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Skeletal System - MT Exam

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

immovable joints

a)

sutures

b)

hinge joints

c)

ball and socket joints

d)

pivot joints

2.

the division of the skeletal system that contains bones along the central line of the body

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

c)

cartilage

d)

ligament

3.

fibrous cords of tissue that attach muscle to bone

a)

tendons

b)

ligaments

c)

cartilage

d)

fascia

4.

fibrous cords of tissue that attach bone to bone

a)

ligaments

b)

tendons

c)

cartilage

d)

muscles

5.

the outer membrane of a bone

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

epiphysis

d)

diaphysis

6.

the production of blood cells in the bone marrow

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

osteogenesis

c)

myogenesis

d)

neurogenesis

7.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false

. The only facial bone capable of movement is the mandible.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

The vertebral column is made up of 12 bone segments.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

The longest and strongest bone in the human body is the femur.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The two major divisions of the skeletal system are the ________________ skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

a)

axial

b)

cranial

c)

pelvic

d)

thoracic

11.

Complete each statement.

The shaft of a long bone is called the ________________________, and each end is called a(n) ________________________.

a)

diaphysis, epiphysis

b)

epiphysis, diaphysis

c)

periosteum, medullary cavity

d)

osteon, lamella

12.

Complete each statement.

________________________ are soft spots between the cranial bones of a newborn.

a)

Fontanelles

b)

Sutures

c)

Sinuses

d)

Mandibles

13.

Complete each statement.

The frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones are all part of the ________________________.

a)

cranium

b)

vertebral column

c)

pelvis

d)

rib cage

14.

The seven bone segments that make up the neck region are the ________________________ vertebrae.

a)

cervical

b)

thoracic

c)

lumbar

d)

sacral

15.

Complete each statement.

The shoulder girdles, arms, pelvic girdle, and legs are all part of the ________________________ skeleton.

a)

appendicular

b)

axial

c)

cranial

d)

thoracic

16.

Complete each statement.

The bones of the forearm include the ________________________, which is located on the thumb side of the forearm, and the ________________________, the proximal end of which forms the elbow.

a)

radius, ulna

b)

ulna, femur

c)

humerus, radius

d)

tibia, fibula

17.

In a(n) ____________________________ fracture, the bone has splintered or been crushed.

a)

comminuted

b)

greenstick

c)

spiral

d)

transverse

18.

The ____ is an area of cartilage tissue that is consistently replaced by new, bony tissue as a bone grows.

a)

periosteum

b)

foramen

c)

bone process

d)

epiphyseal plate

19.

The joints between cranial bones are called ____.

a)

synovial joints

b)

amphiarthroses

c)

fissures

d)

sutures

20.

The ____ bones are the cheekbones.

a)

zygomatic

b)

vomer

c)

maxillary

d)

palatine

21.

The xiphoid process is part of the ____.

a)

humerus

b)

femur

c)

sternum

d)

mandible

22.

How many false ribs are there?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

2

23.

The seven ribs that are attached to the sternum are called (a)   ribs.

24.

The term phalanges refers to the bones of the ____.

a)

fingers

b)

toes

c)

fingers and toes

d)

hands and feet

25.

Kyphosis, lordosis, and scoliosis are three types of ____.

a)

spinal tumors

b)

abnormal curvatures of the spine

c)

arthritis

d)

bone inflammation

26.

Which of the following is a form of arthritis in which uric acid builds up in the blood, causing joint swelling and pain?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Bursitis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Gout

27.

The use of a needle to puncture a joint space and remove accumulated fluid is called ____.

a)

arthrocentesis

b)

arthrodesis

c)

arthroscopy

d)

arthroplasty

28.

Which of the following diagnostic tests uses an electromagnetic field and radio waves?

a)

Bone density test

b)

CT scan

c)

MRI

d)

X-ray

29.

The last two pairs of costals are called floating ribs because:

a)

they are not attached to the sternum

b)

they are longer than other ribs

c)

they are fused together

d)

they protect the heart

30.

The main difference between a compound and a simple fracture is:

a)

A compound fracture involves a break in the bone that pierces the skin, while a simple fracture does not.

b)

A simple fracture always requires surgery, while a compound fracture does not.

c)

A compound fracture heals faster than a simple fracture.

d)

A simple fracture is more painful than a compound fracture.

31.

The 2 major divisions of the skeletal system are the _______________ skeleton and the_________________ skeleton

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

c)

radial

d)

transverse

32.

Fill in the blank: In a compound fracture, there is an open wound leading to the site of the fracture, or the bone protrudes through the skin. A simple fracture is ________; the broken bone does not penetrate the skin.

a)

closed

b)

open

c)

displaced

d)

comminuted

33.
Identify the cervical vertebrae in the spinal column.
34.

Match the following

a)

Red Bone Marrow

1.

Makes Blood cells

b)

Epiphysis

2.

The end of a long bone, Spongy bone would primarily be found here

c)

Periosteum

3.

The tough membrane covering the shaft of the bone

d)

Compact bone

4.

Type of bone makes up the majority of the diaphysis

e)

Diaphysis

5.

The shaft of a bone

35.

Drag each bone to its correct place on the skull.

36.

Identify the frontal bone

37.

Identify the sphenoid bone

38.

Label the bones in the picture. Not all will be used.

39.
Name the bone
a)
sternum
b)
radius
c)
clavicle
d)
scapula
40.
Name the bone (thumb side)
a)
ulna
b)
humerus
c)
radius
d)
scapula
41.
Name the bone (pinky side)
a)
humerus
b)
tibia
c)
ulna
d)
radius
42.
Name the bone
a)
tibia
b)
fibula
c)
femur
d)
tarsals
43.
Name the bone
a)
Ribs
b)
Sternum
c)
Clavicle
d)
Ulna
44.
Name the bone
a)
Femur
b)
Tibia
c)
Fibula
d)
Patella
45.

What is the name of the highlighted bone?

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Sphenoid

46.

What are the highlighted bones called?

a)

Carpals

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Tarsals

47.

a)

Maxilla

b)

lacrimal

c)

Mandible

d)

zygomatic

48.

a)

Occipital

b)

Frontal

c)

Temporal

d)

Parietal

49.

a)

Mandible

b)

Zygomatic

c)

Frontal

d)

Maxilla

50.

a)

Parietal

b)

Temporal

c)

Frontal

d)

Zygomatic

51.

a)

Parietal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Sphenoid

52.

a)

Parietal

b)

Frontal

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Mandible

53.

Bone cells are called

a)

osseous

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteclasts

54.

Match the following

a)

osteoblast

1.

cell which form a new bone

b)

osteoclast

2.

cell which eat away old bone

c)

osteocyte

3.

mature bone cell

55.

The diaphysis contains ______ bone marrow.

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

white

d)

green

56.

The epiphysis contains ______ bone marrow

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

white

d)

green

57.

What bone is shown in red?

a)

clavicle

b)

humerus

c)

scapula

d)

ulna

58.

The combining form ankyl/o means:

a)

Fever

b)

Crooked, bent, stiff

c)

Bone

d)

Wrist

59.

The suffix -penia means:

a)

Softening

b)

Deficiency

c)

Abnormal condition

d)

Resembling

60.

What does narc/o refer to?

a)

Child, foot

b)

Stupor; numbness; sleep

c)

Fluid in joints

d)

Loin

61.

The suffix -desis means:

a)

Binding or tying together

b)

Visual examination

c)

Puncture to remove fluid

d)

Process of cutting

62.

The suffix -porosis means:

a)

Abnormal condition of small holes

b)

Instrument for viewing

c)

Process, condition

d)

To cut

63.

The suffix -scopy means:

a)

Condition of softening

b)

Process of visually examining

c)

Curve in spine

d)

Straight

64.

The suffix -tomy means:

a)

Surgical puncture

b)

Incision, cutting

c)

Resembling

d)

Stiffness

65.

Which suffix means 'instrument for viewing'?

a)

-scope

b)

-oid

c)

-malacia

d)

-ation

66.

Orth/o means:

a)

Straight

b)

Curved

c)

Bend

d)

Twist

67.

Which combining form means 'humpback'?

a)

Lord/o

b)

Kyph/o

c)

Scoli/o

d)

Rachi/o

68.

Scoli/o means:

a)

A) Crooked, bent

b)

B) Fever

c)

C) Spine

d)

D) Extremities

69.

Oste/o means:

a)

Bone

b)

Flesh

c)

Hand

d)

Ankle

70.

Crani/o refers to the:

a)

Skull

b)

Wrist

c)

Spine

d)

Sacrum

71.

Carp/o refers to the:

a)

Wrist

b)

Hand

c)

Foot

d)

Ribs

72.

Myel/o can mean:

a)

Bone marrow or spinal cord

b)

Cartilage

c)

Bursa

d)

Skull

73.

Chondr/o means:

a)

A) Cartilage

b)

B) Fat tissue

c)

C) Tendon

d)

D) Extremities

74.

Burs/o refers to:

a)

Bursa, sac near joint

b)

Skull

c)

Vertebra

d)

Ribs

75.

Lumb/o refers to:

a)

Lumbar region, loin

b)

Shoulder

c)

Ankle

d)

Sacrum

76.

A-, an- as a prefix means:

a)

Above

b)

Not, without

c)

Surrounding

d)

Within

77.

Inter- means:

a)

Beyond

b)

Between

c)

Above

d)

Child

78.

Peri- means:

a)

Surrounding, around

b)

Straight

c)

Fever

d)

Solid structure