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Worksheets

SEM 1.01-4.01

Total questions: 147

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person who sells non-sport products through sports is considered a(n)

a)

advertising marketer.

b)

sports salesperson.

c)

sports marketer.

d)

non-sports marketer.

2.

Which of the following positions is a sports marketing position:

a)

Advertising director

b)

Head coach

c)

Director of hockey operations

d)

Chief financial officer

3.

Which of the following positions creates the marketing budget for a sports organization:

a)

Chief executive officer

b)

Director of development

c)

Director of marketing

d)

Director of sales

4.

Which of the following sports marketing activities involves creating promotional copy for printed publications:

a)

Advertising

b)

Merchandising

c)

Social media

d)

Sales

5.

Which of the following marketing activities involves selling airtime for sponsors’ messages broadcast over the PA system at games:

a)

Group sales

b)

Advertising sales

c)

Ticket sales

d)

Corporate sales

6.

Which of the following marketing activities involves keeping detailed ticket sales records:

a)

Ticket sales

b)

Market research and development

c)

Merchandising

d)

Ticket management

7.

Which of the following marketing activities usually involves planning youth clinics for fans:

a)

Media relations

b)

Advertising

c)

Market research and development

d)

Community relations

8.

Which of the following marketing activities involves responsibility for a sports organization’s licensing activities:

a)

Merchandising

b)

Public relations

c)

Community relations

d)

Sales

9.

Which of the following marketing activities involves writing press releases and organizing news conferences for a sports organization:

a)

Promotions

b)

Advertising

c)

Media relations

d)

Community relations

10.

Which of the following marketing activities involves answering fan mail for a sports organization:

a)

Community relations

b)

Media relations

c)

Market research and development

d)

Promotions

11.

How does event marketing differ from sports marketing?

a)

It offers fewer career opportunities.

b)

It focuses more on corporate sponsorship.

c)

It is smaller in scope.

d)

It excludes sporting events.

12.

Which of the following would be considered an event in event marketing:

a)

A family vacation

b)

A college graduation ceremony

c)

A kindergarten class party

d)

A restaurant opening

13.

Most event firms specialize in

a)

sponsorship sales.

b)

management.

c)

marketing.

d)

public relations.

14.

You are marketing the premier of a new Lexus model, which will be revealed at a car show in Detroit. You’re in charge of advertising. Which of the following would be your responsibility:

a)

Researching the target audience

b)

Conducting test drives

c)

Buying commercial time on TV

d)

Taking ticket orders

15.

You’re in charge of sales promotions for a famous author’s latest book-signing tour. Which of the following would be your responsibility:

a)

Passing out flyers outside the bookstore

b)

Writing news releases

c)

Selling tickets for the author’s lectures

d)

Placing ads in the paper

16.

As a public-relations director, which of the following would be one of your job duties:

a)

Making travel arrangements

b)

Organizing news conferences

c)

Contacting potential sponsors

d)

Fulfilling ticket orders

17.

A person responsible for matching up corporations with events that reach their target market has a career in

a)

sales promotion.

b)

sponsorship management.

c)

hospitality.

d)

advertising sales.

18.

You’re in charge of hospitality for a play opening on Broadway. Which of the following would be your responsibility:

a)

Designing posters

b)

Allocating press passes

c)

Identifying a target audience

d)

Reserving hotel rooms for special guests

19.

Assigning workers to their proper posts at a charity run/walk is the responsibility of a

a)

sales promotion coordinator.

b)

vendor coordinator.

c)

volunteer coordinator.

d)

public-relations director.

20.

Which of the following is the most crucial step in starting a sports or event marketing career:

a)

Networking

b)

Education

c)

Personality

d)

Internship

21.
Promoting and selling an intangible product that is immediately consumed and cannot be resold is a unique characteristic of ___________ marketing.
a)
target
b)
mass
c)
event
d)
direct
22.
One characteristic of event marketing involves promoting and selling a(n)
a)
tangible product
b)
unique experience
c)
nonperishable item
d)
physical appeal
23.
The National Collegiate Athletic Association and the Professional Golfers' Association are examples of
a)
labor unions
b)
trade associations
c)
sanctioning bodies
d)
professional societies
24.
Which of the following help create the excitement and enthusiasm that make the games what they are:
a)
team owners
b)
coaches
c)
trainers
d)
spectators
25.
One of the main differences between professional and amateur athletes is that for professionals , the game is often
a)
their occupation
b)
closed to the public
c)
free of charge
d)
played for enjoyment
26.
Which of the following is an example of marketing the sport event:
a)
holding a race for a charitable organization
b)
selling food products to a concession stand
c)
delivering exercise bikes to retailers
d)
distributing information about a NASCAR race
27.
A characteristic of an event is that it is produced and consumed
a)
during planned intervals
b)
at the same time
c)
by the same group of people
d)
in unemotional ways
28.

Determine whether the following statement is true or false: Two prospects may buy the same product to obtain different benefits.

a)

False; prospects buy products based on the products’ features.

b)

False; products offer the same benefits to all prospects.

c)

True; all prospects have the same product wants and needs.

d)

True; products offer different benefits to different prospects.

29.

The reasons that cause people to purchase products are called

a)

needs.

b)

features.

c)

wants.

d)

buying motives.

30.

Which of the following buying motives could best be described as emotional:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Group approval

c)

Increased production

d)

Quality of materials

31.

Which of the following is a patronage buying motive:

a)

Desire for variety

b)

The product’s safety

c)

State of health

d)

Product assortment

32.

Which of the following is a true statement:

a)

Customers can be driven by multiple buying motives.

b)

Customers’ needs are impossible to fulfill.

c)

Salespeople must correct customer buying motives.

d)

Salespeople should drive buying decisions.

33.

Which of the following has the greatest influence on a customer’s buying decision:

a)

Emotional buying motive

b)

Rational buying motive

c)

Dominant buying motive

d)

Patronage buying motive

34.

Why do salespeople attempt to determine prospect buying motives?

a)

To gain confidence in their ability to sell

b)

To complete successful sales transactions

c)

To encourage the prospect to share personal information

d)

To eliminate the prospect’s underlying needs and wants

35.

By observing prospects’ facial expressions, you can learn

a)

their mannerisms.

b)

their socioeconomic status.

c)

to be empathetic with customers.

d)

which selling points appeal to them.

36.

The initial questions asked of a prospect should be based on the common buying motives for the good or service because prospects

a)

can respond with a simple “yes” or “no.”

b)

often buy goods or services for similar reasons.

c)

need to be able to answer your questions completely.

d)

need to answer personal questions as soon as possible.

37.

The salesperson who is trying to determine a customer’s buying motives should

a)

offer a number of choices.

b)

carefully explain each feature.

c)

listen to the customer.

d)

demonstrate the product.

38.

Which of the following would indicate to customers that you, the salesperson, want to listen:

a)

Empathizing with customers

b)

Insisting on your own point of view

c)

Assisting another customer

d)

Interrupting customers’ questions

39.

A statement such as “I understand why you feel that way” is a typical example of which of the following techniques:

a)

Asking questions

b)

Observing the customer

c)

Listening to the customer

d)

Showing interest in the customer

40.

How do customers benefit from the effective use of buying motives in selling?

a)

Their merchandise returns increase.

b)

They become repeat customers.

c)

Their needs and wants are satisfied.

d)

They tell others about the business.

41.

Which of the following is a way that the effective use of buying motives benefits the business:

a)

Income is increased.

b)

Returns are increased.

c)

Needs are satisfied.

d)

Wants are fulfilled.

42.

Determine the customers’ buying motives.

a)

Customers’ buying motives are the reasons behind their purchasing decisions.

b)

Customers’ buying motives are the products they purchase.

c)

Customers’ buying motives are the prices they pay.

d)

Customers’ buying motives are the stores they visit.

43.

When customers make purchases, they are actually buying the __________ that products offer.

a)

prestige

b)

services

c)

benefits

d)

features

44.

When people make purchases on the basis of reason or logic, they are using __________

buying motives.

a)

rational

b)

emotional

c)

patronage

d)

inappropriate

45.

When customers buy on the basis of their feelings or impulses, they are using __________

buying motives.

a)

rational

b)

emotional

c)

detached

d)

patronage

46.

Customers purchase from one business rather than another because of __________

buying motives.

a)

rational

b)

emotional

c)

patronage

d)

impulsive

47.

The concern for a product’s durability can best be described as a(n) __________ buying motive.

a)

rational

b)

emotional

c)

patronage

d)

traditional

48.

Which of the following are characteristics of a sporting event:

a)

Intangible and perishable

b)

Inexpensive and regional

c)

Unlimited and costly

d)

Unchanging and scarce

49.

Who must be present for a sporting event to take place?

a)

Amateurs

b)

Professionals

c)

Athletes

d)

Spectators

50.

What type of sporting good are you purchasing when you buy a hat that features the logo of the Miami Dolphins?

a)

Team uniforms

b)

Licensed merchandise

c)

Novelty items

d)

Athletic equipment

51.

Participating in an exercise class at the local health club is an example of

a)

taking lessons.

b)

improving skills.

c)

weightlifting.

d)

training and fitness.

52.

When you read a news article about a star athlete, you are using the product of

a)

advertising media.

b)

promotional records.

c)

marketing data.

d)

sports information.

53.

What do the unorganized participants in sports have that the organized participants do not have?

a)

Professional status

b)

Freedom from rules

c)

Regulated teams

d)

Specific times to participate

54.

The National Collegiate Athletic Association and the Professional Golfers’ Association are examples of

a)

sanctioning bodies.

b)

trade associations.

c)

labor unions.

d)

professional societies.

55.

One of the main differences between professional and amateur athletes is that for the professionals, the game is often

a)

played only for enjoyment.

b)

not publicly advertised.

c)

free of charge.

d)

their occupation.

56.

Which of the following help create the excitement and enthusiasm that make the games what they are:

a)

Trainers

b)

Coaches

c)

Spectators

d)

Team owners

57.

The businesses that make sporting events available to those who cannot attend in person are

a)

radio announcers.

b)

corporate consumers.

c)

team owners.

d)

stadium managers.

58.

One of the main reasons why many businesses sponsor a sport product or event is to

a)

support local teams.

b)

contribute to society.

c)

spend excess funds.

d)

reach a target market.

59.

Which of the following is an example of marketing sporting events:

a)

Delivering exercise bikes to retailers

b)

Selling food products to concession stands

c)

Distributing information about NASCAR races

d)

Holding a race for a charitable organization

60.

Marketing sporting goods and services involves a __________ focus.

a)

retail

b)

wholesale

c)

local

d)

personal

61.

Businesses that place ads on the scoreboard at college football games are using the sport as a

a)

delivery service.

b)

final consumer.

c)

marketing tool.

d)

pricing technique.

62.

Pepsi and Coke competing for the right to sell their line of soft drinks at a stadium is an example of marketing

a)

products to sports.

b)

sporting goods and services.

c)

the sporting event.

d)

services through sports.

63.

What has the growth of the sports industry created?

a)

Physical goals

b)

Athletic skills

c)

Job opportunities

d)

Marketing trends

64.

Which of the following is one of the benefits you receive when you participate in unorganized sports:

a)

Publicity

b)

Compensation

c)

Coaching

d)

Recreation

65.

What benefit does a major sporting event or popular sports attraction provide to a city?

a)

Legal

b)

Political

c)

Economic

d)

Athletic

66.

What often transfers from a sports team to the city it calls home?

a)

Image

b)

Goals

c)

Logo

d)

Symbol

67.

One way that sports benefit society in general is by creating additional opportunities for

a)

amateurs to feel healthy.

b)

participants to be entertained.

c)

businesses in related industries.

d)

communities in rural areas.

68.

Liza has always wanted a horse, and she has finally saved enough money to buy one very soon. In marketing terms, Liza is a

a)

market segment.

b)

resource.

c)

target group.

d)

market.

69.

To buy a product, customers in a market must first

a)

be willing to buy the product.

b)

learn the product’s features.

c)

make sure the product is on sale.

d)

locate the product in a store.

70.

A target market can be described as the

a)

sample of the market.

b)

group of customers the business seeks to attract.

c)

direction the market is headed.

d)

way a business draws its customers.

71.

When examining a market, marketers primarily notice its

a)

records.

b)

leaders.

c)

categories.

d)

merchants.

72.

Marzetti’s Musical Instruments has determined that it will focus its marketing efforts on senior high school students. Marzetti’s is engaged in __________ marketing.

a)

mass

b)

risky

c)

target

d)

industrial

73.

The same person can be included in more than one

a)

religion.

b)

income level.

c)

generation.

d)

target market.

74.

When using mass marketing, marketers seek to appeal to the __________ market.

a)

entire

b)

local

c)

loyal

d)

teen

75.

When sellers offer one-size-fits-all products that will appeal to most buyers, they are using

a)

mass production.

b)

market segmentation.

c)

mass marketing.

d)

demographic segmentation.

76.

Market segmentation is about dividing the market into __________ groups.

a)

specific

b)

identical

c)

general

d)

age

77.

When the total market is divided, one of its groups is called a market

a)

share.

b)

slice.

c)

segment.

d)

subdivision.

78.

The Thompson Company decided it would be more successful if it divided the total market for its products into smaller, more specific groups of consumers. This business is engaged in

a)

mass marketing.

b)

industrial marketing.

c)

market domination.

d)

market segmentation.

79.

Mass marketing is not as precise as __________ marketing.

a)

direct

b)

segment

c)

promotional

d)

event

80.

Today’s customers are not influenced by mass marketing alone because they are more

a)

discerning.

b)

decisive.

c)

determined.

d)

disciplined.

81.

Marketers divide their markets by grouping customers according to their

a)

differences.

b)

hobbies.

c)

occupations.

d)

similarities.

82.

Sorting customers by their physical and social characteristics is called _________ segmentation.

a)

psychographic

b)

demographic

c)

behavioral

d)

statistical

83.

The community college has decided to market its evening classes to women ages 18–30 who are high school graduates. What type of segmentation is the college using?

a)

Geographic

b)

Demographic

c)

Behavioral

d)

Psychographic

84.

The characteristic that reflects where customers fit in the day-to-day buying routine is their

a)

socioeconomic status.

b)

origin or heritage.

c)

personal belief.

d)

life stage.

85.

Geographic segmentation is dividing a market by where customers are

a)

working.

b)

living.

c)

born.

d)

educated.

86.

When marketers sort customers psychographically, they divide them by

a)

likable traits.

b)

lifestyle habits.

c)

level of education.

d)

loyalty to a brand.

87.

Jackie is interested in predicting what special events result in higher demand for chocolate. She should conduct behavioral segmentation based on

a)

occasion response.

b)

rate of use.

c)

benefits derived.

d)

loyalty response.

88.

Which of the following is a requirement for good decision-making:

a)

A college degree

b)

At least three options

c)

Money

d)

Data

89.

Which of the following are common types of data used by marketers:

a)

Facts, predictions, estimates

b)

Predictions, estimates, quotes

c)

Quotes, facts, testimonials

d)

Quotes, testimonials, estimates

90.

Which of the following is an example of a fact:

a)

The economy should get better during the next decade.

b)

Valentine’s Day is on February 14.

c)

It could cost up to 20 million dollars to launch a new product.

d)

Junior year will be harder than sophomore year.

91.

Quinn is getting ready to start college. Though she knows that the figure could change over time, she guesses that her four years in school will cost her around $65,000. This is an example of a(n)

a)

quote.

b)

sales report.

c)

estimate.

d)

fact.

92.

Which of the following is an example of a prediction:

a)

About half of the business’s customers are female.

b)

The business owes $200,000 in taxes.

c)

Sales will be up 4% next quarter.

d)

Sales were up 4% last quarter.

93.

Which of the following is an example of data that marketers could gather from the company’s sales team:

a)

The latest market research studies

b)

The prices of raw materials

c)

What products competitors are currently offering

d)

How actual sales compare to sales goals

94.

Which of the following pieces of data give a wealth of information about a customer:

a)

A trade journal

b)

A sales invoice

c)

An expense report

d)

A sales report

95.

A piece of easily observable data about a competitor is its

a)

current promotional campaign.

b)

products in development.

c)

sales reports.

d)

future plans.

96.

The best source for data about the goods and services a company needs to buy for its own operation is its

a)

vendors.

b)

sales team.

c)

customers.

d)

competitors.

97.

Which of the following is an example of a trade journal:

a)

Newsweek

b)

People

c)

MOTOR Magazine

d)

USA Today

98.

Having appropriate data helps marketers set goals that are

a)

open-ended.

b)

realistic.

c)

general.

d)

difficult.

99.

Which of the following is a product strategy that marketers devise using available data:

a)

Where to sell the product

b)

What advertisements to run

c)

How much to charge

d)

What level of customer service to provide

100.

Marketers use data to determine pricing strategies such as

a)

how much to spend on advertising.

b)

how much of the product to create.

c)

when to offer a discount on the product.

d)

what products to offer.

101.

Marketers use data to determine that they want to create messages that appeal to a younger target market. This is part of an overall

a)

place strategy.

b)

promotional strategy.

c)

product strategy.

d)

pricing strategy.

102.

Which of the following is a place strategy that marketers devise using available data:

a)

How much of the product to create

b)

What level of customer service to provide

c)

When to change the product’s price

d)

What market segment to target

103.

Marketers must use data to estimate costs for projects and allocate funds appropriately. This is known as

a)

distributing.

b)

promoting.

c)

pricing.

d)

budgeting.

104.

Which of the following is a way that marketers can use data to follow up on any problems or issues with a product:

a)

Determining what new products to offer

b)

Deciding what wholesalers to use for distribution

c)

Providing salespeople with additional training

d)

Budgeting for product development

105.

Data obtained from negative outcomes can help marketers

a)

avoid making the same mistakes in the future.

b)

increase profits.

c)

create SMART goals.

d)

analyze sales reports effectively.

106.

Which of the following is a true statement about the wise use of available data:

a)

It increases market share.

b)

It doubles a business’s profits.

c)

It increases employee satisfaction.

d)

It creates more satisfied customers.

107.

Using data wisely can help a company save money by

a)

spending more money.

b)

running more efficiently.

c)

hiring fewer employees.

d)

eliminating the competition.

108.

Which of the following is an example of secondary data:

a)

The information on a sales invoice

b)

The results of a focus group

c)

The outcome of an experiment

d)

The answers to a survey

109.

One reason that marketers conduct secondary research is to

a)

clarify research questions.

b)

create hypotheses.

c)

make accurate predictions.

d)

learn more about a specific industry.

110.

Marketers look for internal data in

a)

trade association reports.

b)

informal interviews.

c)

the organization’s information system.

d)

government databases.

111.

Which of the following is an example of internal data:

a)

A field test

b)

A cash register receipt

c)

A competitor’s website

d)

A media report

112.

Which of the following is an example of external data:

a)

A retail “loyalty” card

b)

An article written by an industry expert

c)

A sales report

d)

A profit-and-loss statement

113.

Which of the following is a true statement about external data:

a)

They come from original research.

b)

They are represented numerically.

c)

They are the easiest data to access.

d)

They can cost money to obtain.

114.

Primary research collects data for

a)

marketers across the industry to use.

b)

understanding economic cycles.

c)

the research project at hand.

d)

informational purposes only.

115.

Marketers often conduct primary research when secondary research

a)

isn’t complete enough.

b)

is too costly.

c)

is too time-consuming.

d)

isn’t broad enough.

116.

Which of the following is a reason that marketers conduct qualitative research:

a)

To create hypotheses for further testing

b)

To test hypotheses

c)

To make accurate predictions

d)

To analyze relationships between market factors

117.

Which of the following is a true statement about qualitative research:

a)

It is often conducted through experiments.

b)

It is conducted during a short timeframe.

c)

It uses large samples of the population.

d)

It is based on statistics and facts.

118.

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data:

a)

“The customer smiled when she heard the name of the new product.”

b)

“Many local residents enjoy playing sports at the community center.”

c)

“The salespeople think that customers want more payment options.”

d)

“Sales of this particular model have fallen 13% in the last year.”

119.

Which of the following is a true statement about quantitative research:

a)

It is usually conducted before qualitative research.

b)

It is subjective.

c)

Its questions are highly structured.

d)

It is gathered through methods such as informal interviews.

120.

Which of the following is an advantage of secondary research:

a)

It is up to date.

b)

It gives marketers control of the study.

c)

It is quick.

d)

It is specific to the research needs.

121.

Secondary research is cost-effective for marketers because the data

a)

already exist.

b)

are cheap to purchase.

c)

are specific.

d)

are incomplete.

122.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of secondary research:

a)

It is difficult to find secondary data.

b)

It is time-consuming.

c)

It is expensive.

d)

It is not customized to the research needs.

123.

A marketer is having difficulty finding data about a competitor because the competitor’s financial records have not been made public. Which disadvantage of secondary research does this situation illustrate?

a)

It can be incomplete.

b)

It can be out of date.

c)

It can be costly.

d)

It can be time-consuming.

124.

Which of the following is an advantage of primary research:

a)

It never “expires.”

b)

It is specific.

c)

It is inexpensive.

d)

It is easy to conduct.

125.

How is primary research different now than it was in the past?

a)

It is more enjoyable.

b)

It is more affordable.

c)

It is more difficult.

d)

It is more time-consuming.

126.

What is the main disadvantage of conducting primary research?

a)

It is not customized to the research needs.

b)

It takes control away from the marketers.

c)

It is costly to carry out.

d)

It can be difficult to find respondents.

127.

Which of the following is a reason that some marketers choose to outsource marketing-research activities:

a)

It is inexpensive to outsource marketing-research activities.

b)

Professional marketing researchers have subjective mindsets.

c)

Marketing-research activities are too difficult for most marketers.

d)

A marketing-research firm can make the research anonymous.

128.

Which of the following products is a sporting event:

a)

Yankee Stadium

b)

Premier of a Broadway play

c)

ESPN Magazine

d)

Ocean kayaking competition in Alaska

129.

Which of the following is an example of a venue:

a)

Statesville Sporting Goods store

b)

Statesville Recreation Complex

c)

Statesville Annual Marathon

d)

Statesville Jazz Festival

130.

Which of the following is a non-sport event:

a)

The Annual Concession Workers’ Convention

b)

Monday Night Football broadcast

c)

University of Nebraska Volleyball Camp

d)

The Little League World Series

131.

Which of the following is a sporting good:

a)

NASCAR hat

b)

ESPN.com

c)

Running shorts

d)

Yoga class

132.

Which of the following products is licensed merchandise:

a)

Key chain

b)

Nike sweatband

c)

Concert T-shirt

d)

Hockey helmet

133.

A baseball game broadcast on the radio is an example of

a)

a sporting good.

b)

sports media.

c)

owned-goods service.

d)

a non-sport event.

134.

Dan and Kelly don’t have their own ice skates. When they go skating, they pay $3 each to use skates owned by the rink. Which of the following sport/event products are Dan and Kelly consuming:

a)

Rented-goods service

b)

Owned-goods service

c)

Venue

d)

Licensed merchandise

135.

Tatiana takes her lucky tennis racket to be restrung. Which of the following products is she consuming:

a)

Rented-goods service

b)

Owned-goods service

c)

Venue

d)

Licensed merchandise

136.

The most basic distinction between goods and services states that goods are __________ products.

a)

intangible

b)

tangible

c)

branded

d)

inconsistent

137.

A high school basketball team won the state championship last year but didn’t even make the playoffs this year. This is an example of a(n) __________ sport product.

a)

tangible

b)

inconsistent

c)

perishable

d)

consistent

138.

Your band is having a concert to raise money for charity. You have 15 tickets left to sell before the performance on Thursday night. This is an example of a(n) __________ product.

a)

perishable

b)

consistent

c)

imperishable

d)

tangible

139.

Simon was determined to get the new golfing video game. The game costs $50 at the mall, but Simon was excited to find it for only $35 on eBay. He didn’t mind buying the game from somewhere other than the mall. This is an example of

a)

separability.

b)

consistency.

c)

perishability.

d)

tangibility.

140.

Which of the following is a sporting good made available through a sports service:

a)

Workout session with a personal trainer

b)

Tennis racket repair at a country club

c)

Water bottle sold at a health club pro shop

d)

Aerobics classes at a health club

141.

The overall impression consumers get from a product’s unique name, design, or symbol is the product’s

a)

brand.

b)

quality.

c)

performance.

d)

reliability.

142.

Which of the following is a reason that sports/event marketers use branding:

a)

To give their products positive, memorable names

b)

To use logos and trademarks

c)

To help consumers distinguish between goods and services

d)

To make their products stand out from the competition

143.

Over the years, Wrigley Field has earned a reputation as one of the best places to watch a Major League Baseball game. This is called brand

a)

loyalty.

b)

quality.

c)

awareness.

d)

image.

144.

Mario loves Reebok running shoes and won’t buy any other kind. This is called brand

a)

quality.

b)

loyalty.

c)

awareness.

d)

image.

145.

Since a team’s performances are inconsistent from game to game, sports marketers might try to attract consumers by

a)

discontinuing group discounts.

b)

changing venues.

c)

lowering ticket prices.

d)

raising ticket prices.

146.

Rodrigo and his friends went to the state fair. The fair itself was great, but they had trouble finding a place to park, several of the ride attendants were rude, and the bathrooms were really dirty. Overall, Rodrigo and his friends gave the fair a “C” rating. The close link between the fair and all the product elements involved with the fair is known as

a)

smoothing.

b)

consistency.

c)

perishability.

d)

separability.

147.

Since attendance is usually low after school starts, a water park offers a 25% discount on admissions during the first two weeks of September. This is an example of

a)

separability.

b)

smoothing.

c)

consistency.

d)

branding.