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ECT Defined: Basic Principles

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

a)

A psychotherapy using talk-based interventions

b)

A method to induce a grand mal (generalized) seizure by applying electrical current to the brain

c)

A surgical procedure to remove a brain lesion

d)

A pharmacologic therapy using anticonvulsants

2.

ECT has historically been regarded as which of the following?

a)

A universally accepted first-line treatment

b)

A therapy with a long-standing negative reputation

c)

A non-controversial supportive care measure

d)

An obsolete practice no longer used

3.

Which statement about the longevity of ECT use is accurate?

a)

It has been used for less than 10 years

b)

It was discontinued in the 1980s

c)

It has been used continuously for more than 50 years

d)

It is still experimental and not in clinical use

4.

ECT is characterized as one of the most controversial treatments for which category of conditions?

a)

Cardiovascular diseases

b)

Endocrine disorders

c)

Psychological disorders

d)

Infectious diseases

5.

In ECT, how is the seizure induced?

a)

By sensory stimulation alone

b)

By administering a dose of electrical current through electrodes

c)

By hyperventilation protocols

d)

By neurosurgical intervention

6.

Where are electrodes placed during ECT to deliver electrical current?

a)

In the spinal cord only

b)

On the scalp either bilaterally or unilaterally

c)

Inside cerebral ventricles

d)

On peripheral nerves of the arm

7.

According to the material, right unilateral ECT is associated with which outcome compared to other placements?

a)

More cognitive side effects

b)

Fewer cognitive side effects

c)

No difference in cognitive side effects

d)

Complete elimination of seizures

8.

How is the dose of electrical current managed during ECT?

a)

Manually estimated by the clinician without instruments

b)

Automatically generated by the patient’s EEG

c)

Carefully controlled through the use of an ECT machine

d)

Determined by the patient’s self-report of symptoms

9.

Which aspect of ECT remains a source of controversy according to the material?

a)

The existence of electrodes

b)

The anesthetic used

c)

The amount of electrical stimulus applied

d)

The setting (inpatient vs. outpatient)

10.

Which option best represents a key principle of ECT as described in the material?

a)

ECT avoids seizure activity to protect cognition

b)

ECT relies on pharmacologic agents to induce coma

c)

ECT intentionally induces a generalized seizure using controlled electrical current

d)

ECT is defined by unilateral surgical ablation of brain tissue

11.

During a typical course of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), what change in a patient’s seizure threshold is most accurately described?

a)

It decreases by 25 to 200 percent

b)

It remains unchanged

c)

It increases by 25 to 200 percent

d)

It fluctuates unpredictably without a trend

12.

Which statement best explains why ECT has an anticonvulsant effect as treatment progresses?

a)

ECT reduces brain oxygenation

b)

The seizure threshold increases over the course of treatments

c)

ECT lowers muscle tone

d)

ECT eliminates both tonic and clonic phases

13.

Movements are minimal during ECT primarily because

a)

patients are restrained

b)

a muscle relaxant is administered before treatment

c)

the stimulus intensity is low

d)

the patient is hyperventilated

14.

Which pair correctly names the phases referenced for motor activity associated with seizures?

a)

Prodromal and postictal

b)

Atonic and myoclonic

c)

Tonic and clonic

d)

Absence and focal

15.

Most ECT treatment courses consist of how many sessions?

a)

1–5 treatments

b)

6–12 treatments

c)

13–18 treatments

d)

Up to 30 treatments routinely

16.

How frequently are ECT treatments commonly scheduled?

a)

Daily for seven days a week

b)

Twice weekly

c)

Every other day, three times per week

d)

Once monthly

17.

A patient’s motor movements during ECT are expected to be minimal. Which pre-procedure intervention most directly accounts for this observation?

a)

Administration of an anticonvulsant medication

b)

Application of physical restraints

c)

Administration of a muscle relaxant

d)

Lowering stimulus energy below threshold

18.

Which scenario best aligns with typical ECT planning based on the provided guidance?

a)

Scheduling 20 sessions delivered daily for four weeks

b)

Planning 8 sessions delivered every other day over about three weeks

c)

Providing 3 sessions in a single week only

d)

Arranging 15 sessions once weekly over four months

19.

In which city and year was the first electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment performed?

a)

Rome, 1938

b)

Budapest, 1934

c)

Berlin, 1933

d)

Paris, 1940

20.

Which somatic therapy was introduced by German psychiatrist Manfred Sakei in 1933?

a)

Electroconvulsive therapy

b)

Pharmacoconvulsive therapy

c)

Insulin coma therapy

d)

Lobotomy

21.

Pharmacoconvulsive therapy was introduced in 1934 by Ladislas Meduna in which city?

a)

Rome

b)

Budapest

c)

Berlin

d)

Vienna

22.

During which period was ECT widely accepted according to the historical overview?

a)

1933–1938

b)

1940–1960

c)

1960–1980

d)

1980–2000

23.

After the initial acceptance of ECT, what characterized the following 20-year span?

a)

Rapid global expansion of ECT

b)

Objection to ECT by the psychiatric profession and the public

c)

Introduction of insulin coma therapy

d)

Development of new ECT devices

24.

Around what year did the second wave of acceptance of ECT begin?

a)

1938

b)

1940

c)

1960

d)

1980

25.

Approximately how many people receive ECT treatments yearly in the United States, based on the estimate provided?

a)

10,000

b)

50,000

c)

100,000

d)

500,000

26.

What is the estimated worldwide number of people receiving ECT treatments yearly?

a)

200,000

b)

1 million

c)

2 million

d)

5 million

27.

Which statement best describes when ECT is typically considered for major depression?

a)

As the first-line treatment before any medications

b)

Only after a trial of antidepressant therapy has proven ineffective

c)

Only in patients with mild depressive symptoms

d)

After psychotherapy has been tried for at least two years

28.

ECT has been shown to be effective in the treatment of which severity of depression?

a)

Mild

b)

Moderate

c)

Severe

d)

Seasonal affective disorder only

29.

In situations where an urgent treatment response is needed in major depression, ECT may be considered the treatment of choice. Which clinical scenario most clearly fits this criterion?

a)

A patient with stable appetite and mild anhedonia

b)

A patient who is extremely suicidal or refusing food and is nutritionally compromised

c)

A patient with occasional insomnia and low energy

d)

A patient responding partially to initial SSRI therapy

30.

For acute manic episodes, ECT is described as at least as effective as which pharmacologic agent?

a)

Valproate

b)

Lithium

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Lamotrigine

31.

ECT may be used in bipolar disorders particularly in which presentation?

a)

Predominant depressive episodes only

b)

Mixed states

c)

Rapid cycling without mania

d)

Hypomania only

32.

In mania, ECT is indicated especially for patients who are refractory to which type of therapy?

a)

Antidepressant therapy

b)

Antipsychotic therapy

c)

Antimanic drug therapy

d)

Anxiolytic therapy

33.

According to the indications provided, when is ECT used for mania in relation to medication response?

a)

Before any medication is attempted

b)

Only when the patient has failed to respond to medication

c)

Simultaneously with initiation of mood stabilizers

d)

Only after psychosocial interventions

34.

ECT can induce remission in some patients with acute schizophrenia. Which subgroup is highlighted as more likely to benefit?

a)

Patients with chronic negative symptoms

b)

Patients with marked positive, catatonic, or affective symptomatology

c)

Patients with residual symptoms only

d)

Patients in long-term remission

35.

Which statement about ECT and chronic schizophrenic illness is most accurate based on the material?

a)

ECT is effective for chronic schizophrenia

b)

ECT appears more effective for chronic than acute schizophrenia

c)

ECT does not appear effective with chronic schizophrenic illness

d)

ECT is only effective for negative symptoms in chronic schizophrenia

36.

Which condition is explicitly listed as an indication for ECT among depressive disorders?

a)

Dysthymia without functional impairment

b)

Severe major depression

c)

Seasonal affective disorder during winter

d)

Adjustment disorder with depressed mood

37.

Which best captures the role of ECT in treatment-resistant major depression?

a)

It is contraindicated if any medication has been tried

b)

It is considered after antidepressant therapy proves ineffective

c)

It replaces psychotherapy in all cases

d)

It is reserved for outpatient-only settings

38.

Which of the following pairs correctly matches ECT with its indication?

a)

ECT—first-line for mild depression

b)

ECT—effective for acute manic episodes, at least as effective as lithium

c)

ECT—curative for chronic schizophrenia

d)

ECT—preferred for hypomania before mood stabilizers

39.

Which scenario most appropriately supports ECT use in schizophrenia based on the indications?

a)

A patient with chronic, predominantly negative symptoms

b)

An acutely ill patient with catatonia

c)

A patient stable on antipsychotics for several years

d)

A patient with only cognitive deficits

40.

Which statement best reflects the overall pattern of ECT indications across disorders in the material?

a)

Primarily first-line therapy across all psychiatric conditions

b)

Reserved for mild forms of mood and psychotic disorders

c)

Considered when conditions are severe, acute, or refractory to standard drug therapy

d)

Only useful for depressive symptoms within schizophrenia

41.

Which clinical feature signals an urgent need in depression where ECT may be the treatment of choice?

a)

Mild sleep disturbance

b)

Extremely suicidal behavior or refusal of food leading to nutritional compromise

c)

Occasional mood swings

d)

Preference to avoid medications

42.

Which of the following psychiatric conditions has ECT been reported as useful in treating?

a)

Somatization disorder without depression

b)

Episodic psychosis

c)

Borderline personality disorder

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

43.

ECT has been reported as useful in treating which acute medical syndrome characterized by hyperthermia, rigidity, and autonomic instability?

a)

Serotonin syndrome

b)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Anticholinergic toxicity

44.

In which population might ECT be considered a safer alternative when individuals are unable to take medications?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Pregnant women and elderly individuals

c)

Healthy middle-aged adults

d)

Patients with personality disorders

45.

ECT may be helpful for delirium under certain circumstances. Which statement best reflects this indication?

a)

ECT is contraindicated in all forms of delirium

b)

ECT may be useful in treating delirium

c)

ECT is only used for chronic dementia

d)

ECT treats delirium by curing underlying infection

46.

Which condition listed is NOT typically improved by ECT unless there is comorbid depression?

a)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

b)

Somatization disorders

c)

Delirium

d)

Atypical psychosis

47.

ECT is generally considered ineffective for which category of disorders?

a)

Personality disorders

b)

Intractable seizure disorders

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

Hypopituitarism

48.

A patient with Parkinson’s disease has severe symptoms refractory to medication. Based on reported indications, which statement is most accurate regarding ECT?

a)

ECT is not used in Parkinson’s disease

b)

ECT has been reported as useful in Parkinson’s disease

c)

ECT is only effective for anxiety in Parkinson’s disease

d)

ECT is contraindicated in all neurologic conditions

49.

Which of the following is a disorder for which ECT is generally not effective?

a)

Atypical psychosis

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

Anxiety disorders

d)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

50.

According to the material, what is the status of absolute contraindications for Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

a)

ECT has multiple absolute contraindications

b)

ECT has one absolute contraindication

c)

There are no absolute contraindications for ECT

d)

Absolute contraindications for ECT are unknown

51.

Which statement best describes patients who may require closer monitoring during ECT?

a)

Only patients without comorbidities

b)

Patients at higher risk for adverse events

c)

All patients equally

d)

Only pediatric patients

52.

A patient had a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. Based on the guidance, how should their ECT risk be considered?

a)

Low risk; proceed with routine monitoring

b)

High risk; requires attention and closer monitoring

c)

Contraindicated; ECT cannot be given

d)

Risk is unrelated to timing

53.

Which condition is listed among individuals at high risk with ECT?

a)

Mild seasonal allergies

b)

Aortic or cerebral aneurysm

c)

Resolved childhood asthma

d)

Benign skin nevi

54.

In the context of ECT, severe underlying hypertension is categorized as which of the following?

a)

An absolute contraindication

b)

A routine indication

c)

A high-risk condition requiring closer monitoring

d)

A minor side effect

55.

Which cardiac condition places a patient in a high-risk category for ECT?

a)

Bradycardia without symptoms

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Athlete’s heart

d)

First-degree AV block

56.

Which intracranial consideration increases risk during ECT?

a)

Normal intracranial pressure

b)

Intracranial lesions

c)

Closed sutures

d)

Low cerebrospinal fluid

57.

A patient with increased intracranial pressure is being evaluated for ECT. Which option reflects the guidance?

a)

ECT is absolutely contraindicated

b)

ECT can proceed without precautions

c)

The patient is high risk and requires closer monitoring

d)

ECT must be postponed indefinitely

58.

Which musculoskeletal condition is identified as high risk for ECT in the material?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Severe osteoporosis

c)

Muscle strain

d)

Scoliosis

59.

Which of the following pulmonary or obstetric statuses is specifically noted as high risk with ECT?

a)

Mild upper respiratory infection

b)

Pulmonary disorders and high-risk or complicated pregnancy

c)

Second-trimester uncomplicated pregnancy

d)

History of pneumonia in childhood

60.

Which statement best describes the mechanism by which Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) produces a therapeutic response?

a)

It is fully understood and mapped to specific neural circuits.

b)

It is unknown but involves complex effects on the central nervous system.

c)

It is solely due to increased cerebral blood flow during seizures.

d)

It is explained by changes limited to the peripheral nervous system.

61.

ECT is known to affect many parts of which body system, contributing to its therapeutic effects?

a)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

b)

Musculoskeletal system

c)

Central nervous system (CNS)

d)

Endocrine glands only

62.

According to the instructional material, which group is included among the substances affected by ECT?

a)

Only electrolytes

b)

Hormones, neuropeptides, and neurotrophic factors

c)

Vitamins and minerals

d)

Histamines exclusively

63.

Which neurotransmitter is listed as affected by ECT?

a)

GABA

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Glutamate

64.

ECT affects the same biogenic amines that are influenced by which class of medications?

a)

Anxiolytics

b)

Antipsychotics

c)

Antidepressant drugs

d)

Mood stabilizers

65.

A student argues that ECT’s therapeutic effects are confined to a single neurotransmitter pathway. Which evidence from the material best counters this claim?

a)

ECT primarily affects acetylcholine only.

b)

ECT alters nearly every neurotransmitter and multiple CNS components.

c)

ECT targets the peripheral nervous system.

d)

ECT works through a known single receptor mechanism.

66.

Which combination lists neurotransmitters explicitly named as affected by ECT?

a)

Serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine

b)

Histamine, acetylcholine, GABA

c)

Glutamate, glycine, taurine

d)

Melatonin, cortisol, insulin

67.

Which side effects are most commonly associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

a)

Permanent cognitive decline and seizures

b)

Temporary memory loss and confusion

c)

Chronic depression and anxiety

d)

Long-term psychosis

68.

A patient reports confusion immediately after an ECT session. Based on typical outcomes, which statement best guides your initial explanation?

a)

Confusion is rare and usually indicates permanent damage

b)

Confusion is expected and typically temporary and reversible

c)

Confusion suggests the treatment was ineffective and will persist

d)

Confusion only occurs with bilateral electrode placement and is permanent

69.

Which interpretation aligns with proponents' view of ECT side effects?

a)

They are inevitable and irreversible

b)

They are uncommon but permanent

c)

They are temporary and reversible

d)

They are preventable with premedication and hydration

70.

Which statement best describes the mortality rate associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

a)

It is higher than that of childbirth.

b)

It is less than that of childbirth.

c)

It is equal to that of childbirth.

d)

It cannot be estimated.

71.

Approximately what is the mortality rate per ECT treatment?

a)

0.2 percent

b)

0.02 percent

c)

0.002 percent

d)

0.0002 percent

72.

What is the approximate mortality risk for each patient receiving ECT (across treatments)?

a)

0.1 percent

b)

0.01 percent

c)

1 percent

d)

0.001 percent

73.

When death does occur with ECT, it is most commonly associated with which complication?

a)

Respiratory failure

b)

Seizure activity itself

c)

Cardiovascular complications

d)

Anesthetic overdose

74.

Which statement about memory impairment during ECT is most accurate?

a)

Memory impairment is rare during ECT.

b)

Memory impairment almost always occurs to some degree during ECT.

c)

Memory impairment occurs only after the final treatment.

d)

Memory impairment occurs only in elderly patients.

75.

A patient experiences little improvement after ECT and continues to have memory problems. Which description aligns with the material?

a)

Persistent memory impairment has not been reported.

b)

Persistent memory impairment can occur in some patients.

c)

Memory issues indicate brain damage from ECT.

d)

Memory problems resolve immediately in all patients.

76.

What counseling point should be provided to all patients receiving ECT regarding memory?

a)

Memory will definitely return to baseline.

b)

There is no chance of memory effects.

c)

They should be informed of possible permanent memory loss.

d)

Permanent memory loss only occurs with unilateral ECT.

77.

Which statement best reflects the evidence regarding brain damage from ECT?

a)

ECT commonly causes structural brain damage.

b)

ECT has mixed evidence for causing brain damage.

c)

There is no evidence of brain damage caused by ECT treatment.

d)

ECT causes brain damage only in high-frequency sessions.

78.

Considering the reported rates, which option correctly pairs the mortality risk per treatment and per patient for ECT?

a)

0.02% per treatment; 0.1% per patient

b)

0.002% per treatment; 0.01% per patient

c)

0.2% per treatment; 1% per patient

d)

0.0002% per treatment; 0.001% per patient

79.

Which risk statement requires clinicians to plan for cardiovascular monitoring during ECT?

a)

Mortality is less than childbirth.

b)

Memory impairment almost always occurs.

c)

Death, though rare, is usually related to cardiovascular complications.

d)

There is no evidence of brain damage.

80.

A clinician designs informed consent language for ECT. Which element must be included based on the material?

a)

Assurance that no memory effects will occur

b)

Disclosure that permanent memory loss is possible

c)

Guarantee of immediate symptom improvement

d)

Warning that ECT causes brain damage

81.

Which interpretation most accurately integrates the section’s findings on serious harm from ECT?

a)

ECT has a high mortality and documented brain damage risk.

b)

ECT’s mortality is very low, deaths are usually cardiovascular, memory effects are common and may be permanent, and there is no evidence of brain damage.

c)

ECT eliminates all risks with modern anesthesia.

d)

ECT’s main risk is respiratory arrest leading to brain damage.

82.

A nurse is assessing a client after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which side effect is common and expected?

a)

Temporary disorientation

b)

Enduring memory loss

c)

Residual seizure disorders

d)

Cardiovascular complications

83.

Which statement best describes the nurse’s overarching approach to delivering care during the pre-ECT assessment?

a)

Use the nursing process to guide assessment and interventions

b)

Follow physician orders without independent assessment

c)

Focus solely on psychological status

d)

Prioritize post-procedure teaching over pre-procedure data collection

84.

Before ECT, which component is explicitly required to be confirmed by the nurse?

a)

Signed informed consent has been granted

b)

Patient has fasted for 12 hours

c)

Family presence in the procedure room

d)

Completion of a full dental examination

85.

Which physical system’s status is specifically highlighted for pre-ECT evaluation?

a)

Cardiovascular and pulmonary

b)

Endocrine only

c)

Dermatologic only

d)

Gastrointestinal only

86.

Which set of studies is listed as part of the pre-ECT laboratory assessment?

a)

Blood and urine studies

b)

Stool and sputum cultures

c)

Genetic testing

d)

Lumbar puncture

87.

Which history element is included to identify risks related to musculoskeletal safety during ECT?

a)

Skeletal history and x-ray assessment

b)

History of dermatologic rashes

c)

Past dental procedures

d)

History of seasonal allergies only

88.

During psychological assessment prior to ECT, which triad must be evaluated when screening for suicide risk?

a)

Ideation, plan, and means

b)

Insight, judgment, and impulse control

c)

Hopelessness, anhedonia, and insomnia

d)

Intent, past attempts, and social support

89.

Which cognitive baseline should the nurse document before initiating ECT?

a)

Baseline memory for short- and long-term events

b)

Spatial navigation ability only

c)

Mathematical problem-solving speed

d)

Baseline reaction time during motor tasks

90.

Which medication-related assessment is emphasized prior to ECT?

a)

Current and past use of medications

b)

Only current prescription list

c)

Vitamins and supplements only

d)

Over-the-counter drugs only

91.

Which aspect of patient education/knowledge is assessed by the nurse before ECT?

a)

Knowledge of patient and family of potential ECT risks

b)

Ability to recite procedure steps verbatim

c)

Understanding of hospital billing policies

d)

Knowledge of post-anesthesia care unit layout

92.

Which set of observations falls under the nurse’s assessment of mental status prior to ECT?

a)

Mood, level of interaction with others, anxiety, thought and communication patterns

b)

Handedness, gait symmetry, and reflexes

c)

Dietary preferences and fluid intake

d)

Vision acuity, color perception, and pupil size

93.

Which vital data category is explicitly included in the pre-ECT assessment checklist?

a)

Vital signs and history of allergies

b)

Audiology screening only

c)

Body mass index trend only

d)

Dental occlusion pattern

94.

According to the material, when are nursing diagnoses for ECT developed based on assessment?

a)

Only before treatment

b)

Before, during, and after treatment

c)

Only during treatment

d)

Only after treatment

95.

Which nursing diagnosis is provided as an example for a patient undergoing ECT?

a)

Risk for infection related to invasive procedure

b)

Anxiety (moderate to severe) related to impending therapy

c)

Ineffective airway clearance related to anesthesia

d)

Imbalanced nutrition related to decreased appetite

96.

What outcome criterion aligns with the example nursing diagnosis for ECT in the material?

a)

Patient sleeps at least 8 hours the night before treatment

b)

Patient verbalizes a decrease in anxiety following explanation of procedure and expression of fears

c)

Patient demonstrates correct use of home oxygen equipment

d)

Patient maintains blood pressure within normal limits without medication

97.

A patient expresses moderate to severe anxiety about an upcoming ECT session. Which nursing action best supports achieving the stated outcome criterion?

a)

Provide minimal information to avoid overwhelming the patient

b)

Delay discussion until after the first treatment

c)

Explain the procedure and encourage the patient to express fears

d)

Refer the patient directly to psychiatry without nursing intervention

98.

At what time are ECT treatments usually scheduled?

a)

Morning

b)

Afternoon

c)

Evening

d)

Late night

99.

For ECT, the patient should be NPO for which time frame before treatment?

a)

2 to 4 hours

b)

6 to 8 hours or from midnight prior to treatment day

c)

12 hours only

d)

No NPO required

100.

Which professionals typically compose the ECT treatment team?

a)

Psychiatrist, anesthesiologist, and two or more nurses

b)

Surgeon, pharmacist, and one nurse

c)

Psychologist, social worker, and dietitian

d)

Primary care physician and respiratory therapist

101.

Which record elements must the nurse verify prior to ECT?

a)

Dietary preferences and insurance details

b)

Informed consent, signed permission form, and most recent laboratory reports

c)

Employment status and family history

d)

Transportation arrangements only

102.

What is the nursing action specified for 1 hour before ECT treatment?

a)

Administer medication

b)

Prepare the patient

c)

Start IV fluids

d)

Begin recovery monitoring

103.

What is the primary nursing task 30 minutes before ECT?

a)

Verify laboratory results again

b)

Administer medication

c)

Initiate anesthesia

d)

Discontinue NPO

104.

A patient expresses fear before ECT. Based on the guidance, what should the nurse do?

a)

Refer the patient to social services

b)

Encourage the patient to sign a new consent

c)

Stay with the patient to help allay fears and anxiety

d)

Delay treatment by 24 hours

105.

Which sequence correctly orders the pre-treatment nursing interventions for ECT?

a)

Administer medication → Prepare patient → Verify consent and labs

b)

Verify consent and labs → Prepare patient (1 hour prior) → Administer medication (30 minutes prior) → Stay with patient to reduce anxiety

c)

Prepare patient → Administer medication → Verify consent and labs → Discharge patient

d)

Obtain labs after treatment → Prepare patient → Administer medication

106.

During ECT, in what position is the patient placed on the table?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Trendelenburg

107.

Which professional administers the short-acting anesthetic intravenously during ECT?

a)

Nurse

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Respiratory therapist

108.

What is the primary purpose of giving an intravenous muscle relaxant prior to the seizure in ECT?

a)

To deepen anesthesia

b)

To reduce electrical dose

c)

To prevent severe muscle contractions and lower fracture/dislocation risk

d)

To improve airway patency

109.

A blood pressure cuff may be placed on the lower leg and inflated above systolic pressure prior to succinylcholine injection. What is the most likely rationale?

a)

To monitor blood pressure continuously

b)

To prevent succinylcholine from reaching the foot and allow seizure observation in that limb

c)

To reduce postoperative edema

d)

To facilitate IV access

110.

Which device is used during ECT to facilitate the patient’s airway patency?

a)

Endotracheal tube

b)

Airway/bite block

c)

Nasal cannula

d)

Face mask

111.

Where are electrodes placed to deliver the electrical stimulation in ECT, according to the material?

a)

Occipital region

b)

Frontal scalp

c)

Temples

d)

Mastoid processes

112.

Which action reflects the nurse’s role in patient support during ECT?

a)

Calibrating the ECT machine

b)

Administering anesthesia

c)

Providing physical and emotional support

d)

Diagnosing psychiatric conditions

113.

Which sequence best represents the procedural flow during ECT treatment as described?

a)

Electrodes placed → airway/bite block inserted → patient positioned → anesthetic given → muscle relaxant given

b)

Patient positioned supine → anesthetic given IV → muscle relaxant given IV → airway/bite block used → electrodes placed on temples

c)

Airway/bite block used → patient positioned → muscle relaxant given → anesthetic given → electrodes placed

d)

Muscle relaxant given → anesthetic given → electrodes placed → patient positioned → airway/bite block used

114.

Which intervention directly reduces the possibility of fractured or dislocated bones during ECT?

a)

Airway/bite block insertion

b)

Electrode placement on the temples

c)

IV administration of a muscle relaxant

d)

Supine positioning

115.

During ECT, the nurse should ensure airway patency. Which item listed supports this goal?

a)

Electrode placement

b)

Inflated blood pressure cuff on lower leg

c)

Airway/bite block

d)

Supine positioning

116.

Immediately after ECT, which action is performed until spontaneous respirations return?

a)

Provide pure oxygen by the anesthesiologist

b)

Encourage oral fluids

c)

Begin ambulation with assistance

d)

Administer a sedative to prevent seizures

117.

Most patients awaken after ECT within which time frame?

a)

1 to 2 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

10 to 15 minutes

d)

1 to 2 hours

118.

Upon awakening shortly after ECT, patients commonly experience which immediate state?

a)

Euphoria and hyperactivity

b)

Confusion and disorientation

c)

Severe chest pain

d)

Complete alertness

119.

During the immediate post-treatment period after ECT, what level of observation is required for all patients?

a)

Minimal observation if vitals are stable

b)

Close observation

c)

No observation unless complications arise

d)

Observation only if the patient remains asleep

120.

A student nurse notes that some patients sleep for 1 to 2 hours after ECT. Which interpretation aligns with best practice?

a)

This is uncommon and indicates an emergency

b)

This can occur and still requires close observation

c)

It means the anesthetic dose was inadequate

d)

The patient should be discharged immediately

121.

What is the basis for determining the effectiveness of nursing interventions in ECT care?

a)

Patient satisfaction surveys

b)

Achievement of projected outcomes

c)

Length of hospital stay

d)

Number of treatments completed

122.

Which activity is identified as an important part of the evaluation process in ECT nursing care?

a)

Delegation

b)

Careful documentation

c)

Pharmacological monitoring only

d)

Family counseling

123.

Continual reassessment, planning, and evaluation in ECT nursing care primarily ensure what?

a)

Rapid discharge regardless of response

b)

Adequate and appropriate nursing care throughout therapy

c)

Reduction in oxygen use

d)

Elimination of maintenance ECT