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Intro to Metabolism and Diabetes

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chemical messengers secreted by various glands that regulate:

growth, reproduction, gender differentiation

fluid and electrolyte balance

(a)  

2.

Process of biochemical reactions in body's cells that:

produce energy, repair cells, maintain life

(a)  

3.

The endocrine system is responsible for:

a)

Sexual differentiation during fetal development

b)

Stimulating growth and development during childhood and adolescence

c)

Filtering waste products from the blood in the kidneys

d)

Controlling muscle contractions in the heart

4.

As we age we have an increase in adrenalgland hormones, decrease in thyroid
stimulating hormone (basal metabolic rate),
decreased production of lipase (reduced fat
absorption), insulin resistance

a)

False

b)
Aging leads to increased thyroid hormone production.
c)
Insulin sensitivity increases with age.
d)

True

5.

Alterations to metabolism include:

a)

Disorders of structure and function

b)

Hormone production increases or decreases

c)

Sexual differentiation during fetal development

d)

Stimulating growth and development

6.

Common alteration of metabolism:

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Obesity

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Hyperthyroidism

7.

Less common alterations of metabolism include:

a)

Cushing's disease

b)

Addison's disease

c)

Dwarfism

d)

Obesity

e)

Diabetes mellitus

8.

What is the CAGE questionnaire used to identify in liver disease?

a)
The CAGE questionnaire is used to identify alcohol use disorders.
b)
The CAGE questionnaire evaluates dietary habits.
c)
The CAGE questionnaire identifies viral hepatitis risk.
d)
The CAGE questionnaire is used to assess liver function.
9.

What does CAGE questionnaire stand for?

a)

CAGE stands for Cut back, Annoyed with self, Guilty, Eye-opener.

b)
CAGE stands for Calm, Angry, Grateful, Excited.
c)
CAGE stands for Cut, Avoid, Guilt, Escape.
d)
CAGE stands for Care, Attention, Gratitude, Empathy.
10.

Metabolism and Endocrine gland functions assessed with:

a)

Dietary supplements and exercise routines

b)

Physical assessment to collect objective data

c)

Health assessment interview to collect subjective data

d)

Findings from diagnostic tests

11.

What are some good health history questions to ask in your nursing assessment for alterations to metabolism?

a)

Hx of diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, thyroid disease,
growth problems, obesity in family?

b)

Extreme growth in child?

c)

Shoe size change as an adult ?

d)

Medications such as steroids?

e)

Are you taking antibiotics?

12.

What is shown above?

a)
A goiter.
b)
A lymph node enlargement.
c)
A cyst.
d)
A thyroid nodule.
13.

What could the following picture be caused by?

a)
Thyroid cancer due to genetic factors.
b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)
Allergic reaction to food.
d)
Infection caused by a virus.
14.

Your patient presents with a rounded, puffiness of the face as shown above. You know this is known as ______ and is caused by hypothyroidism.

a)
goiter
b)
cretinism
c)
thyroiditis
d)

moon face

15.

Your patient presents with darker patches of skin around their eyes and on their face. You know that this is called ________ and is a common result of hyperthyroidism.

a)

myxedema

b)
facial erythema
c)

hyperpigmentation

d)
skin atrophy
16.

Your patient is admitted with the following symptoms. You know that your patient has a history of hypothyroidism. What condition is your patient most likely experiencing?

a)
Addison's disease
b)
Cushing's syndrome
c)
Hyperthyroidism
d)
Myxedema
17.

Nails and hair tend to become fine and brittle with ________,

and dry and course with _________.

a)

Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism

b)

Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism

c)

Cushing's disease, Addison's disease

d)

Hyperpigmentation, myxedema

18.

Your patient is admitted and this following symptom is charted. You know that this is known as ______ and is a result of Grave's disease or hyperthyroidism.

a)
thyroid storm
b)
goiter
c)
exophthalmos
d)
myxedema
19.

_______ a medical condition characterized by involuntary muscle spasms and nerve hyperexcitability, most often caused by hypocalcemia (low calcium) or sometimes magnesium deficiency.

a)
Cramps
b)
Twitching
c)
Tetany
d)
Seizures
20.

________ _____ is a clinical sign characterized by twitching of facial muscles when the facial nerve is tapped, and it is often associated with hypoparathyroidism.

a)
Trousseau's sign
b)
Babinski's reflex
c)
Hoffman's sign
d)
Chvostek's sign
21.

________ ____ a medical indication of hypoparathyroidism, identified by a carpopedal spasm—a hand and wrist contraction—that occurs when the brachial artery is compressed by a blood pressure cuff inflated for 3 minutes.

a)
Trousseau's sign
b)
Hoffman's sign
c)
Babinski reflex
d)
Chvostek's sign
22.

The following is characterized by Lack or dysfunction of growth hormone (GH) from the pituitary gland.

a)
Excess Growth Hormone (EGH)
b)
Pituitary Tumor
c)
Cushing's Syndrome
d)

Dwarfism

23.

During your musculoskeletal assessment of your patient, you notice they have abnormal growth in various parts of their body. They have an enlarged facial structure, overgrowth of hands and feet, and an increase in body size and height after adulthood. You know that this can be described as _________ and is an excessive production of the growth hormone by the pituitary gland.

a)
gigantism
b)
acromegaly
c)
dwarfism
d)
hypopituitarism
24.

Your patient has an abnormally round and protruded stomach as presented in the image above. You know that this is most likely ______ which is an accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.

a)
ascites
b)
hepatomegaly
c)
splenomegaly
d)
obesity
25.

What is most commonly the cause of ascites? (Notice: all of the following are potential causes of ascites but there is one that is most common when dealing with ascites)

a)
Heart failure
b)
Liver cirrhosis
c)
Kidney disease
d)
Pancreatitis
26.

What diagnostic test is completed when assessing for gestational diabetes?

a)
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
b)
Fasting Blood Sugar Test
c)
Hemoglobin A1c Test
d)
Urine Glucose Test
27.

What does the process of an oral glucose tolerance test consist of?

a)
Drinking a protein shake and measuring cholesterol levels
b)
The process consists of fasting, drinking a glucose solution, and taking blood samples at intervals to measure glucose levels.
c)
Eating a high-carb meal and monitoring heart rate
d)
Fasting for 12 hours and taking a urine sample
28.

When completing diagnostic testing for a patient with thyroid issues, we rule out this type of medication, as it is known to affect thyroid function:

a)
Aspirin
b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Corticosteroids

29.

When working with patients that have problems with metabolism, you may collaborate with these other health professionals to help the patient:

a)

Dietitians

b)

Behavioral therapists

c)

Endocrinologist

d)

Cardiologists

e)

Podiatrists

30.

The following pharmacologic therapy is used to help treat what metabolic disorder?

-Calcium regulation agents, Selective estrogen-receptor modulators, Synthetic parathyroid hormone, Bisphosphonates

a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Diabetes insipidus
c)
Cushing's syndrome
d)
Hyperthyroidism
31.

Insulin is a pharmacologic therapy that is used to treat which metabolic disorder?

a)
Cushing's syndrome
b)
Hyperlipidemia
c)
Diabetes mellitus
d)
Hypothyroidism
32.

Oral hypoglycemics are a pharmacologic therapy used to treat which metabolic disorder?

a)
Hyperlipidemia
b)
Hypothyroidism
c)
Hypertension
d)
Diabetes mellitus (specifically type 2 diabetes)
33.

Hyperglycemic state resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action, or both

(a)  

34.

Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes.

a)
Type 1 is the least common type of diabetes.
b)

True

c)
Type 1 is the only type of diabetes.
d)

False

35.

The following risk factors are associated with which type of diabetes?

-hereditary

-tissue types HLA-DR or HLA-DQ

-Exposure to environmental triggers: certain drugs, pollutants, dietary considerations, stress, infections, and gut flora

a)
Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults
b)
Type 2 diabetes
c)
Gestational diabetes
d)
Type 1 diabetes
36.

The following risk factors are associated with which type of diabetes?

-obesity

-family history

-increasing age

-race/ethnicity

-smoking

-sedentary lifestyle

-medications

-metabolic syndrome

a)
Type 1 diabetes
b)
Gestational diabetes
c)
LADA (Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults)
d)
Type 2 diabetes
37.

The following risk factors are associated with which type of diabetes?

-age >25

-previous baby >9lbs

-family history of type II

-overweight

-race/ethnicity

-polycystic ovary syndrome

a)
Type 2 diabetes
b)
Type 1 diabetes
c)
Gestational diabetes
d)
Type 3 diabetes
38.

Blood requires constant supply of glucose.

a)
Blood does not need glucose for energy.
b)

True

c)
Blood can rely solely on fats for energy.
d)

False

39.

Not all tissues require insulin (liver, brain, and red blood cells) but the rest do need insulin

a)
Liver, brain, and red blood cells do not require insulin.
b)
Only the liver requires insulin, not the brain or red blood cells.
c)
All tissues require insulin for function.
d)
Liver, brain, and red blood cells require insulin.
40.

Normal blood glucose in healthy clients is regulated by:

a)
Adrenaline and cortisol
b)
Glucose and fructose
c)
Lactate and pyruvate
d)
Insulin and glucagon
41.

Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 diabetes?

a)
Excessive insulin production by the pancreas.
b)
Insulin resistance due to obesity and lifestyle factors.
c)

Autoimmune disorder in which beta cell derestriction results in absolute insulin deficiency

d)
Genetic mutation affecting glucose metabolism.
42.

In type 1 diabetes, fat begins to breakdown, so _______ form as a result of fat breakdown.

a)
lactic acid
b)
amino acids
c)
ketones
d)
glucose
43.

In type 1 diabetes, the accumulation of ketones leads to....

a)
hypoglycemia
b)
insulin resistance
c)
type 2 diabetes
d)
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
44.

Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes pathophysiology?

a)
Complete insulin deficiency with no hyperglycemia.
b)
Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency leading to hyperglycemia.
c)
Excessive insulin production leading to low blood sugar.
d)
Autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing cells.
45.

condition where there is too much glucose in the blood because the body doesn't have enough insulin

(a)  

46.

The three P's indicating type 1 diabetes include:

a)
Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
b)
Poliomyelitis, Polyneuropathy, Polysaccharide
c)
Polypeptide, Polyunsaturated, Polymorphic
d)
Polycystic, Polygenic, Polymorphism
47.

Which of the following are symptoms of type 1 diabetes?

a)

Frequent urination

b)
Increased energy levels
c)
Weight loss
d)

Excessive thirst

e)

Weight gain

48.

The following characteristics describe what?

-High blood glucose levels in mother

-Brings extra glucose to baby

-Causes baby to put on extra weight

a)
Type 1 diabetes
b)
Obesity in children
c)
Hyperglycemia in adults
d)
Gestational diabetes
49.

Fasting plasma glucose- <100mg/dL (70-100mg/dL)

Casual plasma glucose <140mg/dL

Hemoglobin A1C <5.6%

a)

Diabetes

b)

Pre-Diabetes

c)
Elevated fasting plasma glucose
d)

Normoglycemia

50.

Fasting plasma glucose 100-125mg/dL

Hemoglobin A1C 5.7-6.4%

a)
Diabetes Type 1
b)
Normal glucose levels
c)
Gestational diabetes
d)
Prediabetes
51.

Fasting plasma glucose >126 mg/dL

Hemoglobin A1C >6.5%

a)
Prediabetes
b)
Normal glucose tolerance
c)
Type 1 diabetes
d)
Diabetes mellitus
52.

Which type of diabetes usually ends up in the hospital at first following their diagnosis?

a)
Prediabetes
b)
Type 1 diabetes
c)
Type 2 diabetes
d)
Gestational diabetes
53.

Three main ways to manage diabetes:

a)

Exercise

b)

Medication

c)
Taking insulin only when feeling unwell
d)

Diet

54.

Though exercise is helpful with diabetes, it cannot help insulin to work better or decrease the need for insulin.

a)
False
b)
Insulin is not affected by physical activity
c)
Exercise has no effect on diabetes management
d)
True
55.

What is the recommended protocol for
Type 2 diabetic clients that want to
loose weight?
A. Participate in an aerobic program twice a
week for 20 minutes each session
B. Slowly increase insulin dosage until mild
hypoglycemia occurs
C. Reduce calorie intake moderately and
increase exercise
D. Reduce daily caloric intake to 1000 calories
and monitor for urine ketones

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.

What is the general guideline for eating carbohydrates with diabetes?

a)

30-60 grams per meals

b)

15-30 grams per meal

c)

15-30 grams with snacks

d)

5-10 grams with snacks

57.

Five grams/serving or more fiber can be subtracted from total carbohydrates

a)

False

b)
Total carbohydrates cannot be adjusted based on fiber content.
c)

True

d)
Net carbohydrates are calculated by adding fiber to total carbohydrates.
58.

How many grams of carbohydrates are in one serving

a)

15 grams per serving

b)
100 grams per serving
c)
50-60 grams per serving
d)
5-10 grams per serving
59.

What is the gold standard when it comes to meal planning strategies with diabetes?

a)
Using a high-fat diet without monitoring carbohydrate levels.
b)

Carbohydrate counting.

c)
Counting calories only without considering carbohydrates.
d)
Focusing solely on protein intake for meal planning.
60.

1800 kcals – 225 g CHO (50% of total kcals)
B (7:30) 45 g CHO (3 CHO)
L (noon) 60 g CHO (4 CHO)
Snack (3:00) 30 g CHO (2 CHO)
D (6.00) 60 g CHO (4 CHO)
HS snack (9:30) 30g CHO (2CHO)

What is the total carbohydrates (CHO) consumed and total servings of carbs?

a)

225 g CHO/day (15 servings/day)

b)

15 CHO/day (225 servings/day)

c)

125 CHO/day (5 servings/day)

d)

225 CHO/day (225 servings/day)

61.

In developing an individualized meal plan for
the diabetic client, which goals are the focus
of the plan? Select all that apply
A. Maintaining blood glucose levels at or as close
to the normal range as possible
B. Patient food preferences
C. Allowing patients to eat as much as they
desire
D. Eliminating fats
E. Eliminating carbohydrates

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

62.

What statement about dietary
concepts is true?
A. Alcoholic beverage consumption is
unrestricted
B. Carbohydrate counting is emphasized when
adjusting dietary intake of nutrients
C. Artificial sweeteners should be avoided
because of the side effects
D. Fiber should be limited

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

The following medications describe treatment of which type of diabetes:

-insulin to cover basal needs (given 1-2 times a day)

-sliding scale to cover prandial needs (given 2-4 times a day)

*sliding scale coverage may be combined with basal coverage in one shot

a)
Type 2 diabetes
b)
Gestational diabetes
c)
Prediabetes
d)
Type 1 diabetes
64.

The following medications are treatment for which type of diabetes?

-none, can be diet controlled

-oral antidiabetics (one or more per day)

-insulin

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)
Gestational diabetes
c)
Prediabetes
d)

Type 2 diabetes

65.

The following medications and treatment is used for which type of diabetes:

-glucose monitoring 4 times per day

-postprandial levels below 140

-insulin if needed

-some oral hypoglycemics *safety of these is important

-comprehensive prenatal care is essential

a)
type 1 diabetes
b)
type 2 diabetes
c)
prediabetes
d)
gestational diabetes
66.

Basal coverage of insulin means ______ ______

a)
fast-acting insulin
b)

basic needs

c)

meal coverage

d)
background insulin
67.

Prandial coverage of insulin means _____ ________

a)
long-acting insulin
b)
basal insulin
c)

meal coverage

d)

basic needs

68.

Types of insulin include:

a)
Ultra-long-acting
b)

Rapid Acting

c)

Long Acting

d)

Short Acting

e)

Intermediate

69.

Which type of insulin is described below?

Given subcutaneously and in pumps

-lispro (Humalog)

-Aspart (Novolog, Fiasp)

-Glulisine (Apidra)

a)
Long-acting insulin
b)
Intermediate-acting insulin
c)
Rapid-acting insulin
d)

Short-acting insulin

70.

Which type of insulin is described below?

Often given on sliding scale or on bolus-correction scale

-regular (Humulin R) (Novolin R) (ReliOn R)

a)

Long-acting insulin

b)

Rapid-acting insulin

c)

Short acting insulin

d)

Intermediate-acting insulin

71.

Which type of insulin is described?

Cloudy, can be mixed with rapid or short acting

-NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N)

a)

Ultra-rapid insulin

b)

Long-acting insulin

c)

Regular insulin

d)

Intermediate

72.

Which of the following types of insulin is described?

Used for basal needs, over the length of 24 hours

*clear

-glargine (Lantus, Basaglar, Toujeo)

-detemir (Levemir)
-degludec (Tresiba)

a)

Long acting

b)

Intermediate

c)

Short acting

d)

Rapid acting

73.

Which of the following are considered prandial (bolus) or correction insulins?

a)

Rapid acting

b)

Short acting

c)

Intermediate

d)

Long acting

74.

Which of the following are considered basal insulin?

a)

Short acting

b)

Long acting

c)

Intermediate

d)

Rapid acting

75.

When mixing insulins, you mix two clears.

a)

True

b)
You do not mix any insulins.
c)

False

76.

ONSET of insulin is when it ______

a)
is fully absorbed into the bloodstream
b)
begins to lower blood glucose levels
c)
causes weight gain immediately
d)
starts to increase blood glucose levels
77.

PEAK of insulin is when it....

a)
is at its lowest concentration before a meal.
b)
is released steadily throughout the day.
c)
is only present during fasting periods.
d)

reaches its maximum effect.

78.

DURATION of insulin is when it ...

a)
is active in the body to lower blood glucose levels.
b)
is measured in units of time.
c)
is released only during meals.
d)
is stored in the pancreas for later use.
79.

The following onset, peak and duration would describe which type of insulin that mimics normal insulin production

Onset: 5-15 minutes

Peak: 1 hour

Duration: 3-5 hours

a)
Rapid-acting insulin
b)
Long-acting insulin
c)
Short-acting insulin
d)
Intermediate-acting insulin
80.

Insulin is only given through IV during emergencies

a)
True
b)
Insulin can be given orally in all cases
c)
Insulin is never given through IV
d)
Insulin is only administered through injections
81.

With rapid-acting insulin, you need to be eating within __ minutes

a)
15
b)
30
c)
10
d)
45
82.

Your patient's insulin prescription is below

20u NPH (Humulin N) at 8 am

8u NPH (Humulin N) at 8 pm

Give regular (Humulin R) as follows based on sliding scale below:

< 150 0 units
151-200 2 units
201-250 4 units
251– 300 6 units
301-350 8 units
>350 call MD

Your patient's blood sugar is 224. What insulin will be given at 8 am?

a)

10u NPH (Humulin N) 2u (Humulin R) at 8 am

b)

20u NPH (Humulin N) and 6u (Humulin R) at 8 am

c)

25u NPH (Humulin N) and 4u (Humulin R) at 8 am

d)

20u NPH (Humulin N) at 8 am

83.

Your patient needs 20u of NPH (Humulin N) and 6u of regular insulin (Humulin R).

Can this be given in one shot or two?

a)
Only NPH insulin
b)
One shot
c)
Only regular insulin
d)
Two shots
84.

What is an automated insulin delivery system also known as?

a)
insulin pump
b)
artificial pancreas
c)
glucose monitor
d)
diabetes tracker
85.

Hardening of tissue associated with a complication of insulin therapy?

a)
Lipohypertrophy
b)
Hypoglycemia
c)
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
d)
Insulin Resistance
86.

Loss of tissue which is common in insulin therapy

a)

Lipoatrophy

b)
Hyperplasia
c)
Atrophy
d)
Fibrosis
87.

Which insulins are considered to have
a rapid onset of action?
Select all that apply
A. Glargine (Lantus)
B. Glulisine (Apidra)
C. Humilin N (NPH)
D. Aspart (Novolog)
E. Lispro (Humalog)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

88.

The patient will be using an external
insulin pump. What does the nurse tell
the patient about the pump?
A. Monitoring of blood glucose levels with a
glucometer is not necessary
B. The insulin supply must be replaced every 2 to
4 weeks
C. The pump’s battery should be checked on a
regular weekly schedule
D. The needle site must be changed every 1 to 3
days

a)

A

b)


B

c)

C

d)

D

89.

A diabetic client is prescribed 12 units of NPH
insulin at 7:30 am. At 1 pm the client reports
feeling shaky and is diaphoretic. Which is the
explanation for the probable cause?
A. The NPH insulin’s action is peaking, and there is
an insufficient blood glucose level
B. The regular insulin’s action is peaking, and there
is an insufficient blood glucose level
C. The patient consumed too many calories at
breakfast and now has an elevated blood glucose
level
D. The symptoms are unrelated to the insulin
administered in the early morning or diet taken at
lunch time

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.

A client is ordered to get 20 units of
Novolin 70/30. How many units of
NPH will he get? How many Units of
Regular will he get?

a)
NPH: 10 units, Regular: 10 units
b)
NPH: 15 units, Regular: 5 units
c)
NPH: 12 units, Regular: 8 units
d)
NPH: 14 units, Regular: 6 units
91.

Additional treatments used alongside primary diabetes management (insulin/oral medications)

*cannot be mixed in same syringe as insulin

a)

Adjunctive therapy

b)

Oral hypoglycemics

c)

Insulin pen

d)

Insulin pump

92.

Type of adjunctive therapy used for Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes

-pramlintide acetate (Symlin)

a)
Sitagliptin (Januvia)
b)

Amylin Analogues

c)

Incretin Agents (GLP-1)

d)
Insulin glargine (Lantus)
93.

Type of adjunctive therapy that is for type 2 diabetes only.

-exenatide (Byetta)

-liraglutide (Victoza)

-dulaglutide (Trulicity)

-Semaglutide (Ozempic)

a)
metformin (Glucophage)
b)
insulin glargine (Lantus)
c)

Amylin Analogues

d)

Incretin Agents (GLP-1)

94.

Which diabetes medical treatment increases insulin secretion, reduces hepatic glucose production, delays food absorption, improves tissue sensitivity, and inhibits glucose reabsorption

-sulfonylureas, biguanides, meglitinide analogues, thiazolidinediones, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, incretin-DPP-4 inhibitors, SGLT2 inhibitors

a)

Incretin Agents (GLP-1)

b)

Adjunctive Therapy

c)

Oral Hypoglycemics

d)

Insulin pen

95.

Oral hypoglycemics are typically held in acute care.

a)
True
b)
Always administered in acute care
c)
Only in chronic care
d)
False
96.

Oral hypoglycemics are typically only used by type 1 diabetes patients.

a)
False
b)
Only type 2 diabetes patients use them
c)
They are used exclusively for gestational diabetes
d)
True
97.

What is the benefit of taking a combination oral anti-diabetic agent

a)
Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain.
b)
Only effective for type 1 diabetes management.
c)
No impact on blood sugar levels.
d)

Two mechanisms of glycemic control in one pill.

98.

What is the most accurate way to monitor diabetes?

a)
Urine tests for ketones
b)

Glycosylated Hemoglobin (A1C)

c)

Self Monitoring Blood Glucose/Informatics

d)

Continuous Blood Glucose Monitors

99.

A higher A1C percentage indicates a more unhealthy level of blood sugar.

a)
A higher A1C percentage indicates a healthier level of blood sugar.
b)
A lower A1C percentage indicates a more unhealthy level of blood sugar.
c)
True
d)

False

100.

An A1C percentage of _._ or higher indicates diabetes

a)
5.0%
b)
7.0%
c)
8.5%
d)
6.5%
101.

Hot and dry=

Cold and clammy=

a)

Hot and dry=Hypoglycemia

Cold and clammy=hyperglycemia

b)

Hot and dry=blood sugar is low

Cold and clammy=blood sugar high

c)

Hot and dry=sugar high

Cold and clammy=need some candy

d)

Hot and dry=see your dr.

Cold and clammy=see your mammy

102.

Life threatening complication resulting from lack of insulin

-medical emergency

-patient develops severe hyperglycemia (>250mg/dL)

a)
Hypoglycemia
b)
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
c)

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)

d)
Insulin Resistance
103.

Diabetes Ketoacidosis typically only occurs in type 1 diabetes.

a)
False
b)
Diabetes Ketoacidosis is a rare condition that affects only adults.
c)
Diabetes Ketoacidosis can occur in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
d)
True
104.

Your patient's skin is flush, dry and warm. They are experiencing nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, are confused, and have a decreasing level of consciousness. They are very weak and reported weight loss in the past month. They also mentioned increased thirst, urination, and hunger over the past few weeks.

Their vitals are 100/64, 110 bpm, and 26 deep breaths per minute

Their labs showed hyperkalemia and ketones in the urine.

All these symptoms indicate...

a)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
b)
Addison's disease
c)
Hyperthyroidism
d)

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)

105.

Diabetic ketoacidosis interventions include:

a)

Oral antidiabetics

b)

Electrolyte therapy

c)

IV Fluids

d)

IV Insulin (short-acting/regular)

106.

Life threatening reaction resulting from very high blood sugar levels (>600mg/dL)

-usually caused by infection

a)
Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)
b)
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
c)
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)
d)
Hypoglycemia
107.

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS) is usually only seen in Type 1 diabetics.

a)
False
b)
Common in both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetics
c)
True
d)
Only seen in Type 2 diabetics
108.

Your patient is in a hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state. Which action most likely is the cause of this state?

a)
Increased physical activity leading to low blood sugar.
b)
High carbohydrate intake without insulin adjustment.
c)
Excessive insulin production due to medication.
d)
Inadequate insulin production or action in response to stress or illness.
109.

Your patient appears confused, experienced weight loss, polyuria, and has a decreasing level of consciousness. They are severely dehydrated and ketones are not in their urine.

Their vitals are: 105/58, 119 bpm, 102.2 F.

What is your patient most likely experiencing

a)
Septic shock
b)
Acute kidney injury (AKI)
c)
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS)
d)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
110.

Your patient is in a Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State. What interventions will they most likely be completed on the patient?

a)
Provide a high-carbohydrate diet and limit fluid intake.
b)

Administer IV fluids, IV regular insulin, and electrolytes.

c)
Start dialysis immediately and discontinue all medications.
d)
Administer oral glucose and monitor blood pressure.
111.

What acute complication occurs when blood sugar falls below 70 mg/dL?

a)
Diabetes Mellitus
b)
Hyperglycemia
c)
Hypoglycemia
d)
Insulin Resistance
112.

Other names for hypoglycemia include:

a)
diabetic coma
b)

insulin shock

c)

insulin reaction

d)
glucose overload
113.

Your patient received their insulin, did not eat any of their lunch, and is now sweaty, shaking, confused, and has blurred vision. What is your patient experiencing?

a)
Hypoglycemia
b)
Hyperglycemia
c)
Dehydration
d)
Anxiety Attack
114.

Which of the following could cause hypoglycemia?

a)
Eating a high-sugar snack
b)

Insufficient food

c)

Excess insulin

d)

Excess exercise

115.


The nurse knows that a blood sugar level of
40mg/dL indicates which condition?
A. ketoacidosis
B. normal serum blood glucose
C. insulin reaction
D. glycosuria


a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

116.

Acute complication in which there is a rise in blood glucose between 4-8 am

-not a response to hypoglycemia

-will need more basal insulin before bed

a)
Somogyi Effect
b)
Dawn Phenomenon
c)
Reactive Hypoglycemia
d)
Insulin Resistance
117.

An acute complication in which there is a combination of hypoglycemia during the night with rebound morning rise to hyperglycemia

-will need snack or decreased basal insulin before bed

a)
Dawn phenomenon
b)
Reactive hypoglycemia
c)

Somogyi phenomenon

d)
Insulin shock
118.

Damage to the large blood vessels caused by high blood sugar, leads to problems like Cardiovascular and Peripheral vascular disease (heart disease, stroke, poor circulation)

a)
Anemia and fatigue
b)

Chronic macrovascular complication

c)

Chronic microvascular complication

d)
Diabetes insipidus
119.

Damage to small blood vessels caused by high blood sugar, leading to diabetic retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy, male erectile dysfunction.

a)
High blood pressure complications
b)
Liver damage from alcohol
c)

Chronic macrovascular complication

d)

Chronic microvascular complication

120.

How can chronic complications such as macrovascular and microvascular be prevented?

a)
Ignoring blood sugar levels
b)

Managing blood sugar

c)
Eating more processed foods
d)
Reducing physical activity
121.

What is diabetic retinopathy?

a)
A type of eye surgery for diabetes patients.
b)
Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the eyes, specifically the retina.
c)
A genetic disorder affecting vision.
d)
A medication used to treat high blood sugar.
122.

When referring to surgical treatment of diabetes, Islet Cell Transplant is more common than Whole Pancreas Transplant.

a)
True
b)
Islet Cell Transplant is only performed in children.
c)
Both transplants are equally common.
d)
Whole Pancreas Transplant is more common than Islet Cell Transplant.
123.

What nursing intervention should you complete on your patient if their blood sugar is 50-69 mg/dL.

a)
Administer insulin immediately.
b)
Encourage the patient to eat a high-fat meal.
c)
Monitor blood sugar levels every hour.
d)
Administer 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates.
124.

How long do you wait to recheck blood sugar after treatment?

a)
15 minutes
b)
5 minutes
c)
30 minutes
d)
1 hour
125.

What nursing intervention should you complete on your patient if their blood sugar is <50mg/dL

a)
Administer insulin immediately.
b)
Encourage the patient to eat a high-carb meal.
c)

Administer 30g of a fast-acting source of glucose.

d)

Administer 15g of a fast-acting source of glucose

126.

Your patient's blood sugar is 44mg/dL and they are unconscious. What nursing intervention do you complete?

a)
Perform a blood transfusion.
b)
Administer intravenous dextrose (D50).
c)
Administer oral glucose tablets.
d)
Give the patient water to drink.
127.

If a patient is experiencing severe hypoglycemia at home, what is the next best intervention to treat this patient's condition?

a)

Give the patient water to drink

b)

Glucagon IV

c)

Give IV 50% Dextrose

d)

Administer baqsimi (glucagon) nasal powder 3 mg

128.

Once a patient's blood sugar is back to >70 mg/dL after an unstable blood glucose, what do you do next?

a)

Provide complex carb and protein snack

b)
Administer insulin immediately.
c)
Provide a high-sugar snack.
d)
Schedule a follow-up appointment for next week.
129.

What are good travel rules to educate a diabetic client on?

a)

Have rapid acting glucose sources at all times

b)

Skip medication if feeling fine

c)

Take medications as a carry on

d)

Wear diabetic identification

130.

What is good practice when consuming alcohol while on insulin?

a)
Drink alcohol on an empty stomach
b)
Avoid checking blood sugar levels
c)
Increase insulin dosage while drinking
d)

Eating is critical when consuming alcohol on insulin

131.

What are some nursing interventions that can be completed to help with peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Administer gabapentin (Neurontin)

b)

Encourage nonpharmacological alternatives such as massage, deep breathing, and rest

c)
Increase caffeine intake
d)
Advise against regular check-ups
132.

What is a big focus when dealing with disturbed sensory perception in diabetes?

a)
Increasing physical activity levels.
b)

Taking medications regularly

c)

Foot care

133.

Your patient has advanced disturbed sensory perception as a result of diabetes. What are some interventions that you will implement into their care?

a)

Inspect feet daily

b)

Wear comfortable, broken-in shoes

c)

See a podiatrists as needed to trim thick toenails

d)

Take aspirin daily as ordered

134.

When should you call the doctor when you are sick with diabetes?

a)

Call the doctor if you are unable to eat for more than 24 hours or vomiting/diarrhea for more than 6 hours

b)

Call the doctor if you have unusual fatigue, runny nose, and cough

c)

Call the doctor if you feel hungry

d)
Call the doctor for a common cold