
d)
Incident Action Planning
62.
Which of the following is associated with multijurisdictional or multiagency incident management?
a)
Incident Commander
b)
Unified Command
c)
Area Command
d)
Agency Command
63.
Which of the following statements are accurate about an Area Command? Select all that apply.
a)
Area Commands are frequently established as Unified Area Commands and use the same principles as a Unified Command.
b)
An Area Command is generally activated during all incidents and is solely based on the complexity of the incident.
c)
An Area Command organization oversees the management of multiple incidents or a very large or evolving situation.
d)
Area Command is particularly relevant to situations with several Incident Command Posts (ICPs) requesting similar, scarce resources.
64.
Which Emergency Operations Center (EOC) structure may reflect an organization that focuses efforts on information, planning, and resource support?
a)
Incident Support Model (ISM)
b)
ICS or ICS-like EOC Structure
c)
Area Command EOC Structure
d)
Departmental EOC Structure
65.
Match the following descriptions to their Activation Level. Activities that are normal for the EOC when no incident or specific risk or hazard has been identified; routine watch and warning activities.
a)
Enhanced Steady-State/Patrial Activation
b)
Full Activation
c)
Normal Activation/Steady State
66.
Match the following descriptions to their Activation Level. Certain EOC team members/organizations are activated to monitor a credible threat, risk, or hazard and/or to support the response to a new and potentially evolving incident.
a)
Enhanced Steady-State/Patrial Activation
b)
Full Activation
c)
Normal Activation/Steady State
67.
Match the following descriptions to their Activation Level. EOC team is activated, including personnel from all assisting agencies, to support the response to a major incident or credible threat.
a)
Enhanced Steady-State/Patrial Activation
b)
Full Activation
c)
Normal Activation/Steady State
68.
Which of the following statements are correct about MAC Groups? Select all that apply.
a)
During incidents, MAC Groups make cooperative multiagency decisions.
b)
During incidents, MAC Groups impede decision making among elected officials.
c)
During incidents, MAC Groups support resource prioritization and allocation.
d)
During incidents, MAC Groups act as a policy-level body.
69.
Which of the following are supporting elements of the JIS? Select all that apply.
a)
Public Information Officer
b)
Emergency Operations Centers
c)
Incident Commander
d)
Joint Information Center
70.
When an incident occurs, local emergency personnel manage response using which of the following?
a)
EOC
b)
MAC Groups
c)
JIC
d)
ICS
71.
Which of the following statements is accurate about a Joint Information Center (JIC)?
a)
Provides high-level, strategic policy guidance to operations/coordination centers.
b)
Manages Joint Information System (JIS) operations to ensure coordination and public messaging is occurring among all levels.
c)
Activates and organizes local EOCs.
d)
Manages local emergency personnel when incidents occur or threaten to occur
72.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. Can effectively be transported, deployed, and integrated to enable support of incidents across jurisdictions.
a)
Portable
b)
Reliable
c)
Redundant
d)
Interoperable
e)
Scaleable
73.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. When primary communication methods fail, duplicate systems enable continuity through alternate communication methods.
a)
Redundant
b)
Reliable
c)
Portable
d)
Interoperable
e)
Scaleable
74.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. Familiar to users, adaptable to new technology, and dependable in any situation.
a)
Reliable
b)
Portable
c)
Redundant
d)
Interoperable
e)
Scaleable
75.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. Systems can withstand and continue to perform after damage or loss of infrastructure.
a)
Resilient
b)
Reliable
c)
Portable
d)
Redundant
e)
Interoperable
76.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. The capacity for emergency management and response personnel to interact and work well together.
a)
Interoperable
b)
Reliable
c)
Portable
d)
Redundant
e)
Scaleable
77.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. Expand to support situations, from small to large scale, and support the rapid increase in the number of system users.
a)
Scaleable
b)
Reliable
c)
Portable
d)
Redundant
e)
Interoperable
78.
Match each communications and information systems characteristic to its definition. Access to sensitive or restricted information is controlled.
a)
Secure
b)
Reliable
c)
Portable
d)
Redundant
e)
Interoperable
79.
Which of the following are Strategic Communications?
a)
Communications between on-scene command and tactical personnel and cooperating agencies and organizations.
b)
High-level directions, resource priority decisions, roles and responsibilities determinations, and incident management courses of action.
c)
Coordination of support of strategic and tactical communications.
d)
Emergency alerts and warnings; press conferences.
80.
When collecting data, personnel should do which of the following? Select all that apply.
a)
Follow data collection techniques and standards
b)
Recycle assessments from data
c)
Conduct analysis of data
d)
Delete transmissions of data from certain channels
81.
Which of the following statements describes Data Interoperability?
a)
The use of common terminology helps incident management personnel communicate and coordinate.
b)
Common communications protocols enable the dissemination of information among all incident management elements.
c)
Personnel should use plain language and clear text; avoid using organizational acronyms or jargon such as “10-codes” during incidents involving multiple organizations.
82.
What are the three components of the Fire Triangle?
a)
Fuel, Water, Light
b)
Water, Fuel, Heat
c)
Oxygen, Water, Heat
d)
Oxygen, Fuel, Heat
83.
Which class of fire involves ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, plastics, and cloth?
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
84.
Which type of burn is caused by a chemical substance touching the skin?
a)
Thermal
b)
Electrical
c)
Chemical
d)
Friction
85.
What is the purpose of confining the fire according to the RACE procedure?
a)
To allow more oxygen to reach the fire
b)
To prevent the fire from spreading
c)
To make it easier to see the fire
d)
To increase the temperature
86.
In the PASS method, where should you aim the nozzle of the fire extinguisher?
a)
At the top of the flames
b)
At the base of the flames
c)
Above the fire
d)
Away from the fire
87.
What are the two major concerns with burn injuries?
a)
Scarring & itching
b)
Pain & swelling
c)
Infection & shock
d)
Bleeding & bruising
88.
What is the number one cause of burns to children?
a)
Fire
b)
Sunburn
c)
Scalds
d)
Electrical burns
89.
How does a working smoke alarm affect a person's chance of surviving a fire?
a)
It triples the chance of survival
b)
It doubles the chance of survival
c)
It has no effect on survival
d)
It reduces the chance of survival
90.
Which class of fire involves metals such as magnesium, titanium, and sodium?
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
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