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National Service Reserve Corps and Disaster Management Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Republic Act created the National Service Reserve Corps composed of graduates of the non-ROTC components?

a)

Republic Act 10121

b)

Republic Act 9163

c)

Republic Act 9003

d)

Republic Act 7277

2.

According to Republic Act 10121, which entities are responsible for the accreditation, mobilization, and protection of disaster volunteers?

a)

Only the private sector

b)

Only government agencies

c)

Government agencies, CSOs, private sector, and LGUs

d)

Only the National Service Reserve Corps

3.

What is the main purpose of mobilizing volunteers as stated in the guidelines of Republic Act 10121?

a)

To provide entertainment during disasters

b)

To augment personnel and logistical requirements in disaster risk reduction programs and activities

c)

To replace government officials

d)

To conduct regular community meetings

4.

What natural disasters are mentioned as affecting the Philippines due to its location in the circumpacific belt?

a)

Floods, typhoons, tornadoes, earthquakes, drought, tsunamis, and volcanic eruptions

b)

Hurricanes, blizzards, and avalanches

c)

Sandstorms and wildfires

d)

Landslides and sinkholes only

5.

Why was the National Disaster Coordinating Council (NDCC) put in the forefront in the early 1990s?

a)

Due to the 1990 killer earthquake and the 1991 Mt. Pinatubo eruption

b)

Because of a new law passed in 1995

c)

To manage economic crises

d)

To organize sports events

6.

What benefit is provided to volunteers who incur death or injury while engaged in activities defined under Republic Act 10121?

a)

Free education

b)

Compensatory benefits and individual personnel accident insurance

c)

Lifetime employment

d)

Free housing

7.

How is the national roster of disaster volunteers and related groups maintained?

a)

By the Department of Education

b)

By the OCD through the LDRRMOs

c)

By the National Police

d)

By the Department of Health

8.

What does the term "CALAMITY" refer to in the context of disaster response?

a)

A situation associated with catastrophic events causing hardship and suffering due to shortage of basic necessities

b)

The process of restoring economic stability after a disaster

c)

The act of limiting the effect of a disaster

d)

The discharge of pollutants into the environment

9.

Which of the following best describes "DISASTER CONTROL"?

a)

The process of cleaning up after a disaster

b)

The act of limiting the effect of disaster through measures before, during, and after a disaster

c)

The overflow of water from natural waterways

d)

The discharge of radioactive materials into the atmosphere

10.

What is the main responsibility of the NATIONAL DISASTER COORDINATING COUNCIL?

a)

To provide medical care to disaster victims

b)

To advise the President on disaster preparedness and coordinate disaster relief and rehabilitation at the national level

c)

To manage pollution control programs

d)

To predict the frequency of hazards

11.

Which term refers to the efficient and effective use of resources to mitigate the impact of unfortunate events and facilitate return to normalcy?

a)

Disaster Control

b)

Disaster Management

c)

Relief

d)

Rehabilitation

12.

How does "POLLUTION" impact the environment according to the definitions provided?

a)

It causes water to overflow from natural waterways

b)

It creates or renders environmental elements harmful or detrimental to living beings and ecological balance

c)

It restores economic stability after a disaster

d)

It refers to the chance of hazards affecting people

13.

A community is preparing for a possible flood due to heavy rainfall. Which two terms from the definitions provided are most relevant to their planning and response efforts, and why?

a)

Calamity and Pollution, because both involve environmental harm

b)

Disaster Control and Disaster Management, because one involves limiting disaster effects and the other involves efficient use of resources for recovery

c)

Relief and Rehabilitation, because both focus on economic support

d)

Hazards and Risks, because both refer to the causes of disasters

14.

If a nuclear weapon is detonated and dust particles with radioactive materials are carried by the wind, which term best describes this phenomenon?

a)

Flood

b)

Pollution

c)

Radio Active Fall-Out

d)

Relief

15.

Which of the following is an example of a "HAZARD" as defined in the text?

a)

The restoration of a person’s economic dependency

b)

A natural or man-induced phenomenon that poses a threat to people’s lives and property

c)

The process of providing food and shelter to disaster victims

d)

The overflow of water from rivers due to heavy rainfall

16.

Why is "RELIEF" important in disaster response operations?

a)

It limits the effect of disasters before they occur

b)

It refers to the restoration of economic stability

c)

It alleviates the condition of those suffering from calamities when they are completely helpless

d)

It measures the frequency of hazards

17.

Which term refers to the degree or chance and frequency that hazards will affect people and communities?

a)

Risks

b)

Disasters

c)

Rehabilitation

d)

Calamity

18.

Which of the following best defines "space debris"?

a)

Remains of artificial satellites and their components that fall back to earth

b)

Natural rocks found in space

c)

Volcanic ash from eruptions

d)

Dust particles in the atmosphere

19.

What is a "state of calamity" as described in the learning material?

a)

A condition declared by the President during widespread destruction to property and lives

b)

A period of economic growth

c)

A time of political unrest

d)

A declaration of war

20.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a volcanic eruption?

a)

Ejection of molten lava

b)

Release of rock fragments and ash

c)

Formation of hurricanes

d)

Emission of steam and other gases

21.

How is "vulnerability" defined in the context of disaster management?

a)

The level of susceptibility or resiliency of people and communities against the impact of hazards

b)

The likelihood of a volcanic eruption

c)

The amount of space debris in orbit

d)

The speed of disaster response

22.

According to the disaster equation, which formula represents the factors that fuel the magnitude of a disaster?

a)

H x R + V = DISASTERS

b)

H + R x V = DISASTERS

c)

H - R + V = DISASTERS

d)

H x V - R = DISASTERS

23.

Which of the following is NOT part of the Pre-Disaster Risk Reduction Phase in the Disaster Management Cycle?

a)

Preparedness

b)

Development

c)

Mitigation

d)

Recovery

24.

Which phase of the Disaster Management Cycle includes "Response," "Rehabilitation," and "Recovery"?

a)

Pre-Disaster Risk Reduction Phase

b)

Post-Disaster Recovery Phase

c)

Disaster Preparedness Phase

d)

Risk Assessment Phase

25.

Increasing community vulnerability (V) in the disaster equation H x R + V = DISASTERS can impact the overall magnitude of a disaster, even if the hazard (H) and risk (R) remain constant, because:

a)

It increases the overall magnitude of a disaster as more people or communities are affected, making the impact greater.

b)

It decreases the magnitude of a disaster because people are more prepared.

c)

Vulnerability has no effect if hazard and risk are constant.

d)

It only affects the speed of recovery, not the magnitude.

26.

The Disaster Management Cycle is considered a continuum rather than a single event because:

a)

It involves a series of phased actions aimed at reducing vulnerabilities and managing risks over time.

b)

Disasters only happen once.

c)

It only focuses on recovery.

d)

It ignores preparedness.

27.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a risk management measure in the comprehensive risk management process?

a)

Engineering measures

b)

Land use planning and management measures

c)

Increasing population density

d)

Early warning

28.

What is the main purpose of the comprehensive risk management process as described in the text?

a)

To increase the frequency of natural hazards

b)

To break the cycle of damage and reconstruction by reducing or minimizing the effects of hazards

c)

To eliminate all natural hazards

d)

To delay the implementation of safety measures

29.

Which risk management measure involves preparing in anticipation of a hazard event?

a)

Control and protection works

b)

Preparedness planning

c)

Reconstruction planning

d)

Mainstreaming risk management

30.

Why is the letter "E" represented by a single dot in Morse code?

a)

It is the first letter of the alphabet

b)

It is the most common letter in English

c)

It is the shortest letter in the alphabet

d)

It is the last letter in the alphabet

31.

Which of the following is an internationally recognized distress signal using fire?

a)

Two fires in a circle

b)

Three fires in a triangle or straight line, 100 feet apart

c)

Four fires in a square

d)

One large fire

32.

How does the International Whistle Code signal "Come here"?

a)

One blast of the whistle

b)

Two blasts of the whistle

c)

Three blasts of the whistle

d)

Four blasts of the whistle

33.

Morse code is considered a useful method of telecommunication in emergencies because:

a)

It requires expensive equipment and is difficult to learn.

b)

It can be sent by improvised methods and is internationally recognized.

c)

It is only useful for professional radio operators.

d)

It is not recognized by international treaties.

34.

The relationship between the duration of dots and dashes in Morse code is important for communication because:

a)

Dashes are three times the duration of dots, which helps distinguish between different characters.

b)

Dashes are the same length as dots, making them interchangeable.

c)

Dots are longer than dashes, making the code harder to understand.

d)

The duration does not matter in Morse code.

35.

What is the primary aim of first aid according to the "Three P's"?

a)

Preserve Life

b)

Prevent Infection

c)

Promote Comfort

d)

Provide Medication

36.

Which of the following is an example of "Prevent Deterioration" in first aid?

a)

Performing CPR on an unconscious person

b)

Asking a casualty with a broken limb to stay still and padding around the injury

c)

Giving water to a casualty

d)

Calling for help immediately

37.

Which characteristic is NOT listed as a quality of a good first aider?

a)

Gentle

b)

Resourceful

c)

Aggressive

d)

Empathic

38.

If you do not have a flashlight or torch, how can you signal for help using your body?

a)

Stand still and wait

b)

Wave your arms and hands sideways and down to attract attention

c)

Sit on the ground and shout

d)

Jump up and down quietly

39.

Why is it important for a first aider to be observant?

a)

To avoid causing pain

b)

To notice all signs

c)

To make the best use of things at hand

d)

To maintain a professional attitude

40.

Which of the following best describes the aim "Promote Recovery" in first aid?

a)

Preventing further injuries by removing dangers

b)

Arranging prompt emergency medical help and encouraging early healing

c)

Performing CPR immediately

d)

Giving the casualty food and water

41.

A first aider should never put themselves or others in danger. What does this statement emphasize?

a)

The importance of being resourceful

b)

The need to preserve life, including your own

c)

The need to promote recovery

d)

The importance of being tactful

42.

Which of the following is a correct way to signal SOS at night if you have a torch?

a)

Flash the torch randomly

b)

Cover and uncover the light from the angle of the targeted plane, ship, or helicopter

c)

Wave the torch in circles

d)

Turn the torch on and off slowly

43.

What is the main purpose of first aid as defined by Encyclopedia Britannica?

a)

To cure the patient completely

b)

To prevent further harm being done

c)

To provide medication

d)

To transport the patient to the hospital

44.

How can a first aider promote recovery for a burn victim?

a)

By giving them food

b)

By cooling the burn to reduce the risk of long-term scarring

c)

By moving them immediately

d)

By covering the burn with a thick cloth

45.

Which of the following is NOT considered an unfavorable surrounding for providing first aid?

a)

Night time

b)

Crowded city lights

c)

Well-equipped hospital

d)

Cold and rainy weather

46.

Why is it important to pay attention to the human body’s anatomical shape during wound treatment?

a)

It affects the bandaging method

b)

It determines the type of medicine used

c)

It helps identify the victim

d)

It makes the wound heal faster

47.

What is the main objective of first aid when treating bleeding wounds?

a)

To quickly stop blood outflow

b)

To make the victim comfortable

c)

To call for help

d)

To clean the wound thoroughly

48.

Which of the following is a reason why the presence of crowds can be a challenge for first aiders?

a)

Crowds always provide correct advice

b)

Crowds may demand haste or attempt improper procedures

c)

Crowds help calm the victim

d)

Crowds supply necessary materials

49.

When bandaging a wound, why should the bandage not be tied too tightly?

a)

It will make the wound heal slower

b)

It will stop blood from flowing to the wounded area

c)

It will make the victim uncomfortable

d)

It will cause the bandage to fall off

50.

If a victim is still conscious after an injury, what is the most important thing for them to do?

a)

Move around to stay awake

b)

Remain in a seating or standing position with the head highest

c)

Lie down flat on the ground

d)

Remove the bandage

51.

Which of the following is a principle of treating bleeding wounds?

a)

Stop blood outflow as quickly as possible

b)

Wait for medical professionals before acting

c)

Use any available cloth, clean or not

d)

Ignore the wound if it is small

52.

What should be used to cover a wound to prevent infection?

a)

A sterile cloth or disinfectant

b)

Any piece of clothing

c)

Bare hands

d)

Water only

53.

How can a first aider check if a bandage is not too tight on a victim?

a)

By asking the victim if it hurts

b)

By checking if the pulse can still be felt beneath the bandage

c)

By looking at the color of the bandage

d)

By timing how long it takes to apply

54.

What pressure can relatives or the victim exert on the first aider?

a)

Pressure to perform a good examination

b)

Pressure to act calmly and slowly

c)

Pressure due to hysteria, pain, or possible early death

d)

Pressure to leave the scene

55.

What is an important consideration when applying a bandage to a wound?

a)

The bandage should be very tight to stop the bleeding.

b)

The bandage should be either very loose or very tight.

c)

The bandage should not be too tight or too loose.

d)

The bandage should only cover the wound partially.

56.

If the victim is unconscious, what should you check for when applying a bandage?

a)

The color of the bandage

b)

Pulse signs around the wound area

c)

The victim’s temperature

d)

The victim’s breathing rate

57.

Which of the following is the correct first step in treating a bleeding wound on a round body part?

a)

Apply ice to the wound

b)

Determine if a pressing tool is needed

c)

Pour water on the wound

d)

Remove any bandages already present

58.

What is the correct procedure for binding a bandage around the head for a bleeding wound?

a)

Start binding from the neck and move upwards

b)

Start binding from the wound and bind around the head in circles, crossing the bandage upon arriving opposite the wound area

c)

Bind only once around the head

d)

Bind the bandage in a straight line across the forehead

59.

After crossing the bandage around the head, what should you do next?

a)

Remove the bandage and start over

b)

Tie the bandage in the direction of the first binding

c)

Tie the bandage in the shape of a parcel until arriving at the wound, then tie with a slipknot

d)

Cut the bandage and leave it loose

60.

What is the purpose of using a triangular cloth when a wound exists on the chin or upper forehead?

a)

To prevent the bandage from coming loose

b)

To stop the bleeding immediately

c)

To clean the wound

d)

To cover the eyes

61.

Which of the following is NOT a correct step when tying a bandage for a head wound?

a)

Tie a pair of strings from bottom to behind the head, going above the ears

b)

Tie another pair of strings behind the head via below the ears

c)

Make sure the binding is very tight

d)

Tie with a slipknot

62.

What does the term "broken bone" refer to?

a)

A wound that occurs on a bone, involving cracking, breaking, or sticking out of the body

b)

A wound that only affects the skin

c)

A muscle tear

d)

A sprained ligament

63.

Which of the following is a correct description of a "fractured bone"?

a)

A bone experiences trauma/impact and may crack but not break apart

b)

A bone breaks and sticks out through the skin

c)

A bone breaks but is still inside the body

d)

A bone is only bruised

64.

Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with broken bone wounds?

a)

Black and blue discoloration

b)

Swelling

c)

Itching

d)

Change in form

65.

A person has a bone that is broken and sticks out through the skin. What type of broken bone wound is this?

a)

Fractured bone

b)

Closed broken bone

c)

Open broken bone

d)

Bruised bone

66.

It is important to ensure the binding of a head bandage is not too loose or too tight because:

a)

Too loose may not secure the wound, too tight may restrict blood flow or cause discomfort

b)

Too loose will make the patient sleepy, too tight will make them alert

c)

Too loose will cause swelling, too tight will reduce swelling

d)

Too loose will make the bandage look untidy, too tight will make it look neat

67.

Broken bones are a common injury during an earthquake because:

a)

People may be struck by building debris, trampled on, or squeezed

b)

People may get sunburned

c)

People may catch a cold

d)

People may get dehydrated

68.

Which of the following is a sign of a broken backbone?

a)

Wounds on both head and neck

b)

Difference in the length of the legs

c)

Breathing difficulties

d)

Swelling in the arms

69.

What is the primary purpose of fixation in the first aid treatment of a broken bone wound?

a)

To restore the bone to its original position

b)

To minimize activity of the joints flanking the broken bone

c)

To stop bleeding from the wound

d)

To reduce swelling in the area

70.

Which material is commonly used for splints in the treatment of a broken bone wound?

a)

Metal rods

b)

Wood lined with thin cloth or sponge

c)

Plastic sheets

d)

Rubber bands

71.

What should you do first when treating an open broken bone wound?

a)

Try to restore the bone to its original position

b)

Cover the wound and then conduct a fixation

c)

Apply ice to the wound

d)

Massage the area gently

72.

When treating a broken neck, what is the recommended first aid procedure?

a)

Apply a splint to the neck

b)

Prop up the neck to prevent any movement

c)

Massage the neck gently

d)

Use a cold compress

73.

Why should you not try to restore a broken bone to its original position during first aid?

a)

It may cause further injury

b)

It is too painful for the victim

c)

It is not necessary for healing

d)

It is a waste of time

74.

If no splints are available, what can be used to immobilize a broken lower arm?

a)

Bind the broken arm to the victim’s body

b)

Use a cold compress

c)

Apply a tourniquet

d)

Massage the arm gently

75.

A victim with a broken collarbone should be treated by:

a)

Using a splint and rope

b)

Applying a shoulder binder to retain position

c)

Massaging the collarbone

d)

Forcing the bone back into place

76.

A broken back requires which of the following actions?

a)

Immediate splinting with wood

b)

Lying down and using a flat, hard palanquin for transfer

c)

Massaging the back

d)

Applying a cold compress

77.

What does the diagram illustrate?

a)

How to treat a broken leg

b)

How to treat a victim with a broken arm

c)

How to perform CPR

d)

How to bandage a head wound

78.

Which of the following best describes Basic Life Support (BLS)?

a)

A level of medical care for life-threatening illnesses or injuries until full medical care is available

b)

A type of surgery performed in hospitals

c)

A routine health check-up procedure

d)

A method for treating minor wounds at home

79.

Approximately how many cardiac arrests occur per year in Europe, according to the learning material?

a)

700,000

b)

70,000

c)

1,000,000

d)

100,000

80.

What is the current survival rate to hospital discharge after cardiac arrest in Europe?

a)

5-10%

b)

20-30%

c)

50-60%

d)

1-2%

81.

Which of the following actions is NOT part of the initial protective device steps in BLS?

a)

Approach safely

b)

Check response

c)

Administer medication

d)

Shout for help

82.

What does the "A" in the ABCs of Basic Life Support stand for?

a)

Airway

b)

Alertness

c)

Assistance

d)

Action

83.

What should you do if a person responds when you check for a response during BLS?

a)

Leave as you find him, find out what is wrong, and reassess regularly

b)

Immediately start chest compressions

c)

Move the person to a different location

d)

Ignore the response and call for help

84.

Why is early resuscitation and prompt defibrillation important in cases of sudden cardiac arrest?

a)

It can result in greater than 60% survival

b)

It prevents all types of injuries

c)

It guarantees 100% recovery

d)

It is only necessary for minor injuries

85.

What is the purpose of the "Chain of Survival" in Basic Life Support?

a)

To restore the circulation of oxygenated blood after sudden pulmonary and/or cardiac arrest

b)

To provide medication to the patient

c)

To transport the patient to the hospital

d)

To diagnose the cause of the cardiac arrest

86.

Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of actions and their importance when you are the first person to arrive at the scene of a suspected cardiac arrest?

a)

Call 9-1-1, wait for help, then check response; only calling for help is important

b)

Approach safely, check response, shout for help, open airway, check breathing, call 9-1-1; each step ensures safety, assessment, and timely intervention

c)

Immediately start chest compressions without checking anything; compressions are the only important step

d)

Move the victim to a different location before starting any assessment; location is the most important factor

87.

Which of the following is the correct procedure to open the airway in a non-healthcare setting?

a)

Perform a finger sweep immediately

b)

Use the head tilt and chin lift method

c)

Only lay the rescuer down

d)

Use a solid object to open the mouth

88.

What is agonal breathing, and why is it important to recognize during cardiac arrest?

a)

It is normal breathing after exercise and should be ignored.

b)

It is a sign of cardiac arrest and is described as barely, heavy, noisy, or gasping breathing.

c)

It is a type of breathing that occurs during sleep.

d)

It is a sign of recovery from cardiac arrest.

89.

Which of the following is NOT a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest according to the 5 H’s and 5 T’s?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Thrombosis coronary

d)

Tension pneumothorax

90.

What is the correct rate and depth for chest compressions during CPR?

a)

60 min-1, 2-3 cm

b)

80 min-1, 3-4 cm

c)

100 min-1, 4-5 cm

d)

120 min-1, 6-7 cm

91.

When performing rescue breaths, what should you do to ensure the breath is effective?

a)

Blow as hard as possible regardless of chest movement

b)

Pinch the nose, take a normal breath, and blow until the chest rises

c)

Only blow for half a second

d)

Do not allow the chest to fall between breaths

92.

Under which circumstances should you stop performing CPR?

a)

When the victim is still unresponsive after 5 minutes

b)

When you feel tired

c)

When trained help arrives or the victim revives

d)

When the victim is breathing agonal breaths

93.

Why might CPR fail even if performed?

a)

The victim is too young

b)

Delay in starting and improper procedures

c)

The victim is breathing normally

d)

The rescuer is a healthcare professional

94.

What is the primary purpose of rappelling?

a)

To ascend a steep terrain using a fixed rope

b)

To descend a steep terrain using a fixed rope

c)

To cross a river using a rope

d)

To tie knots for rescue operations

95.

Which of the following is a key safety consideration before starting to rappel?

a)

Check the weather forecast

b)

Verify the rope reaches the target

c)

Wear brightly colored clothing

d)

Bring extra food and water

96.

What does the “B” in the B.R.A.K.E.S. safety acronym stand for?

a)

Brakes

b)

Buckles

c)

Backup

d)

Balance

97.

Why is it important to keep the brake hand below the descending device while rappelling?

a)

To increase speed during descent

b)

To prevent the rope from tangling

c)

To maintain control and safety during descent

d)

To avoid getting sunburned

98.

Which of the following actions should be avoided during a rappel to prevent dangerously shocking the rappel anchor?

a)

Descending slowly

b)

Bouncing during the rappel

c)

Using a backup Prusik

d)

Wearing gloves

99.

What is the function of a descender or friction device in modern rappelling techniques?

a)

To tie knots in the rope

b)

To provide friction for controlled descent

c)

To anchor the rope to a tree

d)

To signal for help

100.

Which of the following best describes the original body rappel known as the “Dulfersitz”?

a)

Using a mechanical descender for friction

b)

Running the rope around the rappeller’s body for friction

c)

Attaching the rope to a carabiner only

d)

Using gloves to hold the rope