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Temperature

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The consequences of hypothermia and hyperthermia include:

a)

Organ failure and possible death

b)

Improved immune response

c)

Increased muscle strength

d)

Enhanced memory retention

2.

Why is monitoring body temperature important?

a)

It helps identify temperature trends in patients

b)

It allows implementation of corrective measures

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

3.

How is temperature monitored in patients?

a)

Via oral thermometer

b)

Via rectal thermometer or recta/esophageal probe connected to monitor

c)

Via skin thermometer

d)

Via ear thermometer

4.

Hypothermia occurs when ________ is greater than heat production.

a)

heat loss

b)

heat gain

c)

oxygen intake

d)

blood pressure

5.

Hypothermia occurs frequently with patients who undergo general anesthesia.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Where does the majority of heat loss occur in hypothermia?

a)

From body surface

b)

From respiratory tract

c)

From digestive tract

d)

From blood

7.

One anesthetic event that can cause hypothermia is the blunting of __________ mechanisms in the central nervous system.

a)

thermoregulatory

b)

respiratory

c)

digestive

d)

cardiac

8.

Exposure of body cavities to __________ temperature air during anesthesia can cause hypothermia.

a)

room

b)

high

c)

cold

d)

humid

9.

__________ predisposes patients to redistribute heat from core to periphery, increasing the risk of hypothermia.

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Leukocytosis

10.

Hypothermia can occur when the patient becomes __________ during anesthetic events.

a)

wet

b)

hungry

c)

excited

d)

angry

11.

Cold, dry incoming fresh __________ into the breathing circuit can contribute to hypothermia.

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

air

12.

Decreased cellular metabolic rates and muscle activity while __________ can cause hypothermia.

a)

anesthetized

b)

exercising

c)

eating

d)

awake

13.

Cool ambient room air and body contact with __________ surfaces can lead to hypothermia.

a)

cold

b)

soft

c)

rough

d)

dry

14.

Low weight, surface area ratio, advanced age, debilitation, and __________ are patient characteristics that increase the risk of hypothermia.

a)

emaciation

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

tachycardia

e)

osteoporosis

15.

Which of the following is a consequence of hypothermia?

a)

Increased minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

b)

Reduced minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

c)

Faster rate of drug metabolism

d)

Decreased risk of drug overdose

16.

Hypothermia can lead to a slower rate of drug metabolism, which can result in ________ recovery and increased risk of morbidity.

a)

prolonged

b)

rapid

c)

immediate

d)

shortened

17.

Severely hypothermic patients become bradycardic and unresponsive to anticholinergics, increasing the risk for developing ________.

a)

arrhythmias

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

seizures

18.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of hypothermia?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Coagulopathy

c)

Increased blood viscosity

d)

Decreased need for blood transfusions

19.

Hypothermia increases the possibility for drug overdose due to a lower percent of inhalant anesthetic agent needed to maintain anesthetic depth.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Other adverse effects of hypothermia include respiratory depression, coagulopathy, altered blood viscosity, increased incidence of postoperative infections, and increased need for ________.

a)

blood transfusions

b)

oxygen therapy

c)

antibiotics

d)

fluid restriction

21.

What is the best treatment for hypothermia?

a)

Prevention

b)

Rapid cooling

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Fasting

22.

What should be done as soon as patients arrive at the hospital to treat hypothermia?

a)

Keep patients warm

b)

Give them cold drinks

c)

Leave them in wet clothes

d)

Lower their body temperature further

23.

Which of the following is NOT a method to maintain body temperature during anesthesia?

a)

Circulating warm water blanket

b)

Wrapping patient’s feet in bubble wrap

c)

Using isopropyl alcohol

d)

Warming IV fluids

24.

Wrapping a patient’s feet in bubble wrap, baby socks, or exam gloves is a recommended method to maintain body temperature during anesthesia.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Which fluids should be warmed to help maintain body temperature during anesthesia?

a)

IV fluids and fluids for lavage

b)

Blood only

c)

Saline only

d)

Oral fluids

26.

Isopropyl alcohol should be used to keep surgical prep solutions warm during hypothermia treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Why should electrical heating methods be used carefully in the treatment of hypothermia?

a)

High risk of thermal burns

b)

Risk of dehydration

c)

May cause allergic reactions

d)

Can lead to excessive sweating

28.

What is hyperthermia?

a)

Heat production less than heat loss

b)

Heat production equal to heat loss

c)

Heat production greater than heat loss

d)

Heat loss greater than heat production

29.

Is hyperthermia common in anesthetized patients?

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Malignant hyperthermia is a ______ genetic condition.

a)

rare

b)

common

c)

benign

d)

contagious

31.

Malignant hyperthermia is most common in which animal?

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Swine

d)

Horses

32.

Uncontrolled skeletal activity and increased metabolism during general anesthesia can lead to rapid increases in body temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Increase in body temperature increases metabolic activity and energy consumption, which can lead to ______ hypoxemia.

a)

cellular

b)

arterial

c)

venous

d)

tissue

34.

Permanent organ damage is a risk if body temperature reaches what value?

a)

100°F

b)

104°F

c)

107°F

d)

110°F

35.

Hyperthermia can also cause ventricular arrhythmias, organ failure, and death.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What should be done when a patient's temperature reaches 101–102°F during treatment of hyperthermia?

a)

Remove supplemental heat.

b)

Increase fluid intake rapidly.

c)

Apply ice packs to the entire body.

d)

Continue supplemental heat until temperature normalizes.

37.

Which of the following may be beneficial during the treatment of hyperthermia?

a)

Decrease oxygen flow rate

b)

Increase oxygen flow rate

c)

Stop oxygen flow

d)

None of the above

38.

Naloxone can be given to cats that have been administered ______ during treatment of hyperthermia.

a)

opioids

b)

antibiotics

c)

antihistamines

d)

steroids

39.

Which of the following is an active cooling measure for hyperthermia?

a)

Apply cool water or alcohol to footpads and skin

b)

Administer room temperature IV fluids

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

40.

Name one aggressive cooling measure used in the treatment of hyperthermia.

a)

Cool water enemas, cool abdominal lavage, or cool water submersion.

b)

Warm blankets and heated IV fluids.

c)

High-calorie diet and bed rest.

d)

Administration of vasoconstrictors.

41.

Which drug is administered intravenously to cause vasodilation during aggressive cooling measures for hyperthermia?

a)

Acepromazine (Promace®, generic)

b)

Atropine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Furosemide

42.

Dantrolene (Dantrium®) is administered intravenously for ______ hyperthermia.

a)

malignant

b)

benign

c)

febrile

d)

chronic

43.

Dantrolene (Dantrium®) is typically available in veterinary hospitals for the treatment of hyperthermia.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Adequate blood pressure is needed to perfuse and deliver oxygen to which part of the body?

a)

Muscles

b)

Organs

c)

Skin

d)

Bones

45.

Which device reliably provides only systolic arterial pressure?

a)

Noninvasive oscillometric device

b)

Ultrasonic Doppler

c)

Arterial catheter

d)

Manual palpation

46.

Noninvasive oscillometric device displays systolic, diastolic, and mean pressures.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Direct measurement with arterial catheter is more accurate than noninvasive oscillometric device.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The gold standard for blood pressure measurement is placement of ________.

a)

arterial catheter

b)

venous catheter

c)

blood pressure cuff

d)

pulse oximeter

49.

Arterial catheter is connected by a fluid-filled tube to a(n) ________ transducer.

a)

electronic

b)

mechanical

c)

hydraulic

d)

thermal

50.

Manual palpation and assessment of peripheral pulses provides impression of the difference between ________ and ________ pressures.

a)

systolic; diastolic

b)

arterial; venous

c)

pulmonary; capillary

d)

mean; pulse

51.

Manual palpation is not necessarily indicative of mean or perfusion pressures.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is the minimum systolic arterial pressure (SAP) recommended for blood pressure goals?

a)

90 mm Hg

b)

120 mm Hg

c)

80 mm Hg

d)

100 mm Hg

53.

What is the minimum mean arterial pressure (MAP) recommended for blood pressure goals?

a)

60 mm Hg

b)

50 mm Hg

c)

70 mm Hg

d)

80 mm Hg

54.

What is the minimum diastolic arterial pressure (DAP) recommended for blood pressure goals?

a)

40 mm Hg

b)

60 mm Hg

c)

80 mm Hg

d)

100 mm Hg

55.

Autoregulatory mechanisms are most effective when MAP is within which range for autoregulation of cerebral blood flow?

a)

50–150 mm Hg

b)

30–80 mm Hg

c)

100–200 mm Hg

d)

70–120 mm Hg

56.

Autoregulatory mechanisms are most effective when MAP is within which range for autoregulation of renal blood flow?

a)

80–180 mm Hg

b)

60–100 mm Hg

c)

100–200 mm Hg

d)

50–150 mm Hg

57.

Low diastolic arterial pressure (DAP) could result in which of the following?

a)

Increased myocardial perfusion

b)

Myocardial hypoxemia

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Both B and C

58.

Oxygen delivery (DO2) to tissues is a function of which two factors?

a)

Cardiac output and arterial oxygen content

b)

Heart rate and stroke volume

c)

Preload and afterload

d)

Systemic vascular resistance

59.

What is the formula for oxygen delivery (DO2) to tissues? DO2 = ___ × CaO2

a)

CO

b)

VO2

c)

SaO2

d)

PaO2

60.

Cardiac output is a function of heart rate (HR) and which other factor?

a)

Stroke volume (SV)

b)

Preload

c)

Afterload

d)

Contractility

61.

Stroke volume (SV) is a function of preload, afterload, and _______.

a)

contractility

b)

heart rate

c)

blood pressure

d)

oxygen saturation

62.

Blood pressure is a function of cardiac output and which other factor?

a)

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

b)

Heart rate

c)

Stroke volume

d)

Arterial oxygen content

63.

What is the formula for mean arterial pressure (MAP)? MAP = CO × ____

a)

SVR

b)

HR

c)

TV

d)

PCO2

64.

True or False: Blood pressure is an exact indicator of tissue perfusion and cardiac output.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What is the definition of hypotension?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Normal blood pressure

d)

Irregular heart rate

66.

Which of the following is a contributing factor to hypotension?

a)

Effects of anesthesia drugs and underlying hemodynamic status

b)

Increased preload

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Increased contractility

67.

Why is it crucial that an anesthetist monitors blood pressure during anesthesia?

a)

To recognize abnormalities, identify underlying cause, and treat hypotension quickly.

b)

To ensure the patient remains unconscious throughout the procedure.

c)

To prevent the patient from feeling pain during surgery.

d)

To monitor oxygen saturation levels.

68.

Clinical hypotension is defined as MAP less than ____ mm Hg when SAP and/or DAP are low.

a)

60

b)

70

c)

50

d)

80

69.

An anesthetist should assess all three pressure values (MAP, SAP, DAP) whenever possible during clinical hypotension.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Cardiac output may drop as a result of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Decreased stroke volume

b)

Decreased contractility

c)

Decreased afterload

d)

Decreased preload

e)

Bradycardia

71.

Before anesthesia, ensure the patient is __________ stable.

a)

physiologically

b)

emotionally

c)

financially

d)

socially

72.

Which type of anesthesia plan should be selected for treating hypotension?

a)

Single-agent anesthesia plan

b)

Multimodal anesthesia plan

c)

No anesthesia plan

d)

Emergency anesthesia plan

73.

If possible, turn down __________ anesthetic agent to help treat hypotension.

a)

inhalant

b)

topical

c)

local

d)

regional

74.

Treat patient with __________ if bradycardia occurs during hypotension treatment.

a)

anticholinergic

b)

beta-blocker

c)

vasopressor

d)

calcium channel blocker

75.

Propofol can cause dosage-dependent transient hypotension.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Administer fluid bolus of __________ and/or colloid to treat transient hypotension caused by propofol.

a)

crystalloid

b)

saline

c)

glucose

d)

albumin

77.

According to AAHA guidelines, what is the recommended IV bolus of isotonic crystalloid for anesthetized patients?

a)

1–5 mL/kg over 5 minutes

b)

3–10 mL/kg delivered over 10 to 20 minutes

c)

10–20 mL/kg over 30 minutes

d)

5–15 mL/kg over 15 minutes

78.

Low SAP may indicate hypotension due to decreased cardiac contractility. What is an appropriate treatment in this case?

a)

Administration of positive inotropic agent

b)

Administration of vasopressor

c)

Administration of antihypertensive agent

d)

Administration of diuretic

79.

Hypotension may arise from severe drops in systemic vascular resistance. What treatment may be indicated?

a)

Administration of positive inotropic agent

b)

Treatment with vasopressor

c)

Administration of antihypertensive agent

d)

Administration of diuretic

80.

Agents commonly used in anesthetized patients include ________ (generic), Dobutamine (generic), Dopamine (generic), and Norepinephrine (Levophed®).

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Atropine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Furosemide

81.

Which of the following is NOT an agent commonly used in anesthetized patients?

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetaminophen

82.

Norepinephrine used in anesthetized patients is also known as:

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Levophed®

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Dopamine