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Minimum Monitoring Recommendations

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations, how often should core body temperature be monitored during anesthesia?

a)

Every 10–20 minutes

b)

Every 30–60 minutes

c)

Every 2 hours

d)

Only at the beginning and end of anesthesia

2.

A rectal thermometer underestimates core body temperature and is safe for all patients.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

An esophageal thermometer can be inserted during anesthesia, but should not be left in place during ________.

a)

recovery

b)

induction

c)

surgery

d)

intubation

4.

Multiparameter monitors include which types of temperature probes?

a)

Oral or axillary

b)

Rectal or esophageal

c)

Tympanic or skin

d)

Forehead or wrist

5.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a vital sign to monitor during anesthesia?

a)

Heart/pulse rate

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Mucous membrane color

6.

Capillary ________ time is one of the vital signs to monitor during anesthesia.

a)

refill

b)

pulse

c)

pressure

d)

volume

7.

Which of the following vital signs includes rhythm, strength, and quality?

a)

Heart/pulse rate

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Capillary refill time

d)

Blood pressure

8.

Respiratory rate, rhythm, and quality are important vital signs to monitor during anesthesia.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is the purpose of using pulse oximetry during recovery from anesthesia?

a)

To aid early recognition and intervention of post-anesthetic hypoxia.

b)

To monitor blood pressure fluctuations.

c)

To assess the depth of anesthesia.

d)

To measure carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

10.

At what SpO₂ value should supplemental oxygen be provided according to minimum monitoring recommendations?

a)

If SpO₂ is less than 94%.

b)

If SpO₂ is less than 98%.

c)

If SpO₂ is less than 90%.

d)

If SpO₂ is less than 80%.

11.

Supplemental oxygen should be stopped when the patient can maintain SpO₂ values above 94% for 5 minutes off oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When are IV fluids typically stopped during recovery according to minimum monitoring recommendations?

a)

IV fluids are typically stopped during recovery.

b)

IV fluids are typically stopped before anesthesia induction.

c)

IV fluids are typically stopped during the preoperative assessment.

d)

IV fluids are typically stopped after discharge from the recovery area.

13.

If a patient is hypovolemic and requires fluid therapy, what should be checked regularly on the IV catheter?

a)

Patency, cleanliness, irritation, and security; re-bandage if necessary.

b)

Only the color of the fluid in the IV line.

c)

Just the patient's temperature and heart rate.

d)

The IV catheter should not be checked once placed.

14.

What are possible complications of IV catheter care mentioned in the minimum monitoring recommendations?

a)

T-port or cap coming off, leading to blood loss.

b)

Catheter causing immediate allergic reaction.

c)

IV catheter turning into a permanent implant.

d)

Catheter transmitting wireless signals.

15.

According to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations, pain assessment should be made by the same person in the same manner each time.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following may cause a patient to vocalize according to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations?

a)

Pain

b)

Emergency delirium

c)

Dysphoria

d)

All of the above

17.

What is likely to occur if a patient is extubated and immediately becomes vocal and begins thrashing, according to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations?

a)

Emergence delirium

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Anaphylactic reaction

d)

Cardiac arrest

18.

If a patient does not settle or gets worse, what should be assessed according to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations?

a)

Assess for pain versus dysphoria

b)

Check for fever and infection

c)

Monitor blood glucose levels

d)

Evaluate for dehydration

19.

According to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations, patients in pain are generally:

a)

Consolable

b)

Not consolable

20.

Patients with dysphoria commonly respond to gentle palpation of the surgical site.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

According to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations, what other differentials should be considered besides pain and dysphoria?

a)

Need to urinate or defecate, inability to breathe due to hypoxemia, or just wanting to be held

b)

Hunger and thirst, excessive sleepiness, or excitement from loud noises

c)

Allergic reaction to medication, dehydration, or exposure to cold temperatures

d)

Overstimulation from light, lack of exercise, or boredom

22.

What is included in mentation assessment according to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations?

a)

Assessment of level of consciousness and patient’s reaction to environment

b)

Assessment of blood pressure

c)

Assessment of heart rate

d)

Assessment of body temperature

23.

How often should mentation assessment be performed according to the recommendations?

a)

Only once

b)

At regular intervals

c)

Every hour

d)

Only when patient is obtunded

24.

According to the recommendations, significant changes or trend toward less responsiveness should be _______.

a)

reported

b)

ignored

c)

delayed

d)

celebrated

25.

Who is optimal to assess mentation according to the Minimum Monitoring Recommendations?

a)

Different people each time

b)

The same person

c)

The patient’s family

d)

The veterinarian only

26.

If a patient remains extremely obtunded, what should be assessed?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Vital signs and other parameters

c)

Body weight

d)

Appetite

27.

Administering diluted reversal drug is generally recommended unless the patient is having an adverse effect.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Supplemental oxygen should be provided during recovery if the patient’s oxygen saturation drops below what level?

a)

87%

b)

90%

c)

94%

d)

96%

29.

Supplemental oxygen should be provided during recovery if the patient’s oxygen saturation drops below what level?

a)

90%

b)

92%

c)

94%

d)

96%

30.

How long should oxygen be administered before moving a patient into the recovery area whenever possible?

a)

1 to 2 minutes

b)

5 to 10 minutes

c)

15 to 20 minutes

d)

30 minutes

31.

Which of the following is a method for supplying oxygen to patients in recovery?

a)

Patient remains attached to breathing circuit with vaporizer turned off and oxygen left on

b)

Patient is immediately moved to recovery without oxygen

c)

Patient is given oral oxygen tablets

d)

Patient is placed under a heat lamp

32.

If administration in extubated patient during routine recovery causes undo stress, ______ oxygen or move patient to oxygen cage.

a)

discontinue

b)

increase

c)

humidify

d)

monitor

33.

Which method is more common for horses when post-anesthetic oxygen is medically necessary?

a)

Place NT tube through nares and into trachea

b)

Administer via face mask

c)

Use nasal cannula

d)

Place animal in oxygen cage

34.

Face mask or end of breathing circuit can be used if a patient requires extubation during oxygen administration in recovery.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Methods if post-anesthetic oxygen is medically necessary include placing the animal in an oxygen cage or administering via ______ or nasal cannula.

a)

face mask

b)

endotracheal tube

c)

intravenous line

d)

oral tablet

36.

Why is it important to keep the airway open during patient positioning?

a)

To ensure the patient can breathe properly and prevent airway obstruction.

b)

To increase the patient's blood pressure.

c)

To improve the patient's digestion.

d)

To reduce the risk of skin infections.

37.

How should a patient be positioned for comfort and safety during recovery?

a)

In lateral recumbency

b)

In sternal recumbency whenever possible

c)

Standing

d)

Prone

38.

Horses are an exception and can lay in lateral recumbency during patient positioning.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What can elevating the patient's head with pillows or rolled towels help prevent once ETT is removed?

a)

Aspiration

b)

Hypotension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

40.

Why should you be aware of the surgery site and areas of the body that might be painful postoperatively?

a)

To avoid causing additional pain or discomfort to the patient.

b)

To increase the risk of infection.

c)

To ignore the patient's complaints.

d)

To ensure the patient remains unconscious.

41.

It is best not to move the patient too much after surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Why must you watch the position of the ETT carefully when turning the patient?

a)

To prevent tracheal damage.

b)

To increase oxygen delivery.

c)

To improve patient comfort.

d)

To reduce blood pressure.

43.

If Elizabethan collar required, when should it be placed on the patient?

a)

Well before patient completely awakens

b)

After the patient is fully awake

c)

Only if the patient starts scratching

d)

Just before discharge from hospital

44.

Why is it easier to apply the Elizabethan collar before the patient is able to bite and scratch at the collar?

a)

Because the patient is less likely to resist or injure itself before fully awake.

b)

Because the collar is more flexible when the patient is asleep.

c)

Because the collar can only be fastened while the patient is unconscious.

d)

Because the patient will not remember the collar being applied.

45.

Handling Fractious Patients: What does applying the Elizabethan collar help reduce?

a)

Level of fractiousness and degree of self-trauma to surgery site

b)

Risk of infection from airborne pathogens

c)

Need for sedation during recovery

d)

Amount of medication required for pain management

46.

What must you do after placing an Elizabethan collar on a patient?

a)

Watch patient diligently in case it develops difficulties with collar

b)

Remove the collar immediately after placement

c)

Feed the patient through the collar

d)

Ignore the patient for several hours

47.

If a patient is too fractious to handle safely, what is the best option?

a)

Crate may be best option

b)

Give food immediately

c)

Ignore the patient

d)

Let the patient roam freely

48.

Handling Fractious Patients: Where should you place the patient's head when putting it in a crate?

a)

At the door

b)

At the back of the crate

c)

In the middle of the crate

d)

Facing upwards

49.

Handling Fractious Patients: Why should the crate be placed where the patient is visible?

a)

So recovery can be monitored

b)

To make the patient feel more comfortable

c)

To allow other animals to see the patient

d)

To keep the crate out of the way

50.

Handling Fractious Patients: What may be required for large dogs once extubated?

a)

Basket muzzle

b)

Elizabethan collar

c)

Bandage wrap

d)

Sedation

51.

What is the process of removing ETT called?

a)

Extubation

b)

Intubation

c)

Tracheostomy

d)

Bronchoscopy

52.

What is the main indicator for extubation?

a)

Swallow reflex

b)

Cough reflex

c)

Gag reflex

d)

Ability to follow commands

53.

Which of the following should prompt extubation?

a)

Swallowing

b)

Movement

c)

Robust cranial nerve signs in response to touching or talking to patient

d)

All of the above

54.

For brachycephalic dogs, what is the safest position to recover after extubation?

a)

Sternal recumbency with head elevated, mouth open, and tongue pulled forward

b)

Lateral recumbency with head lowered and mouth closed

c)

Dorsal recumbency with head flat and tongue inside the mouth

d)

Standing position with head down and mouth closed

55.

A dedicated technician to monitor recovery is essential for brachycephalic dogs after extubation.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which of the following should be available to provide support after extubation?

a)

Oxygen therapy

b)

Pulse oximeter

c)

Clean ETT

d)

Induction agent

e)

All of the above

57.

Is tranquilization considered on a case-by-case basis after extubation?

a)

True

b)

False

58.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, prior to extubation, it is optimal for the patient to continue breathing oxygen for how many minutes after the vaporizer has been turned off?

a)

5 to 10 minutes

b)

1 to 2 minutes

c)

15 to 20 minutes

d)

30 to 40 minutes

59.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, delivery of 100% oxygen helps to remove which agent?

a)

inhalant anesthetic agent

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

nitrous oxide

d)

blood clot

60.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, before extubation, what should be visually inspected for foreign material and cleared of any accumulation of blood, gauze, lubricants, tartar, or other materials?

a)

oropharynx

b)

nasopharynx

c)

larynx

d)

trachea

61.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, in most patients, the cuff should be deflated immediately prior to removal of what?

a)

ETT (endotracheal tube)

b)

NG tube (nasogastric tube)

c)

IV cannula

d)

Urinary catheter

62.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, the ETT should be disconnected from which hose and the oxygen turned off?

a)

breathing hose

b)

suction hose

c)

water hose

d)

vacuum hose

63.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, the ETT should be untied and gently pulled to remove from what?

a)

patient

b)

ventilator

c)

monitor

d)

bed

64.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, animals anesthetized for GI surgery are prone to movement of fluid into which area?

a)

pharynx

b)

trachea

c)

esophagus

d)

nasal cavity

65.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, during GI surgery, the head should be positioned to allow drainage of fluid from where?

a)

pharynx

b)

trachea

c)

esophagus

d)

larynx

66.

According to the Guidelines for Extubation, when removing the ETT in animals anesthetized for GI surgery, the cuff should be inflated and the head should be tilted in which direction?

a)

down

b)

up

c)

left

d)

right