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Addressing Modes Worksheet

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In Immediate Addressing Mode, the operand is:

a)

Stored in memory

b)

Given directly in the instruction

c)

Stored in a register

d)

Stored in the accumulator

2.

In Register Indirect Addressing, the operand is:

a)

Given in the instruction

b)

Stored in the accumulator

c)

Found using the address contained in a register

d)

Found in a specific memory address

3.

Which addressing mode requires two memory accesses — one to fetch the address and one to fetch the operand?

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Register

d)

Immediate

4.

The instruction ADD R1, (R2) uses which addressing mode?

a)

Immediate

b)

Indirect

c)

Register

d)

Direct

5.

If memory location 200 holds address 500, and memory[500] = 25, what will LOAD R1, (200) load into R1?

a)

200

b)

500

c)

25

d)

Undefined

6.

In Direct Addressing, if instruction says LOAD R2, 300 and M[300]=45, R2= ?

a)

0

b)

45

c)

300

d)

90

7.

The instruction MOV A, #5 is an example of:

a)

Immediate Addressing

b)

Register Addressing

c)

Direct Addressing

d)

Indirect Addressing

8.

In Implicit Addressing, the operand:

a)

Is mentioned in the instruction

b)

Is known from the instruction context

c)

Must be fetched from memory

d)

Is always zero

9.

During which phase of the instruction cycle is the instruction decoded?

a)

Fetch

b)

Decode

c)

Execute

d)

Store

10.

The Program Counter (PC) is incremented during the:

a)

Execute phase

b)

Decode phase

c)

Fetch phase

d)

Store phase

11.

The Instruction Register (IR) temporarily holds:

a)

The next instruction address

b)

The current instruction being executed

c)

The operands

d)

The program counter value

12.

The Execute phase may involve:

a)

Fetching an instruction

b)

Incrementing PC

c)

Performing arithmetic or logic operations

d)

Decoding instruction

13.

If instruction fetch requires 1 μs, decode 0.5 μs, execute 1.5 μs, and store 0.5 μs — total instruction cycle time = ?

a)

2.0 μs

b)

3.0 μs

c)

3.5 μs

d)

4.0 μs

14.

If PC = 1200 before fetch, what is PC after fetching one instruction?

a)

1199

b)

1200

c)

1201

d)

1210

15.

A zero-address instruction is most suitable for which architecture?

a)

Stack-based

b)

Accumulator-based

c)

General register

d)

Harvard

16.

In a one-address instruction, one operand is assumed to be in:

a)

Memory

b)

Accumulator

17.

The instruction MUL R1, R2 can belong to which format?

a)

Zero address

b)

One address

c)

Two address

d)

Three address

18.

Three-address instructions are generally:

a)

Shorter in size

b)

Longer in size

c)

Used only in CISC

d)

Faster than one-address

19.

How many addresses are needed for the instruction R3 = R1 + R2?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

20.

If an instruction has opcode 8 bits and 3 address fields of 12 bits each, total instruction size = ?

a)

24 bits

b)

32 bits

c)

44 bits

d)

44 (8+36)

21.

A single accumulator organization uses:

a)

Multiple registers

b)

One special register

c)

Stack

d)

Cache

22.

RISC architecture typically uses:

a)

Variable instruction size

b)

Fixed instruction size

c)

Microprogrammed control unit

d)

Complex addressing modes

23.

CISC stands for:

a)

Complex Instruction Set Computer

b)

Compact Instruction Set Computer

c)

Complete Instruction Sequential Control

d)

Central Instruction Storage Computer

24.

Which of the following is not a feature of RISC?

a)

A) Fixed instruction length

b)

B) Hardwired control

c)

C) Fewer instructions

d)

D) Complex addressing

25.

If a RISC instruction takes 1 cycle and a CISC instruction takes 4 cycles but replaces 3 RISC instructions, which is faster for total of 12 operations?

a)

RISC

b)

CISC

c)

Same speed

d)

Depends on compiler

26.

In Von Neumann architecture, instructions and data share:

a)

Separate memories

b)

Same memory

c)

Different buses

d)

Same CPU but separate memory

27.

The Harvard architecture uses:

a)

One bus for both data and instructions

b)

Two separate buses

c)

Cache only

d)

Stack memory

28.

A major disadvantage of Von Neumann architecture is:

a)

Expensive design

b)

Bottleneck issue

c)

Slow arithmetic

d)

Fixed memory size

29.

The Harvard architecture is commonly used in:

a)

A) PCs

b)

B) Microcontrollers

c)

C) Servers

d)

D) Laptops

30.

If instruction and data buses are separate, how many memory fetches occur simultaneously?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

31.

A shift register is primarily built using:

a)

JK Flip-Flops

b)

D Flip-Flops

c)

T Flip-Flops

d)

SR Flip-Flops

32.

The main function of a shift register is:

a)

Arithmetic operation

b)

Shift and store data

c)

Address decoding

d)

Code conversion

33.

A SISO shift register outputs data:

a)

In parallel

b)

Serially

c)

Randomly

d)

Simultaneously

34.

In SIPO, data is input:

a)

Serially

b)

Parallel

c)

Randomly

d)

Multiplexed

35.

If 4-bit SISO register input = 1010, what is serial output sequence?

a)

0101

b)

1010

c)

1100

d)

0000

36.

A 4-bit SIPO receives input 1001. After 3 pulses, what is output?

a)

0011

b)

1100

c)

001

d)

100

37.

In a PISO register, parallel input = 1011. What will be the serial output after one clock?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

10

d)

11

38.

In a PIPO shift register, data is:

a)

Loaded and output simultaneously

b)

Loaded serially

39.

Counters are made of which flip-flop?

a)

D Flip-Flop

b)

T Flip-Flop

c)

JK Flip-Flop

d)

SR Flip-Flop

40.

In a 4-bit counter, how many states are possible?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

10

d)

4

41.

A 3-bit synchronous counter counts from:

a)

0-6

b)

0-7

c)

1-8

d)

0-8

42.

Minimum number of flip-flops for mod-10 counter = ?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

10

43.

A mod-6 counter counts up to decimal:

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

44.

If 4-bit asynchronous counter output = 1111, next output (up count) = ?

a)

0000

b)

1110

c)

0010

d)

1000

45.

In a synchronous counter, all flip-flops are:

a)

Triggered by different clocks

b)

Triggered by a common clock

c)

Not clocked

d)

Asynchronous

46.

Ripple counter is also called:

a)

Synchronous

b)

Asynchronous

c)

Parallel counter

d)

Binary divider

47.

Booth’s algorithm is used for:

a)

Division

b)

Signed binary multiplication

c)

Logical AND

d)

Bit shifting

48.

Booth’s algorithm improves:

a)

Division speed

b)

Multiplication performance

c)

Addition accuracy

d)

Register storage

49.

Multiply 3 × 2 (0011 × 0010) = ?

a)

0100

b)

0110

c)

1100

d)

1010

50.

Multiply (-3) × (2) in 4-bit 2's complement → product = ?

a)

1010

b)

0110

c)

0010

d)

1000

51.

The non-restoring division method avoids:

a)

Repeated subtraction

b)

Restoring step

c)

Shifting

d)

Comparison

52.

Divide 8 ÷ 3 using non-restoring division → quotient = ?

a)

0010

b)

1000

c)

0011

d)

1110

53.

In restoring division, when partial remainder < 0, we:

a)

Continue

b)

Add divisor

c)

Subtract divisor

d)

Skip

54.

Booth algorithm is particularly efficient for:

a)

Sparse 1’s

b)

Consecutive 1’s

c)

Random bits

d)

All zeros

55.

The IAS instruction length is:

a)

32 bits

b)

40 bits

c)

64 bits

d)

16 bits

56.

If AC = 10, M(X) = 7, result of ADD M(X) → ?

a)

7

b)

17

c)

10

d)

3

57.

The instruction STOR M(X) means:

a)

Move memory → AC

b)

Move AC → memory

c)

Add values

d)

Swap data

58.

If AC = 12, M(X) = -5 → result of ADD |M(X)| = ?

a)

17

b)

-17

c)

7

d)

-7

59.

The instruction LSH in IAS computer:

a)

Shifts bits left by one

b)

Shifts right

c)

Divides by 2

d)

Adds 1

60.

If AC = 00001010, after LSH → AC = ?

a)

00000101

b)

00010100

c)

00101000

d)

11111111