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HYPOXEMIA/O2 AND SHUNT/DEADSPACE

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with acute pulmonary embolism presents with tachypnea and mild hypoxemia. Despite high minute ventilation, PaCO2 remains near normal. What explains this finding?

a)

Increased alveolar compliance

b)

Increased deadspace ventilation

c)

Decreased anatomic shunt

2.

A COPD patient is given 100% oxygen in the ER and later develops CO2 retention and confusion. What mechanism explains this?

a)

Increased diffusion capacity

b)

Depression of hypoxic drive

c)

Decreased alveolar deadspace

3.

During oxygen challenge testing, a patient’s PaO2 fails to rise despite FiO2 of 0.60. What condition does this suggest?

a)

Low V/Q mismatch

b)

Refractory hypoxemia

c)

Hypoventilation syndrome

4.

A patient on mechanical ventilation develops overdistention of alveoli with large tidal volumes. What complication is most likely?

a)

Absorption atelectasis

b)

Increased alveolar deadspace

c)

Retinopathy of prematurity

5.

A premature infant receives uncontrolled high-concentration oxygen. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Retinopathy of prematurity

c)

Pulmonary hypertension

6.

A 60-year-old woman with left lower lobe pneumonia remains hypoxemic despite oxygen therapy. Which mechanism explains her condition?

a)

Shunt-producing pathology

b)

Increased anatomic deadspace

c)

Hyperoxic acute lung injury

7.

A patient with pulmonary hypertension demonstrates decreased end-tidal CO2. What does this indicate?

a)

Increased perfusion

b)

Increased deadspace ventilation

c)

Low V/Q mismatch

8.

A patient with COPD presents with oxygen saturation of 87%. Oxygen therapy is initiated at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Why is this appropriate?

a)

It avoids worsening CO2 retention

b)

It ensures FiO2 > 80%

c)

It prevents absorption atelectasis

9.

In pulmonary embolism, ventilation-perfusion mismatch leads to which gas abnormality?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia

c)

Hypercapnic hypoventilation

10.

A patient with ARDS develops worsening hypoxemia unresponsive to high FiO2. What is the likely explanation?

a)

Increased deadspace ventilation

b)

Shunt physiology

c)

Hypoxic ventilatory drive suppression

11.

A patient with emphysema requires higher minute ventilation to maintain normal PaCO2. What explains this?

a)

Reduced deadspace

b)

Increased physiologic deadspace

c)

Improved diffusion capacity

12.

A patient in the ICU develops hypoxemia after being placed on high FiO2 for 48 hours. What complication is likely?

a)

Hyperoxic acute lung injury

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Retinopathy of prematurity

13.

A patient on low-flow oxygen therapy has variable FiO2 delivery. What factor explains this variability?

a)

Patient’s inspiratory flow

b)

Device oxygen reservoir

c)

Fixed flow regulation

14.

A patient with pneumonia is given oxygen, but PaO2 improves only slightly. What mechanism is primarily responsible?

a)

Shunt effect

b)

Increased compliance

c)

Decreased CO2 production

15.

A COPD patient develops drowsiness after oxygen therapy at 4 L/min. What is the best initial action?

a)

Discontinue oxygen immediately

b)

Reduce oxygen flow and monitor ABG

c)

Increase flow to maintain 100% SpO2

16.

A trauma patient with pulmonary contusion shows hypoxemia that improves with PEEP but not with higher FiO2. What does this indicate?

a)

Low V/Q mismatch

b)

Shunt physiology

c)

Oxygen toxicity

17.

A patient on mechanical ventilation with high tidal volumes develops barotrauma and persistent hypoxemia. Which factor worsens gas exchange?

a)

Increased alveolar deadspace

b)

Increased diffusion

c)

Decreased pulmonary shunt

18.

A COPD patient maintains SpO2 at 90% with oxygen therapy. Why is this target range acceptable?

a)

Prevents excessive oxygen toxicity

b)

Reduces risk of CO2 retention

c)

Ensures FiO2 delivery > 90%

19.

A patient receiving oxygen therapy via Venturi mask demonstrates stable FiO2 despite increased respiratory rate. Why?

a)

Venturi system provides fixed FiO2

b)

Patient entrains more room air

c)

Device reservoir limits flow

20.

A patient with pulmonary embolism shows respiratory alkalosis on ABG. What explains this abnormality?

a)

Increased PaCO2

b)

Hyperventilation due to hypoxemia

c)

Increased physiologic shunt

21.

A patient undergoing surgery is placed on high FiO2 and later develops alveolar collapse. What complication occurred?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Absorption atelectasis

c)

Oxygen toxicity

22.

A patient with pneumonia and hypoxemia improves after oxygen therapy with decreased work of breathing. What mechanism explains this?

a)

Improved perfusion-to-ventilation ratio

b)

Increased alveolar deadspace

c)

Increased pulmonary compliance

23.

A COPD patient is found to have PaO2 of 55 mmHg on room air. What is the most appropriate therapy?

a)

Start long-term oxygen therapy

b)

Increase respiratory rate

c)

Initiate mechanical ventilation

24.

A patient with suspected hypoxemia is evaluated at the bedside with cyanosis and tachypnea. What is the best next step?

a)

Initiate oxygen therapy

b)

Delay until ABG is done

c)

Perform bronchoscopy

25.

A patient on high-flow nasal cannula therapy maintains consistent FiO2 delivery even with rapid breathing. Why?

a)

Device provides all inspired gas

b)

FiO2 varies with tidal volume

c)

Oxygen is diluted with room air

26.

A patient with pulmonary embolism has a high alveolar-arterial gradient. What does this indicate?

a)

Normal oxygen transfer

b)

Impaired oxygen transfer

c)

Decreased shunt fraction

27.

A patient with COPD is placed on a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min. Which risk is greatest if prolonged?

a)

Fire hazard

b)

Oxygen toxicity

c)

Increased shunt fraction

28.

A patient with refractory hypoxemia does not respond to high FiO2. Which intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Apply PEEP

b)

Increase tidal volume

c)

Discontinue oxygen

29.

A patient on mechanical ventilation with inadequate oxygenation has increasing heart rate and blood pressure. What does this indicate?

a)

Increased cardiopulmonary workload due to hypoxemia

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Improved perfusion

30.

A premature infant on supplemental oxygen develops abnormal retinal vessel growth. Which factor caused this?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hyperoxia

c)

Hypoventilation

31.

A patient with suspected pulmonary embolism shows increased physiologic deadspace on evaluation. What does this indicate?

a)

Incomplete vascular obstruction

b)

Complete alveolar collapse

c)

Increased diffusion surface area

32.

A patient on 100% FiO2 for >24 hours develops worsening hypoxemia. What complication is suspected?

a)

Retinopathy of prematurity

b)

Hyperoxic acute lung injury

c)

Absorption atelectasis

33.

A patient with pneumonia and shunt-producing pathology shows only minimal improvement with oxygen therapy. What other therapy is needed?

a)

Increase FiO2

b)

Apply positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

c)

Switch to low-flow oxygen

34.

A COPD patient arrives with SpO2 of 82% and PaO2 of 48 mmHg. What is the best oxygen delivery device?

a)

Venturi mask

b)

Nasal cannula at 6 L/min

c)

Non-rebreather mask

35.

A patient in the ICU develops alveolar collapse from prolonged FiO2 > 0.5. What is this called?

a)

Absorption atelectasis

b)

Hypoxic drive suppression

c)

Pulmonary embolism

36.

A patient with refractory hypoxemia fails to respond to increased FiO2. What does this confirm?

a)

Shunt physiology

b)

Increased deadspace ventilation

c)

Hypoventilation syndrome

37.

A patient with emphysema presents with low diffusion capacity. Which factor contributes most to their hypoxemia?

a)

Increased surface area

b)

Alveolar destruction

c)

Reduced tidal volume

38.

A patient with pulmonary embolism is evaluated using end-tidal CO2 monitoring. Which finding supports increased deadspace ventilation?

a)

Elevated ETCO2

b)

Reduced ETCO2

c)

Normal ETCO2

39.

A patient on oxygen therapy has FiO2 > 0.70 for 3 days. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis from oxygen toxicity

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Air trapping

40.

A patient with pneumonia demonstrates hypertension and tachycardia while hypoxemic. What does this indicate?

a)

Increased cardiovascular workload

b)

Decreased deadspace ventilation

c)

Pulmonary embolism resolution

41.

A premature infant receives excessive oxygen therapy and later develops blindness. What is the pathophysiology?

a)

Retinal vasoconstriction followed by neovascularization

b)

Increased shunt fraction

c)

Decreased PaCO2

42.

A patient on nasal cannula at 3 L/min has variable FiO2. Why is this variable?

a)

FiO2 depends on patient’s inspiratory flow

b)

Reservoir bag function

c)

Device pressure settings

43.

A patient on high-flow oxygen via Venturi mask is tachypneic, yet FiO2 remains constant. Why?

a)

Device supplies fixed FiO2 regardless of breathing pattern

b)

Entrains more room air

c)

Increases physiologic shunt

44.

A patient with ARDS remains hypoxemic despite oxygen therapy. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Increase PEEP

b)

Reduce FiO2 to <0.3

c)

Switch to low-flow nasal cannula

45.

A patient receiving oxygen via non-rebreather mask continues to desaturate. What intervention should be prioritized?

a)

Initiate mechanical ventilation

b)

Reduce oxygen flow

c)

Discontinue oxygen