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AIPT 2025 Mock Test

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The aerodrome emergency plan document should include at least the following: 1. types of emergencies planned for 2. agencies involved in the plan 3. responsibility and role of each agency, the emergency operations centre and the command post, for each type of emergency 4. information on names and telephone numbers of offices or people to be contacted in the case of a particular emergency 5. a grid map of the aerodrome and its immediate vicinity. Fill in the blank: One of the items that must be included in the aerodrome emergency plan is _________.

a)

types of emergencies

b)

passenger seating arrangement

2.

The rescue and firefighting service is provided to create and maintain survivable conditions and to initiate the rescue of those unable to escape without direct aid.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The airport category for RFF is determined by the overall length and ________ of the longest aeroplanes.

a)

maximum fuel capacity

b)

maximum fuselage width

4.

Which of the following is true about principal and complementary agents at airports?

a)

Both agents offer transient control.

b)

Principal agents produce a permanent control, complementary agents have rapid fire suppression capability but offer a transient control.

5.

Residual heat in turbine aircraft engines can ignite fuel vapours up to ______ minutes after shutdown.

a)

10

b)

30

c)

20

d)

5

6.

The prudence to do, RFF at aircraft incident site & fuel spillage is:

a)

300m

b)

100m

7.

What are the two basic methods of applying foam?

a)

Manual stream and automatic stream

b)

Long straight stream and diffused stream

8.

Fill in the blank: The pH value of foam concentrate should register between the values of ___ and ___.

a)

4 and 6

b)

6 and 8.5

9.

What is the minimum application rate for foam meeting performance level A?

a)

8.2 L/min/m2

b)

5.5 L/min/m2

10.

What is the minimum application rate for foam meeting performance level B?

a)

3.75 L/min/m2

b)

5.5 L/min/m2

11.

What percentage of aircraft accident survivors are in P1, P2, and P3 according to ICAO ASM Part 7?

a)

P1 50%, P2 30%, P3 20%

b)

P1 20%, P2 30%, P3 50%

c)

P1 10%, P2 40%, P3 50%

d)

P1 50%, P2 20%, P3 30%

12.

What is the minimum rank required for a Safety Officer conducting BA training, hot firefighting drill, and physical drills?

a)

Fire Sergeant

b)

Fireman

c)

Fire Staff Sergeant

d)

Fire Warrant

13.

What is the minimum rank required for an Assistant SAFETY Officer (ASO)?

a)

FCPL

b)

FLCP

c)

FSGT

d)

FWO

14.

Who is responsible for enforcing safety guidelines during training?

a)

Participant

b)

Safety Officer

c)

Conducting Officer

d)

ASO

15.

The Safety Officer must report to ______ Management.

a)

Finance

b)

AES

c)

People Team

d)

CEO

16.

Who is the overall in-charge for safety? Select the correct option.

a)

OC (ADAM)

b)

Commander (TSRM)

17.

BA training is designed to equip operational staff to work in what type of environment?

a)

Heat and humid environment

b)

High-altitude environment

c)

B.A Physical Training

d)

Hot Fire Drill

18.

What is the required temperature range for BA training?

a)

28 to 30 Degree Celsius

b)

32 to 34 Degree Celsius

19.

What is the minimum duration per participant for BA training?

a)

20 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

25 minutes

d)

5 minutes

20.

How often must BA training be conducted for each AEO?

a)

Every month

b)

Every six months

21.

What is the main objective of BA training?

a)

To ensure staff operate the BA set without any training

b)

To ensure staff operate the BA set confidently under hot and humid conditions

22.

Aerodrome Familiarisation session consists of: Fill in the blank. Operate vehicle over all types of ______.

a)

weather

b)

terrain

23.

Aerodrome Familiarisation session consists of: Fill in the blank. Most ______ routes.

a)

restricted

b)

expeditious

c)

safest

d)

visible

24.

Aerodrome Familiarisation session consists of: What is the minimum duration for the session?

a)

20 mins

b)

30 mins

c)

10 mins

d)

40 mins

25.

A/c Familiarisation consists of: What is the minimum duration for the session?

a)

10 mins

b)

20 mins

26.

What constitutes movement at an airport?

a)

Only taxiing on the runway constitutes movement.

b)

Either a take-off or a landing constitutes movement.

27.

How much foam concentrate should be available to ensure rapid replenishment of the water content carried?

a)

Only one load of water is sufficient.

b)

At least two full loads of such quantity of water.

28.

Emergency access roads should provide ready access to approach areas up to how many meters from the threshold?

a)

1000 m from the threshold.

b)

500 m from the threshold.

29.

What are the three methods of aerating the foam solution?

a)

Aspiration by inducted air, aspiration by compressed air insertion, aspiration within the jet.

b)

Aspiration by water injection, aspiration by heat, aspiration by chemical reaction.

c)

Aspiration by mechanical stirring, aspiration by gravity, aspiration by filtration.

d)

Aspiration by vacuum suction, aspiration by pressure release, aspiration by evaporation.

30.

RFF personnel should stay at least how many meters from the front and side of intake of a turbine engine to avoid being ingested?

a)

At least 10 meters.

b)

At least 2 meters.

c)

At least 5 meters.

d)

At least 20 meters.

31.

The safety distance from the rear of an aircraft whilst the engine is running is:

a)

15 meters

b)

5 meters

c)

50 meters

d)

100 meters

32.

What is the maximum reversing speed allowed for AES vehicles?

a)

5 km/h

b)

10 km/h

c)

15 km/h

d)

20 km/h

33.

What is the response time for breakdown at Pulau Sudong during office hours?

a)

30 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

120 minutes

d)

240 minutes

34.

Who is the CAG accountable executive safety officer?

a)

CEO

b)

CFO

c)

COO

d)

CTO

35.

What does S.A.F.E stand for?

a)

Safe AES For Everyone

b)

Secure Algorithm For Encryption

c)

Simple Access For Everyone

d)

Systematic Approach For Encryption

36.

What is the AES Safety Pledge?

a)

We, Staff of AES, shall always practice safety, and ensure the safety of all, SAFETY FIRST SAFETY ALWAYS!

b)

We, Staff of AES, shall sometimes practice safety, and ensure the safety of some, SAFETY SOMETIMES!

c)

We, Staff of AES, shall ignore safety, and ensure the safety of none, SAFETY NEVER!

d)

We, Staff of AES, shall practice safety only when convenient, SAFETY OPTIONAL!

37.

Who can call out for STO (Safety Time out)?

a)

Only managers

b)

Only CAES

c)

Any Staff

d)

Only USOs

38.

Who can lift the STO (Safety Time out)?

a)

Any Staff

b)

CAES

c)

USOs

d)

DSM

39.

What is Risk Assessment (RA)?

a)

Risk assessment is the identification, analysis and mitigation of risks associated with the identified hazards arising from operations and activities.

b)

Risk assessment is the process of scheduling meetings to discuss project timelines.

c)

Risk assessment is the evaluation of employee performance in the workplace.

d)

Risk assessment is the calculation of financial profits from business operations.

40.

How often is RA (Risk Assessment) reviewed?

a)

Every 3 years

b)

Every year

c)

Every 5 years

d)

Every 10 years

41.

AES project officer shall adopt the concept 'As Low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP)' when conducting the risk assessment. What does ALARP stand for?

a)

As Low as Reasonably Practicable

b)

As Large as Reasonably Possible

c)

As Late as Required Practically

d)

As Light as Required Practicable

42.

What is FAHP?

a)

First Aid Hydration Point

b)

Federal Association of Health Professionals

c)

Financial Aid Help Program

d)

Food and Health Partnership

43.

What is WBGT?

a)

Wet Bulb Globe Temperature

b)

Water Based Global Temperature

c)

Wind Blown Gauge Thermometer

d)

Weather Based Gradient Test

44.

What is the main purpose of the reaction time test?

a)

To test the operational crew's alertness to respond to sudden activation.

b)

To measure the physical strength of the crew.

c)

To evaluate the crew's ability to solve complex problems.

d)

To assess the crew's long-term memory skills.

45.

What is the required response time for the rescue and firefighting service to both ends of the runway under optimum visibility and surface conditions?

a)

One minute

b)

Two minutes and not exceeding three minutes

c)

Five minutes

d)

Ten minutes

46.

The last responding vehicle shall also respond within a minute of the first responding vehicle(s).

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What is the minimum rate at which the first responding vehicle(s) should be able to apply foam, as specified in ICAO's Annex 14, Chapter 9?

a)

At least 50% of the discharge rate

b)

At least 25% of the discharge rate

c)

At least 75% of the discharge rate

d)

At least 100% of the discharge rate

48.

The operational objective of the rescue and firefighting service shall be to achieve a response time not exceeding three minutes to any point of each operational runway and any other part of movement area.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the formula for theoretical practical area (AT) for aircraft with 22metres in length?

a)

L x (12m + W)

b)

L x (14m + W)

c)

L x (17m + W)

d)

L x (30m + W)

50.

There are how many phases in Task Resource Analysis?

a)

three

b)

four

c)

five

d)

six

51.

The OPC will take up a commanding position and park his command vehicle (Ops Car) at the CAA. He will wear protective clothing with a Red Vest and a white helmet with the label “_______”. He will switch on the LED display in his Ops Car, showing “AES COMMAND POST” together with flashing lights.

a)

OC

b)

OPS COMMANDER

c)

OPC

d)

Either of the above

52.

In aircraft incidents that required Rigid Inflatable Boat (RIB), who will be driving the SV1 to tow RIB?

a)

The 3rd FT IC from main stations

b)

The ET operator

c)

The EAS operator

d)

Either of the operator

53.

For bomb warning incidents - What is the safety distances recommended for backpack explosive threats?

a)

100m

b)

200m

c)

400m

d)

800m

54.

Which stations should respond to fire call or aircraft incident at Loop 3 that required AES assistance

a)

Changi Fire Station 1

b)

Changi Fire Station 2

c)

Changi West Satellite Fire Station

d)

Changi Fire Station 3

55.

What does the picture represent?

a)

Hand free

b)

Inserting of Pins

c)

Choke

d)

EPU shut-off

56.

AES will place a look out man on the ____ abeam to the cockpit to have visual communication with the pilot.

a)

Board side

b)

starboard side

c)

rear

d)

fore

57.

Hydrazine leak detector is negative when it is black or deep purple

a)

True

b)

False

58.

When conducting routine duties, drivers shall only drive on pre-identified routes. Any new route(s) or deviations must be approved by the Unit ____prior to use

a)

WO

b)

DO

c)

OC/OPC

d)

Commander

59.

AES SWC shall meet every___ to discuss the implementation and management of day-to-day functions prescribed in the SMS

a)

Month

b)

Quarter

c)

6 Month

d)

Year

60.

Once STO is called. The unit OC shall then submit the Safety Time Out Notification Form to___within 24 hours

a)

CAES

b)

SAES

c)

AES Safety Manager

d)

None of the above

61.

AES project officer is to start the risk assessment study at least__weeks prior to submit the approved risk assessment.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

62.

Amendments to Changi Airport Group Safety Management System Manual are the responsibility of the ________

a)

Aerodrome Safety Unit

b)

Aviation Security Unit

c)

AES Safety Committee

d)

AES Fire Prevention Unit

63.

In Safety Committee Structure, who is the Chair Person for Operational Risk and Safety Committee

a)

Board Member

b)

CEO

c)

EVP AM

d)

MD AOP&A

64.

Operational units are also responsible to ensure proper documentation of their respective manuals & review ______

a)

at least once annually

b)

at least twice annually

c)

at least once every two years

d)

at least 3 times annually

65.

In Safety Committee Structure, who is the Chair Person for Management Committee Meeting, Safety (MCM Safety)

a)

Board Member

b)

CEO

c)

EVP AM

d)

MD AOP&A