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Worksheets

Net+ Final Review

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A network technician has just verified the user’s issue. According to CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology, what should the technician do next?


a)

Document the findings and solution

b)

Establish a theory of probable cause

c)

Implement preventive measures

d)

Escalate the issue to a higher tier

2.

Multiple compromised computers under remote control are used to perform a coordinated DDoS attack. What is this network of systems called?

a)

Trojan farm

b)

Command cluster

c)

Zombie hub

d)

Botnet

3.

Which protocol is responsible for encrypting communications within HTTPS?

a)

SSL

b)

IPsec

c)

TLS

d)

SSH

4.

You need a subnet that supports at least 260 usable hosts. Which network fits this requirement?

a)

192.168.1.0/24

b)

 192.168.1.0/25

c)

192.168.1.0/23

d)

192.168.1.0/26

5.

A company needs a disaster recovery site that is fully equipped with hardware, software, and data replication ready for immediate use. Which site type should they use?

a)

Hot site

b)

Cold site

c)

Warm site

d)

Hybrid site

6.

Which best describes the purpose of Private VLANs (PVLANs)?

a)

To allow multiple VLANs to share the same subnet

b)

To isolate devices within the same VLAN for security

c)

To extend VLANs across multiple switches

d)

To tag VLAN traffic across trunk links

7.

One user is redirected to an unexpected website when typing a familiar URL, while others are unaffected. What is the most likely cause?

a)

DNS cache poisoning

b)

ARP spoofing attack

c)

Browser proxy misconfiguration

d)

Incorrect hosts file entry

8.

What is a heat map used for in wireless networking?

a)

To identify areas of overlapping IP address ranges

b)

To visualize wireless signal coverage and strength

c)

To show CPU temperatures of network devices

d)

To display bandwidth utilization across a WAN

9.

What does the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) define?

a)

The maximum time it takes to recover a system

b)

The acceptable amount of data loss measured in time

c)

The frequency of incremental backups

d)

The order in which systems are restored

10.

A 2.4 GHz wireless network experiences interference from nearby industrial equipment. What two actions could reduce interference?

a)

Switch to 5 GHz frequency or use non-overlapping 2.4 GHz channels

b)

Replace APs with fiber uplinks

c)

Disable SSID broadcasting or shorten beacon intervals

d)

Increase transmit power or use overlapping channels

11.

What does the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) component of IPsec provide?

a)

Only authentication

b)

Only encryption

c)

Encryption, integrity, and authentication

d)

Compression and tunneling only

12.

Why would an administrator temporarily reduce the TTL (Time To Live) of a DNS record before changing an MX record?

a)

To prevent DNS caching errors and speed up propagation

b)

To reduce latency for DNS lookups

c)

To improve load balancing across mail servers

d)

To force DNS servers to switch to IPv6

13.

When configuring SNMP, what is the role of a Management Information Base (MIB)?

a)

Stores user credentials for SNMP authentication

b)

Encrypts SNMP messages between devices

c)

Collects raw network statistics

d)

Contains definitions of network objects and events

14.

A user cannot connect to the network. You confirm that all cables are properly connected, but there are no activity lights on either the NIC or the switchport. What is the most likely issue?

a)

DHCP server is offline

b)

The switchport is administratively shut down

c)

The NIC driver is outdated

d)

The cable is a crossover instead of straight-through

15.

A network administrator is implementing a software-defined WAN (SD-WAN) solution to connect multiple branch offices. Which of the following BEST describes a primary benefit of using SD-WAN compared to traditional WAN technologies?

a)

 It requires only dedicated MPLS circuits for reliable performance

b)

It centralizes control and allows dynamic path selection based on real-time conditions

c)

It eliminates the need for encryption across WAN links

d)

It uses static routing to simplify configuration at branch sites

16.

When designing a new server room rack, which two measurements are important to consider?

a)

Server height (U) and switch depth

b)

Cable color and server voltage

c)

Switch width and rack airflow direction

d)

UPS wattage and grounding cable gauge

17.

Why would a network engineer tag voice traffic on a switch?

a)

To encrypt VoIP data

b)

To prioritize voice packets for QoS

c)

To block voice packets from other VLANs

d)

To compress voice packets for bandwidth efficiency

18.

What is the goal of a MAC flooding attack?

a)

Overload the DHCP pool with requests

b)

Disable VLAN tagging on a trunk

c)

Capture DNS queries between clients and servers

d)

Flood the switch’s MAC table to force broadcast forwarding

19.

Why are Network Time Protocol (NTP) servers important?

a)

They synchronize system clocks across network devices

b)

They monitor latency between routers

c)

They manage DNS resolution

d)

They encrypt log transmissions

20.

Which routing protocol uses an Autonomous System Number (ASN)?

a)

OSPF

b)

EIGRP

c)

RIP

d)

BGP

21.

Two routers need to connect in a point-to-point (PTP) configuration. Which subnet mask is best?

a)

/24

b)

/30

c)

/27

d)

/29

22.

Why would an organization implement a Hybrid Cloud deployment?

a)

To completely eliminate on-premises hardware

b)

To combine private and public resources for flexibility

c)

To reduce all security requirements

d)

To outsource all network functions

23.

What is the primary purpose of the tracert command?

a)

Test DNS name resolution

b)

Display MAC address table entries

c)

 Identify the path packets take to a destination

d)

Measure available bandwidth on a link

24.

Which fiber connector type is commonly used with network interface cards (NICs)?

a)

ST

b)

LC

c)

SC

d)

RJ-45

25.

A computer shows IP address 169.254.12.15/16 and cannot reach the Internet. What is the most likely issue?

a)

DHCP server offline or unreachable

b)

DNS cache corruption

c)

Incorrect default gateway

d)

Duplicate IP conflict

26.

While troubleshooting a fiber-optic connection, a network technician suspects that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers may be crossed. What should the technician do first to verify and correct the issue?

a)

Replace the fiber connectors with new ones

b)

Reverse the TX and RX fibers at one end of the connection

c)

Run an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR) test

d)

Clean the fiber ends and test again

27.

What is a primary feature of a full-tunnel VPN?

a)

Routes only company traffic through the VPN

b)

Allows simultaneous direct Internet and VPN access

c)

Routes all user data through the company network

d)

Encrypts only VoIP packets

28.

Which routing protocol has a default administrative distance (AD) of 90?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

29.

What is the main cost-effective advantage of using a split-tunnel VPN configuration?

a)

It reduces bandwidth usage by allowing direct Internet access

b)

It encrypts all user traffic through the corporate network

c)

It provides the highest level of packet inspection

d)

It blocks local network communication when VPN is active

30.

What are the three core services provided by the RADIUS protocol?

a)

Identification, Isolation, and Inspection

b)

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

c)

Allocation, Access, and Assignment

d)

Encryption, Encoding, and Evaluation

31.

Which regulation governs the security and handling of personal data in the European Union?

a)

HIPAA

b)

SOX

c)

GDPR

d)

CCPA

32.

Which command gives you this output?

a)

tracert

b)

ipconfig

c)

nslookup

d)

dig

33.

Which type of attack could result in duplicate IP addresses and network instability?

a)

DNS poisoning

b)

MAC flooding

c)

ARP spoofing

d)

Rogue DHCP server

34.

What is the default priority value for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a)

0

b)

100

c)

32768

d)

65535

35.

During troubleshooting, which step confirms your theory of probable cause?

a)

Duplicate the problem

b)

Implement a solution

c)

Document findings

d)

Identify the problem

36.

If a DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses, what issue will users experience?

a)

Intermittent DNS failures

b)

Network congestion

c)

No network connectivity

d)

Duplicate MAC addresses

37.

A company discovers that they have employees using their ISP service to download large torrent files.  What could the company have its cybersecurity experts do to stop this?

a)

Content filtering

b)

Port forwarding

c)

Network address translation

d)

QoS shaping

38.

Which of the following IPsec components provides data integrity and authentication but does NOT encrypt the payload?

a)

ESP

b)

AH

c)

IKE

d)

SSL

39.

During the establishment of an IPsec tunnel, which protocol handles the negotiation of security parameters and key exchange?

a)

SSL

b)

GRE

c)

IKE

d)

ESP

40.

What is the function of 802.1Q tagging?

a)

Encrypt VLAN traffic

b)

Balance traffic between VLANs

c)

Create private VLANs

d)

Mark VLAN traffic on trunk links

41.

When would an administrator use the netstat command?

a)

To view open network connections and listening ports

b)

To verify DNS resolution

c)

To map network topology

d)

To monitor CPU usage

42.

Why would a technician decommission and replace a switch?

a)

End of support from manufacturer

b)

Low CPU usage

c)

VLAN configuration error

d)

MAC address overflow

43.

After testing and confirming the root cause of a problem, what comes next in CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology?

a)

Implement the solution

b)

Document findings

c)

Identify the problem again

d)

Escalate the issue

44.

A company wants to enforce port-based authentication for all wired and wireless devices. Which standard should be used?

a)

802.11ax

b)

802.1Q

c)

802.1X

d)

802.3af

45.

Which attack could redirect legitimate traffic from a company’s website to a malicious one?

a)

ARP poisoning

b)

DNS poisoning

c)

MAC flooding

d)

DHCP starvation

46.

When adding Operational Technology (OT) devices to a corporate network, which logical security control should be implemented?

a)

VLAN trunking

b)

Network segmentation

c)

Port mirroring

d)

Jumbo frame support

47.

Which two environmental factors should always be considered for IT systems in a datacenter?

a)

Humidity and fire suppression

b)

Rack height and UPS wattage

c)

Cable color and patch panel type

d)

Power outlet brand and label color

48.

What does an Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID) offer that a regular SSID does not?

a)

WPA3 encryption

b)

Roaming between multiple access points

c)

Higher frequency channel width

d)

VLAN tagging

49.

You need to split a 192.168.10.0/24 network into two equal subnets. Which subnet mask should you use?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.255.128

c)

255.255.255.192

d)

255.255.255.224

50.

What is the valid IPv4 multicast address range?

a)

169.254.0.0–169.254.255.255

b)

192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255

c)

224.0.0.0–239.255.255.255

d)

240.0.0.0–255.255.255.255

51.

What is the purpose of link aggregation?

a)

Provide fault tolerance and increased bandwidth by combining multiple interfaces

b)

Enable VLAN hopping between switches

c)

Segment broadcast domains

d)

Encrypt Ethernet frames

52.

What does Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measure?

a)

The average time to restore a system after failure

b)

The average operating time before a system fails

c)

The time to detect a network intrusion

d)

The total uptime of a network

53.

What is the primary function of an Access Control List (ACL) on a router or firewall?

a)

Encrypt packets in transit

b)

Translate public to private IP addresses

c)

Store DHCP lease records

d)

Filter traffic based on IP, protocol, or port

54.

What is the advantage of out-of-band management?

a)

It allows device management even if the primary network is down

b)

 It uses encryption to hide management traffic

c)

It allows users to bypass authentication

d)

It increases bandwidth for management traffic

55.

Which best describes a VLAN hopping attack?

a)

A user gains access to restricted VLANs by sending tagged packets

b)

A device overloads a VLAN trunk to cause a DoS

c)

VLANs are merged during a firmware upgrade

d)

A rogue DHCP server assigns VLAN tags

56.

What is a CNAME (Canonical Name) record used for in DNS?

a)

Points a domain name to an IP address

b)

Maps one domain name to another domain name

c)

Stores mail exchange (MX) data

d)

Defines authoritative name servers

57.

What does Administrative Distance indicate in routing?

a)

The reliability of a route source

b)

Bandwidth consumption

c)

Network latency

d)

Number of hops to a destination

58.

What are subinterfaces used for?

a)

Segmenting a single physical interface into multiple logical ones

b)

Converting IPv4 to IPv6

c)

Bridging VLANs with wireless

d)

Encrypting management traffic

59.

What is the purpose of creating security zones on a network?

a)

Improve network speed

b)

Encrypt switch management traffic

c)

Reduce VLAN overhead

d)

Separate and control access between different areas

60.

In the 2.4 GHz band, why should channels 1, 6, and 11 be used?

a)

They provide higher data rates

b)

They are non-overlapping and reduce interference

c)

They automatically switch to 5 GHz

d)

They support WPA3 exclusively

61.

In the CompTIA troubleshooting process, reviewing recent system logs for changes occurs during which step?

a)

Identify the problem

b)

Establish a theory

c)

Verify full functionality

d)

Implement preventive measures

62.

What is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?

a)

To separate multiple customers’ computing resources in a shared cloud

b)

To replace local servers entirely

c)

To eliminate the need for subnets

d)

To provide dedicated fiber connectivity to a data center

63.

How does a clientless VPN differ from a traditional VPN?

a)

 It requires a VPN software installation

b)

 It uses a standard web browser for secure access

c)

 It only supports wired connections

d)

It provides no encryption

64.

You need a subnet that provides 6 usable IP addresses. What subnet mask should be used?

a)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

b)

255.255.255.248 (/29)

c)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

d)

255.255.255.192 (/26)

65.

What is the purpose of Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)?

a)

To encrypt link-layer traffic

b)

To advertise device identity and capabilities to neighbors

c)

To monitor spanning tree convergence

d)

To balance VLAN traffic

66.

What must a user do before gaining access through a captive portal?

a)

Enter a static IP

b)

Configure a VPN

c)

Disable DHCP

d)

Interact with the portal (e.g., accept terms or log in)

67.

What does the principle of least privilege ensure in network access?

a)

Users receive access to all VLANs

b)

Users have only the minimum rights required to perform their tasks

c)

Only administrators can use wireless

d)

All devices share the same credentials

68.

What is the difference between a honeypot and a honeynet?

a)

A honeynet is a collection of honeypots designed to mimic a full network

b)

A honeypot contains real production data

c)

A honeynet is used for load balancing

d)

There is no difference between them

69.

What is multitenancy in cloud computing?

a)

Each user gets a dedicated hardware server

b)

Multiple customers share the same physical resources securely

c)

Each customer manages their own hypervisor

d)

Tenants share the same credentials

70.

Which protocol uses datagrams to transfer data without establishing a session?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

ICMP

d)

ARP

71.

What happens if a PoE switch exceeds its power budget?

a)

All ports shut down immediately

b)

Non-essential ports lose power first

c)

Newly connected PoE devices fail to power on

d)

 Switch fans increase speed

72.

Which two functions occur at OSI Layer 2?

a)

Routing and fragmentation

b)

Local addressing and error detection

c)

Encryption and decryption

d)

Session management and synchronization

73.

What is the primary purpose of a captive portal?

a)

To provide access to administrative consoles

b)

To control guest network access via authentication page

c)

To encrypt all user data end-to-end

d)

To block wireless signal interference

74.

Which routing protocol has a default administrative distance of 110?

a)

RIP

b)

EIGRP

c)

OSPF

d)

BGP

75.

Which cloud model primarily focuses on application delivery rather than infrastructure management?

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

c)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

d)

Anything as a Service (XaaS)

76.

What is the main purpose of a tamper-evident seal on network hardware?

a)

To prevent devices from overheating

b)

To alert technicians if a device has been opened or accessed

c)

To identify firmware version

d)

To ensure redundancy in data backup

77.

Which configuration can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks?

a)

Disable trunking on unneeded ports

b)

 Enable dynamic ARP inspection

c)

 Increase switch MTU size

d)

Use broadcast storm control

78.

A datacenter fire may have destroyed data backups. Which metric defines how much data loss is acceptable between backups?

a)

RTO

b)

SLA

c)

RPO

d)

MTTR

79.

What does a split-tunnel VPN do?

a)

Routes all user traffic through the VPN connection

b)

Sends only corporate traffic through the VPN while allowing direct Internet access

c)

Requires manual switching between tunnels

d)

Blocks non-encrypted traffic entirely

80.

Which disaster recovery site type is fully operational and ready for immediate failover?

a)

Cold site

b)

Warm site

c)

Hot site

d)

Mobile site

81.

Which tool helps discover hosts and open ports across a network for troubleshooting?

a)

nmap

b)

ipconfig

c)

nslookup

d)

netstat

82.

What is the main goal of a hot aisle/cold aisle datacenter layout?

a)

Improve cabling organization

b)

Simplify power distribution

c)

Prevent dust buildup on servers

d)

Enhance cooling efficiency by separating airflow

83.

X.509 certificates are most commonly associated with which technology?

a)

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

b)

SNMP

c)

MAC filtering

d)

IPSec tunneling

84.

What improvement does SNMPv3 introduce over previous versions?

a)

VLAN management support

b)

Data compression

c)

Authentication and encryption for management traffic

d)

Automatic device reboot capability

85.

What is the function of an NS (Name Server) record in DNS?

a)

Identifies the mail server for a domain

b)

Points to authoritative DNS servers for the domain

c)

Stores domain aliases

d)

Caches A-record lookups locally

86.

What is the main advantage of 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) over previous Wi-Fi standards?

a)

Designed for high-density environments and improved efficiency

b)

Uses 6 GHz exclusively

c)

Operates only on 2.4 GHz channels

d)

Replaces wired Ethernet connections entirely

87.

What is the function of an SVI on a switch?

a)

Provides Layer 3 gateway access for a VLAN

b)

Controls port security on trunk links

c)

Mirrors packets between interfaces

d)

Authenticates users via RADIUS

88.

When should Jumbo Frames be used?

a)

On networks carrying large data transfers such as backups or virtualization

b)

On slow legacy networks

c)

Only for wireless traffic

d)

When multicast traffic is disabled

89.

What is the purpose of the 127.0.0.1 loopback address?

a)

Checks physical NIC operation only

b)

Verifies DNS server availability

c)

Routes packets to the default gateway

d)

Tests connectivity to the local TCP/IP stack

90.

Which statement best describes GSM technology?

a)

A wired LAN authentication protocol

b)

A global mobile standard using SIM cards for subscriber identity

c)

A satellite-based Internet technology

d)

A short-range Bluetooth variant

91.

To set up a wireless connection that uses MIMO and non-overlapping channels, which 802.11 standard should be selected?

a)

802.11ac

b)

802.11g

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11n

92.

What is the purpose of band steering on a wireless access point?

a)

Forcing legacy devices to disconnect

b)

Directing capable clients to the 5 GHz band

c)

Combining 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz into one SSID

d)

Restricting access to 2.4 GHz only

93.

Which routing protocol is primarily used for interconnecting WANs and ISPs on the Internet?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

94.

What is the main advantage of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)?

a)

Replaces physical network devices with virtualized services

b)

Increases wireless signal range

c)

Eliminates the need for routing protocols

d)

Encrypts network management traffic

95.

What algorithm does OSPF use to determine the best path to a destination?

a)

Distance-Vector

b)

Bellman-Ford

c)

Dijkstra’s Link-State Algorithm

d)

Spanning Tree

96.

What does an IP Helper Address enable?

a)

Allows DHCP broadcast requests to cross routers

b)

Prevents IP spoofing on a VLAN

c)

 Encrypts management traffic

d)

Assigns static IPs to routers

97.

Why is IPSec considered one of the most secure methods for site-to-site VPNs?

a)

It supports load balancing

b)

It provides encryption, authentication, and data integrity

c)

It compresses traffic for efficiency

d)

It operates only at the transport layer

98.

What is the purpose of the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?

a)

Provides automatic routing failover between routers or firewalls

b)

Balances traffic between VLANs

c)

Encrypts routing updates

d)

Synchronizes switch MAC tables

99.

Match the following

a)

Layer 1

1.

Physical

b)

Layer 5

2.

Session

c)

Layer 4

3.

Transport

d)

Layer 2

4.

Data link

e)

Layer 3

5.

Network

100.

Match each fiber connector image description or characteristic to its connector name.

a)

Round bayonet-style connector that locks with a twist

1.

ST

b)

Small form-factor connector, typically used on NICs and SFP modules

2.

LC

c)

Square push-pull connector, common in older fiber networks

3.

SC

101.

A network technician is connecting two 10 Gb Ethernet switches that are located in the same rack. Which type of cable would provide a low-cost, low-latency connection without the need for additional transceivers?

a)

Fiber-optic patch cable

b)

CAT6A Ethernet cable

c)

Twinaxial (DAC) cable

d)

Coaxial RG-6 cable

102.

A network administrator is reviewing traffic patterns in a virtualized data center. Which of the following best describes east-west traffic?

a)

Data traveling between a client and a public-facing web server

b)

Traffic flowing between devices within the same data center or VLAN

c)

Internet-bound traffic leaving the internal network

d)

Management traffic between a workstation and a route

103.

A network administrator is configuring a new subnet with the address 172.16.0.0.

Which of the following IPv4 address classes does this network belong to?


a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

104.

A network administrator is implementing IPv6 on an existing IPv4 network. The goal is to maintain communication between IPv6 and IPv4 hosts during the transition period. Which of the following techniques allows both IPv4 and IPv6 to run simultaneously on network devices?

a)

Tunneling

b)

NAT64

c)

Dual stack

d)

Proxy ARP

105.

A user is unable to access the internet from their workstation, but they can access resources on the local network. The network administrator checks the NIC configuration and notices the default gateway is set incorrectly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity issue?

a)

Incorrect IP address

b)

Incorrect default gateway

c)

Incorrect subnet mask

d)

Duplicate IP address

106.

A network administrator wants to determine which switch port a particular device is connected to. Which command would MOST likely provide this information?

a)

show vlan

b)

show mac-address-table

c)

show arp

d)

show route

107.

A technician cannot communicate with a device on the same subnet. They want to verify the MAC address associated with a specific IP address on the local network. Which command provides this information?

a)

show mac-address-table

b)

show route

c)

show interface

d)

show arp

108.

A switch is not properly segmenting traffic for different departments. The network engineer wants to verify the VLANs configured on the switch. Which command should be used?

a)

show vlan

b)

show interface

c)

show arp

d)

show mac-address-table