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Exam 2 (Peds) Part 1

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pain scale is used for neonates?

a)

FLACC

b)

FACES/VAS

c)

NIPS

d)

Numeric scale

2.

For children aged 2 months to 7 years, which pain scale is appropriate?

a)

NIPS

b)

FLACC

c)

FACES/VAS

d)

Numeric scale

3.

What is the drug of choice if a child requires opiates?

a)

Morphine

b)

Oxycodone

c)

Ketorolac

d)

Hydromorphone

4.

Children who weigh more than 50 lbs should be given ______ doses.

a)

adult

b)

child

c)

reduced

d)

half

5.

Which of the following is the most common pediatric infection?

a)

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

b)

Influenza

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Tuberculosis

6.

RSV/Respiratory Syncytial Virus is most common in children of which age group?

a)

0-2 months

b)

2-12 months

c)

1-5 years

d)

5-10 years

7.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of RSV/bronchiolitis?

a)

Persistent dry hacking cough

b)

Labored breathing and retractions

c)

Rash, erythema and systemic pruritis

d)

Tachypnea, wheezing, nasal flaring

8.

What is the diagnosis method for RSV/bronchiolitis mentioned in the study guide?

a)

Positive nasal washing

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Blood culture

d)

Urine analysis

9.

For premature infants, Synagis (palivizumab) is recommended for those who are less than how many weeks gestation and how many months old or younger at RSV season?

a)

Less than 35 weeks gestation and 6 months old or younger

b)

Less than 32 weeks gestation and 12 months old or younger

c)

Less than 28 weeks gestation and 3 months old or younger

d)

Less than 37 weeks gestation and 9 months old or younger

10.

Nirsevimab/Beyfortus is an immunization recommended for all infants younger than 8 months of age who are born during, or are entering, their first RSV season.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Most infants younger than 8 months do not need RSV vaccine if they were born 14 or more days after their mother got RSV vaccine.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

RSV vaccine is also recommended for some children 8 through 19 months who are at increased risk for RSV and are entering their second RSV season.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Influenza?

a)

Dry cough

b)

Sudden onset

c)

Fever

d)

Rash

14.

What is the recommended vaccine schedule for Influenza after age 6 months?

a)

annually

b)

every 2 years

c)

every 5 years

d)

second vaccine at age 11 years old

15.

Which of the following is NOT an upper airway issue in kids?

a)

Croup

b)

Epiglottitis

c)

Asthma

d)

Foreign body

e)

Anaphylaxis

16.

Croup is also known as:

a)

Bronchiolitis

b)

Laryngotracheobronchitis

c)

Pharyngitis

d)

Tonsillitis

17.

What is the typical age range for children affected by croup?

a)

6 months to 3 years old

b)

3 years to 6 years old

c)

Newborn to 6 months old

d)

6 years to 12 years old

18.

Croup affects girls more than boys.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which of the following is a classic symptom of croup?

a)

Barky cough

b)

Productive cough

c)

Wheezing

d)

Chest pain

20.

Fill in the blank: X-ray of neck soft tissue in croup may show '______ sign'.

a)

steeple

b)

thumb

c)

boot

d)

double bubble

21.

Which medication is the treatment for croup stridor?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Racemic epinephrine

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

22.

Albuterol will make croup stridor worse.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Epiglottitis is a ________ cause of upper airway obstruction.

a)

bacterial

b)

viral

c)

fungal

d)

allergic

24.

Epiglottitis is considered a MEDICAL EMERGENCY.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Epiglottitis usually affects children of which age group?

a)

0-2 years

b)

2-5 years

c)

6-10 years

d)

10-15 years

26.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom/sign (S/S) of epiglottitis?

a)

Absence of spontaneous cough

b)

Drooling, "muffled" sounding

c)

Agitation, restlessness

d)

Paroxysmal, productive cough

27.

Tripod position, fever, and toxic appearance are associated with which condition?

a)

Epiglottitis

b)

Croup

c)

Asthma

d)

Bronchiolitis

28.

When treating epiglottitis, should you visualize the throat with a tongue blade?

a)

Yes

b)

No

29.

Which vaccine protects against epiglottitis?

a)

HIB vaccine

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

MMR vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

30.

Foreign body aspiration is characterized by the absence of ________ or drooling.

a)

cough

b)

fever

c)

rash

d)

vomiting

31.

What is the recommended treatment for foreign body aspiration?

a)

Antibiotics, antihistamines

b)

Back blows, heimlich

c)

Humidified O2

d)

Corticosteroids, glucocorticoids

32.

The RN should try to retrieve an object from the mouth in case of foreign body aspiration.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

If the right upper lobe is affected in Pediatric Pneumonia, what should be considered?

a)

aspiration

b)

viral infection

c)

congenital heart disease

d)

allergic reaction

34.

Decreased air movement and crackles in lungs on assessment are signs of which pediatric condition?

a)

Pediatric Pneumonia

b)

Pediatric Asthma

c)

Pediatric Croup

d)

Pediatric Bronchiolitis

35.

What is the hallmark for diagnosing Pediatric Pneumonia?

a)

infiltrate on chest x-ray

b)

wheezing on auscultation

c)

fever without cough

d)

elevated white blood cell count

36.

BLOOD cultures are recommended for which pediatric respiratory condition?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchiolitis

d)

Croup

37.

Pediatric Pertussis is also known as ______ cough.

a)

whooping

b)

dry

c)

barking

d)

productive

38.

Post-tussive emesis is a symptom of:

a)

Pediatric Pneumonia

b)

Pediatric Pertussis

c)

Disordered Control of Breathing

d)

Asthma

39.

Fever and high contagion are characteristics of which pediatric condition?

a)

Pediatric Pertussis

b)

Pediatric Asthma

c)

Pediatric Diabetes

d)

Pediatric Epilepsy

40.

The diagnostic test for Pediatric Pertussis is ______ specimen/wash.

a)

nasopharyngeal

b)

oropharyngeal

c)

salivary

d)

blood

41.

First-line treatment for Pediatric Pertussis includes antibiotics such as ______ or azithromycin.

a)

erythromycin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

vancomycin

d)

clindamycin

42.

Disordered Control of Breathing includes which of the following?

a)

Irregular or ineffective respirations

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Poor ventilations, poor perfusion

d)

All of the above

43.

What is the causative organism for Acute Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Group A B-hemolytic streptococci

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

44.

Name one serious sequelae of Acute Streptococcal Pharyngitis.

a)

Acute rheumatic fever

b)

Bronchial asthma

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Peptic ulcer

45.

Which medication is used for patients with penicillin allergy in Acute Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Azithromycin

46.

Oral penicillin for Acute Streptococcal Pharyngitis needs a ________ day treatment to decrease risk of rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis post strep.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

7

d)

14

47.

Which form of penicillin resolves compliance issues with a single dose?

a)

Penicillin G (IM)

b)

Penicillin V (Oral)

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Erythromycin

48.

Surgical intervention for tonsillitis is controversial and may be indicated with massive hypertrophy.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following is NOT true about nursing management of bleeding post-tonsillectomy?

a)

Frequent swallowing is a hallmark of post op bleeding

b)

Prevention of recurrent bleeding is paramount

c)

HOB should be elevated

d)

Suctioning should be performed

e)

Minimize agitation and crying

50.

What is the principal cause of Infectious Mononucleosis?

a)

EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)

b)

CMV (Cytomegalovirus)

c)

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)

d)

HBV (Hepatitis B Virus)

51.

Which diagnostic tests are used for Infectious Mononucleosis? (Fill in the blank)

a)

CBC, Monospot

b)

Liver Function Test, ECG

c)

Blood Sugar, Urinalysis

d)

Chest X-ray, Sputum Culture

52.

What is the mode of spread for Infectious Mononucleosis?

a)

Saliva based spread

b)

Airborne droplet spread

c)

Fecal-oral route

d)

Vector-borne transmission

53.

To protect the spleen in Infectious Mononucleosis, what activity should be avoided?

a)

Contact sports

b)

Reading books

c)

Walking in the park

d)

Listening to music

54.

Which type of infants have less Otitis Media (OM)?

a)

Breast-fed infants

b)

Bottle-fed infants

55.

Which immunoglobulin is mentioned in the prevention of Otitis Media?

a)

Immunoglobulin A

b)

Immunoglobulin G

c)

Immunoglobulin M

d)

Immunoglobulin E

56.

What vaccine is recommended for Otitis Media prevention?

a)

Pneumococcal 7 vaccine

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

Hepatitis B vaccine

d)

Measles vaccine

57.

What exposure should be prevented to reduce Otitis Media risk?

a)

Tobacco smoke

b)

Pet dander

c)

Pollen

d)

Dust mites

58.

Which topical relief methods are suggested for ear infections?

a)

Heat or cold, benzocaine drops

b)

Antibiotic ointment, sunscreen

c)

Aloe vera gel, hydrocortisone cream

d)

Vapor rub, menthol patches

59.

What is the first line antibiotic for ear infections?

a)

Amoxicillin PO 80-90 mg/kg/d, divided twice daily x10 days

b)

Azithromycin PO 10 mg/kg/d, once daily x3 days

c)

Ciprofloxacin PO 20 mg/kg/d, divided twice daily x7 days

d)

Ceftriaxone IM 50 mg/kg, single dose

60.

Which of the following is a treatment for allergic rhinitis?

a)

Immunotherapy

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Steroids

d)

Surgery

61.

Which OTC medications are used for allergic rhinitis?

a)

Oral, inhaled, nasal sprays

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Chemotherapy drugs

62.

What is the term for the gesture where the palm of the hand is placed on the nose with fingers angled up, often seen in allergic rhinitis?

a)

Allergic salute

b)

Nasal flick

c)

Sinus tap

d)

Rhinitis wave

63.

Allergies are often accompanied by fever.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Allergies usually trigger constant/consistent bouts of sneezing.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of asthma?

a)

A) Bronchial hyperresponsiveness

b)

B) Limited airflow or obstruction

c)

C) Seasonal occurrence

d)

D) Inflammation and mucus

66.

Which of the following is a type of asthma usually precipitated by a viral respiratory tract infection (i.e. RSV)?

a)

Chronic asthma

b)

Cough-variant asthma

c)

Recurrent wheezing

d)

Asthma associated with obesity

67.

If wheezing becomes worse and then absent, it is a sign of ______ distress in asthma.

a)

severe

b)

mild

c)

moderate

d)

no

68.

Long term control medications for asthma include:

a)

Inhaled corticosteroids

b)

Cromolyn sodium

c)

Nedocromil

d)

All of the above

69.

Quick relief/Rescue medications for asthma include (example: Albuterol inhaler). These are:

a)

Short acting beta 2 agonists

b)

Anticholinergics

c)

Systemic corticosteroids

d)

All of the above

70.

Which of the following is an intervention for Status Asthmaticus?

a)

High fowlers position

b)

Bed rest

c)

Low oxygen flow

d)

No intervention needed

71.

Oxygen therapy for Status Asthmaticus may require _________.

a)

high flow

b)

low flow

c)

intermittent flow

d)

no oxygen

72.

What two medications can be combined in a duo neb for status asthmaticus?

a)

albuterol and atrovent

b)

acetaminophen and tetracycline

c)

ipratropium and ibuprofen

d)

albuterol and labetolol

73.

Cystic Fibrosis is a _______ autoimmune disease.

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

homozygous recessive

74.

A sweat chloride test is used for which disease?

a)

asthma

b)

pneumonia

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

status asthmaticus

75.

One manifestation of cystic fibrosis is fatty stool, which is also known as:

a)

diarrhea

b)

steatorrhea

c)

clostridium difficile

d)

glomerrhea

76.

Children with CF need ______ enzyme replacement with ALL meals and snacks.

a)

renal

b)

hepatic

c)

pancreatic

d)

gallbladder

77.

SATA: RSV falls under multiple categories of isolation precautions. Select them.

a)

airborne

b)

contact

c)

droplet

d)

standard

e)

enhanced respiratory

78.

SATA: Select the side effects of Albuterol use.

a)

palpitations

b)

tremors and shakes

c)

tachycardia

d)

bronchospasms

e)

hypokalemia

79.

Children are recommended to receive the MMR/varicella vaccine, which is live attenuated. This means:

a)

Initially, this will make the child sick

b)

They will never develop rubeola

c)

This will give immunity initially, but it will wane over time

d)

It needs to be administered annually

80.

Bull's neck is a hallmark of which disease?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Varicella

c)

Rubeloa

d)

Diphtheria

81.

How long will a child with chickenpox stay contagious?

a)

For the remainder of their life

b)

For approximately 2-4 years

c)

For approximately 2-4 months

d)

Until all rash vesicles have crusted over

82.

Sterility, orchitis, sensorineural deafness, and myocarditis are associated with which disease?

a)

Mumps

b)

Measles

c)

Rubella

d)

Rubeola

83.

Which disease do Koplick spots on the mucosa indicate?

a)

Mumps

b)

Measles

c)

Rubella

d)

Varicella

84.

Rotavirus is most serious in:

a)

children under 2 years old

b)

children over 3 years old

c)

children older than 3 and younger than 10

d)

children older than 2 and younger than 6

85.

Which disease is highly contagious, causes sweet smelling and yellow watery stool, and can progress into hypovolemic shock if untreated?

a)

pneumococcal disease

b)

varicella zoster

c)

rotavirus

d)

RSV

86.

Pink eye is a ______ type of conjunctivitis.

a)

viral

b)

allergic

c)

bacterial

d)

foreign body

87.

Which disease is caused by Herpes virus type 6 and causes pink macule rashes on the lower back?

a)

Rubella

b)

Rubeola

c)

Roseola

d)

Ringoliea

88.

Which disease is also known as "Fifth Disease" and can result in a "slapped face" appearance?

a)

erythema infectiousm

b)

coxsackie virus

c)

rotavirus

d)

stomatitis

89.

A strawberry tongue, also known as ______, is a hallmark of scarlet fever.

a)

exanthema

b)

enanthema

c)

prodromal

d)

apthous

90.

What is the most common cause of pediatric infections worldwide?

a)

RSV

b)

Parasites

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Influenza

91.

A child can contract giardiasis from:

a)

airborne droplets

b)

body fluid contact

c)

ingestion of contaminated food

d)

surface droplets

92.

Bull's eye is a hallmark of which disease?

a)

Lyme Disease

b)

Erythema Infectiosum

c)

Diptheria

d)

Pertussis

93.

The treatment for Lyme disease is ______ if child is under 8 years old, and ______ if the child is over 8 years old.

a)

doxycycline, amoxicillin

b)

amoxicillin, doxycycline

c)

rifampin, isoniazid

d)

isoniazid, rifampin

94.

How would a child contract Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

a)

Airborne droplets

b)

Surface droplets

c)

Ingestion of contaminated food or water

d)

Tick bite

95.

Antibiotics are usually required for Cat Scratch Fever.

a)

True

b)

False

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