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9. Airbus A400M Power Plant Lv 2 & 3

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The APU air intake flap is moved by:

a)

An oil hydraulic actuator

b)

An electromechanical actuator

c)

A pneumatic actuator

d)

A fuel hydraulic actuator

2.

What is the normal indication when APU air intake flap is fully open?

a)

AVAIL on Master Switch

b)

FLAP MOVING on Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

c)

FLAP OPEN on System Display (SD)

d)

AVAIL on System Display (SD)

3.

What is the indication if the APU air intake flap does not open?

a)

FLAP CLOSE on System Display (SD)

b)

FLAP MOVING flashing on Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

c)

APU FAULT on START Switch

d)

APU FAULT on Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

4.

When are the Inlet Guide Vanes (IGV) open?

a)

During the start

b)

During the shutdown

c)

When the APU Bleed Pushbutton is pressed

d)

When the Master switch is pressed

5.

During normal shutdown with APU BLEED ON, the APU goes into a cool down period of:

a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

4 minutes

6.

After three consecutive APU start attempts, it is required a cooling period of:

a)

20 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

40 minutes

d)

60 minutes

7.

Which one of the following events commands an automatic Protective Shutdown?

a)

APU speed at 101%

b)

APU Fire detection on ground

c)

Low oil level

d)

Low fuel temperature

8.

What is the oil quantity of the APU oil tank at FULL mark?

a)

5.72 liters (6 QT)

b)

7.60 liters (8 QT)

c)

8.60 liters (9 QT)

d)

12 liters (12.6 QT)

9.

Which one of the following nacelle outlets has a flap door?

a)

The Variable Frequency Generator Air Cooled Oil Cooler (VFG ACOC) outlet

b)

The Pneumatic System Precooler outlet

c)

The Engine Air Cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC) outlet

d)

The Exhaust outlet

10.

The engine pylon boxes are made of:

a)

Aluminium

b)

Stainless Steel

c)

Titanium

d)

Bronze

11.

Which one is a Quick Engine Change (QEC) component for Power Plant Build-Up?

a)

Variable Frequency Generator (VFG)

b)

Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

c)

Combustion Chamber

d)

Oil Tank

12.

In case of shaft break condition, what fuel valve is opened to shut down the engine?

a)

The overspeed valve

b)

The pressure relief valve

c)

The fuel filter bypass valve

d)

The fuel metering valve

13.

The Main Fuel Pump (MFP) of the Engine Fuel System:

a)

Is a single stage pump that pressurizes the fuel coming from the tanks before entering the Fuel Metering Unit

b)

Is driven by a pinion of the Power Gear Box (PGB)

c)

Consists of two pumps, LP (Low Pressure) and HP (High Pressure) located in the same housing.

d)

Is driven by a hydraulic turbine receiving hydraulic pressure from both blue and yellow systems.

14.

What is the differential pressure at which the bypass valve of the Main Fuel Filter will open?

a)

Right above 43.5 psi.

b)

There is no bypass valve. The fuel is always forced through the filter by increasing the pressure delivered by the pump.

c)

Right above 14.5 psi.

d)

The bypass valve is always open provided the differential pressure is below 43.5 psi.

15.

How is the Variable Stator Vanes (VSV) actuator operated?

a)

Pneumatically

b)

Electrically

c)

By fuel pressure

d)

By oil pressure.

16.

How are the bearing chambers sealed?

a)

By compressors air pressure

b)

By ram air

c)

By fuel pressure

d)

By water pressure.

17.

How is the Inertial Particle Separator (IPS) flap actuated?

a)

Electrically by 115 VAC

b)

Electrically by 28 VDC

c)

Hydraulically by fuel pressure.

d)

Pneumatically

18.

How is the Engine Anti-ice Valve actuated?

a)

Electrically by 115 VAC

b)

By oil pressure

c)

By fuel pressure

d)

Pneumatically

19.

The turbomachinery oil pump consists of:

a)

3 feed pumps and 3 scavenge pumps

b)

4 feed pumps and 6 scavenge pumps

c)

2 feed pumps and 8 scavenge pumps

d)

3 feed pumps and 6 scavenge pumps

20.

After three consecutive APU start attempts, it is required a cooling period of:

a)

20 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

40 minutes

d)

60 minutes

21.

What is the normal propeller speed (NP) in flight (cruise phase)?

a)

195 rpm

b)

655 rpm

c)

730 rpm

d)

860 rpm

22.

Which one of the following power rating pushbuttons is used to reduce the propeller speed in flight?

a)

Low Noise Cruise (LNC)

b)

Maximum Continuous (MCT)

c)

Military Operation (MIL OP)

d)

Low Flight Idle (LFI)

23.

What computer provides the propeller overspeed protection?

a)

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

b)

Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU)

c)

Handling Bleed Valves Control Unit (HBCU)

d)

Autothrust Synchronization Control Unit (ASCU)

24.

Where is the oil transfer tube located?

a)

Inside the Power Gearbox (PGB)

b)

Inside the pitch change actuator

c)

Inside the hub

d)

Inside the Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

25.

How is the propeller main pump operated?

a)

It is mechanically driven by the Power Gearbox (PGB)

b)

It is electrically driven by a 115 VAC motor

c)

It is electrically driven by a 28 VDC motor

d)

It is mechanically driven by the Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

26.

How many propeller sensors are there?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

6

d)

4

27.

What computer provides the autofeather protection?

a)

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

b)

Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU)

c)

Handling Bleed Valves Control Unit (HBCU)

d)

Autothrust Synchronization Control Unit (ASCU)

28.

What propeller is the master for propeller synchrophasing?

a)

Propeller 1

b)

Propeller 2

c)

Propeller 3

d)

Propeller 4

29.

Which of the following is a function of the Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU)?

a)

Engine power control

b)

Compressor airflow control

c)

Engine vibration monitoring

d)

Engine oil cooling

30.

When is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) permanently connected?

a)

When the aircraft is in flight

b)

When the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton is pressed

c)

Setting the ENG START rotary selector to NORM position

d)

When the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pressed

31.

How long is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) connected with 115 V on aircraft power up?

a)

For 2 minutes

b)

For 5 minutes

c)

For 30 minutes

d)

For 60 minutes.

32.

How is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) permanently connected with 115 V?

a)

Setting the Engine Master Lever to FEATHER position

b)

When the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton is pressed

c)

Setting the ENG START rotary selector to NORM position

d)

When the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pressed.

33.

The throttle control levers consist of a stop with a lift gate in the following position:

a)

Max REV

b)

Ground Idle (GI)

c)

Flight Idle (FI)

d)

Maximum Climb (MCL).

34.

The throttle control levers position angle is measured by:

a)

Resolvers

b)

Locking solenoids

c)

Autothrust Synchronization Control Unit (ASCU)

d)

Artificial Friction Feel Motors.

35.

The Throttle Transducer Unit (TTU) potentiometers send electrical signals to:

a)

The three PRIM (Primary) Flight Control Computers.

b)

The three PRIM (Primary) Flight Control Computers and the BCM (Back-up Control Module).

c)

The Electronic Control Unit (ECU).

d)

The Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU).

36.

Where is the speed sensor NH located?

a)

On the left hand side of the Power Gearbox (PGB)

b)

On the central torque tube

c)

On the right hand side of the Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

d)

On the left hand side of the intermediate casing

37.

Which sensors provide signals for shaft break protection?

a)

Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) Thermocouples

 

b)

Intermediate Pressure Turbine Backing Sensors (IPTBS)

c)

Propeller sensors

d)

Vibration sensors

38.

What will occur if the Shaft break protection is applied?

a)

The propeller pitch will  decrease to reduce the loads

b)

The engine will be shutdown and the propeller will feather

c)

The autothrust system will be connected automatically

d)

The pitchlock system will be connected automatlcallv

39.

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

a)

The engine ignition  exciter receives 28 VDC from  the Engine  Protection and  Monitoring Unit (EPMU).

b)

The engine ignition exciter is supplied from the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA).

c)

The engine ignition exciter converts 28 VDC to 115 VAC.

d)

The engine ignition exciter receives 115 VAC. through the Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU).

40.

Which lgniters are selected during an automatic start in flight?

a)

Igniter A only

b)

Igniter B only

c)

Both lgniters, A and B

d)

One only, A or B.

41.

Which one of the following failures provides an engine START FAULT alert?

a)

EGT Overlimit

b)

Engine oil pressure low

c)

Propeller high vibration

d)

Engine oil magnetic chip detected.

42.

During an automatic start on ground, the starter air valve will close at:

a)

N3 = 25%

b)

N3 = 35%

c)

N3 = 50%

d)

N3 = 60%

43.

During a wet crank, the ignition is disconnected at:

a)

N3 = 25%

b)

N3 = 35%

c)

N3 = 50%

d)

Ignition is already OFF.

44.

Which one of the following sentences is correct regarding the Air Turbine Starter (ATS)?

a)

The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) has a sight glass to see the oil level.

b)

The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) oil is refilled by gravity through a filler cap.

c)

The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) oil is filled through a magnetic chip detector port with a syringe.

d)

The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) has an oil level sensor to provide indication on System Display (SD).

45.

How many APU fuel nozzles provide fuel to the combustion chamber?

a)

3 pilot and 6 main nozzles

b)

2 pilot and 4 main nozzles

c)

6 pilot and 3 main nozzles

d)

3 pilot and 3 main nozzles

46.

Which APU component will supply bleed air to the pneumatic system?

a)

Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

b)

Load Compressor

c)

Power Compressor

d)

Turbine

47.

What device provides the feedback position of the Inlet Guide Vane (IGV) actuator to the Electronic Control Box (ECB)?

a)

A Linear Variable Differential Transducer (LVDT)

b)

Position Switch

c)

A differential pressure switch

d)

Resolvers

48.

In case of APU generator oil overtemperature condition, what will happen?

a)

The APU will be shutdown

b)

The fire extinguishing bottle will be discharged

c)

The bleed control valve will open

d)

Inlet guide vanes (IGV) will open

49.

During APU start, the starter and starter motor will be de-energized when the speed reaches:

a)

42%

b)

55%

c)

15%

d)

95%

50.

During the start, when is the AVAIL indication displayed?

a)

At 55% speed

b)

At 75% speed + 2 seconds

c)

At 95% speed + 2 seconds

d)

As long as the FLAP is fully open

51.

Which one of the following events commands an automatic Protective Shutdown?

a)

APU compartment overpressure

b)

APU Fire detection in flight

c)

Bleed Control Valve not open

d)

Overtemperature

52.

The APU oil sump draining procedure is performed through:

a)

The magnetic chip detector port

b)

The oil cooler outlet

c)

The oil supply filter

d)

The oil filler cap

53.

Where is the Inertial Particle Separator (IPS) flap located?

a)

On the right hand side of the nacelle

b)

On the top of the nacelle

c)

On the left hand side of the nacelle

d)

On the bottom of the nacelle

54.

How many rotating shafts are there in the turbomachinery?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

55.

If the Engine Access Door Hold Open Rods (HOR) are locked in open position, what indication is shown?

a)

A LOCKED indication is shown on System Display (SD)

b)

An AVAIL indication is shown on Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

c)

An OPEN label appears on the lock

d)

A green band appears on the lock.

56.

What is the meaning of the indication "FF" on engine page of System Display (SD)?

a)

Filter Fault

b)

Fuel Flow

c)

Fuel Full

d)

Flap Failure

57.

How is cavitation prevented in the operation of the Main Fuel Pump (MFP)?

a)

By design: MFP is a single centrifugal pump which can never be susceptible to cavitation.

b)

By pressurizing the fuel tanks with nitrogen.

c)

By installing the MFP at the bottom of the fuel tanks.

d)

By using a first pump, LP (Low Pressure), to supply fuel to a second pump, HP (High Pressure).

58.

Which of the following components is the Fuel Metering Unit (FMU) electrically NOT connected to?

a)

Electronic Control Unit (ECU).

b)

Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU).

c)

Engine Master Lever (EML).

d)

High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV).

59.

Which stage of the High Pressure Compressor (HPC) is used to open the Handling Bleed Valves (HBV)?

a)

Stage 3

b)

Stage 4

c)

Stage 5

d)

Stage 6

60.

How many Handling Bleed Control Units (HBCU) are there?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

61.

The engine Air Cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC) ejector receives air from:

a)

High Pressure Compressor (HPC) Stage 3

b)

Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC) Stage 4

c)

Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC) Stage 5

d)

High Pressure Compressor (HPC) Stage 6

62.

The Inertial Particle Separator (IPS) flap is closed in the following condition:

a)

Landing

b)

Take Off

c)

Ground Operations

d)

Engine Master Lever at OFF

63.

Which one of the following sentences about the engine oil is correct?

a)

The Auxiliary Tank has a sight glass level indicator

b)

The Power Gearbox (PGB) sump incorporates an oil level sensor

c)

The oil tank incorporates an oil level sensor

d)

The Accessory Gearbox (AGB) has a sight glass level indicator

64.

What is the maximum quantity of the engine oil in the oil system?

a)

50 liters

b)

65 liters

c)

72 liters

d)

90 liters

65.

Which one is used to control the feather valve of the Propeller Control Module (PCM)?

a)

Engine Master Lever

b)

Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU)

c)

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

d)

Autothrust Synchronization Control Unit (ASCU)

66.

What is the minimum pitch in flight?

a)

1 degrees

b)

-4 degrees

c)

16 degrees

d)

30 degrees

67.

What is the normal propeller speed (NP) during normal take-off?

a)

195 rpm

b)

655 rpm

c)

730 rpm

d)

842 rpm

68.

What is the maximum pitch in BETA mode?

a)

1 degrees

b)

-4 degrees

c)

16 degrees

d)

83 degrees

69.

How is the propeller auxiliary pump operated?

a)

It is mechanically driven by the Power Gearbox (PGB)

b)

It is electrically driven by a 115 VAC motor

c)

It is electrically driven by a 28 VDC motor

d)

It is mechanically driven by the Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

70.

What is the function of the propeller sensors?

a)

To measure the propeller speed (NP) and pitch

b)

To measure the torque (TQ) and Power (PWR)

c)

To measure the compressors speeds (NI) and  (NH)

d)

To measure the speed of the low pressure turbine (NL) and torque (TQ)

71.

When is the autofeather protection at high power mode required?

a)

For Landing phase

b)

For Take Off phase

c)

For Cruise phase

d)

For Taxi phase

72.

Which is the propeller posltlon for propeller removal task?

a)

 Feather

b)

Flight Idle

c)

Full Reverse

d)

Any position

73.

Which communication bus is used to share data between ECUs for propeller synchrophasing?

a)

ARINC 429  bus

b)

CAN bus

c)

AFDX bus

d)

RS 485 bus

74.

When  is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) permanently connected with 115 V?

a)

When the aircraft is on jacks

b)

When the FADEC GND  PWR pushbutton is pressed

c)

Setting the ENG START rotary selector to NORM position

d)

When the Engine Master Lever is set at OFF

75.

How is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC} permanently connected with 115 V?

a)

When aircraft power up

b)

When the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton is pressed

c)

Setting the ENG START rotary selector to CRANK position

d)

When the ENG F.IRE pushbutton is pressed.

76.

How is the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) connected with 115 V for 5 minutes only?

a)

Setting the Engine Master Lever to RUN position

b)

When the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton is pressed

c)

Setting the ENG START rotary selector to IGN/START position

d)

When the ENG  FIRE pushbutton is pressed.

77.

What is the function of the throttle levers locking solenoids?

a)

To provide a variable detent for autothrust

b)

To prevent the throttle levers from being retarded below ground  idle in flight  

c)

To lock the rotation of the propeller after shutdown

d)

To lock the pitch change actuator in case of pressure loss.

78.

In beta mode, how is the pitch demand calculated for the actual TLA (Throttle Lever Angle)?  

a)

By linear interpolation between Flight Idle (Fl) and TOGA (Take Off and Go Around)  pitches.

b)

By linear interpolation between Flight Idle (Fl) and MCL (Maximum Climb) pitches.

c)

In beta mode, the propeller blade pitch is always fixed to 10 degrees.

d)

By linear interpolation between Ground Idle (GI) and Flight Idle (Fl) pitches.

 

79.

How is the power demand calculated when the EML (Engine Master Lever) is set to FEATHER position?

a)

By linear interpolation between Ground Idle (GI) and Flight Idle (Fl) power

b)

By linear interpolation between Maximum  Reverse (MAX REV) power and Ground Idle (GI) power

c)

By linear interpolation between Flight Idle (Fl) and Maximum Climb (MCL) power

d)

In FEATHER position the rated power is always zero.

80.

Which of the following parameters is not required to calculate the rated power for the throttle lever detents?

a)

Air data

b)

Engine limitations

c)

Aircraft weight

d)

Bleeds in operation

81.

Which sensors supply signals to show the Engine Power indication?

a)

Propeller sensors

b)

NH  sensors

c)

Fuel Flow meters

d)

Torque Sensors

82.

Which sensors supply signals to show the indication of the intermediate pressure shaft speed (N2) and overspeed protection?

a)

NL sensors

b)

NH sensors

c)

NI sensors

d)

Torque Sensors

83.

What computer provides the Thrust Control Malfunction (TCM) protection?

a)

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

b)

Handling Bleed Control  Unit (HBCU)

c)

Autothrust Synchronization Control  Unit (ASCU)

d)

Engine Protection and  Monitoring Unit (EPMU)

84.

Which igniters are selected during a manual start on ground?

a)

Igniter A only

b)

Igniter B only

c)

Both lgniters, A and B

d)

One only, A or B

85.

What Is the normal indication after an engine successful start?

a)

ON light on Engine Master Lever

b)

AVAIL message on the Power indication

c)

RUN message on Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

d)

OPEN message In the Starter Air Valve indication.

86.

What Is the sequence to perform an automatic start in flight?

a)

Engine Start Rotary Selector at CRANK and Engine Master Lever at RUN

b)

Engine Start Rotary Selector at NORM and Engine Manual Start pushbutton set to ON

c)

Engine Start Rotary Selector at IGN/START and Engine Master Lever at FTHR

d)

Engine Start Rotary Selector at NORM and Engine Master Lever at RUN

87.

What should the position of the engine throttle levers be before engine shutdown on ground?

a)

GI (Ground Idle)

b)

Fl (Flight Idle)

c)

Maximum  Climb (MCL)

d)

Maximum  Reverse.

88.

In cold weather conditions, how does the Starter Air Valve manually unlock?

a)

Turning towards open no more than 30 degrees

b)

Turning to fully open position

c)

Turning towards open until a visual green indication is shown

d)

Turning towards open until N3 reaches 50%