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Gynecology Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure is primarily responsible for producing progesterone?

a)

Theca interna

b)

Graafian follicle

c)

Corpus luteum

d)

Uterine artery

2.

The pouch of Douglas is located between which two structures?

a)

Bladder and uterus

b)

Uterus and rectum

c)

Vagina and cervix

d)

Ovaries and sigmoid colon

3.

The most common clinical finding of endometrial carcinoma is:

a)

Pelvic pain

b)

Heavy menstrual cycles in adolescents

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding

d)

Dysuria

4.

What structure separates the true pelvis from the false pelvis?

a)

Uterosacral ligament

b)

Linea terminalis

c)

Pelvic diaphragm

d)

Broad ligament

5.

A primordial follicle is composed of:

a)

Granulosa cells in multiple layers

b)

Primary oocyte and Follicle cells

c)

Theca cells

d)

A fluid-filled antrum

6.

Which type of fibroid is most likely to cause abnormal uterine bleeding?

a)

Intramural

b)

Subserosal

c)

Submucosal

d)

Pedunculated

7.

Adenomyosis is best described as:

a)

Ectopic myometrial tissue inside the endometrium

b)

Endometrial tissue located within the myometrium

c)

A degenerating ovarian cyst

d)

A benign cervical growth

8.

Adenomyosis is most commonly mistaken for:

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Polycystic ovaries

c)

Leiomyoma

d)

Ovarian torsion

9.

Leiomyoma is defined as:

a)

A malignant tumor of the uterine lining

b)

A benign smooth muscle tumor of the uterus

c)

An ovarian mass caused by progesterone

d)

A congenital Müllerian abnormality

10.

Growth of leiomyomas is most strongly influenced by:

a)

Progesterone only

b)

Estrogen

c)

Testosterone

d)

Cortisol

11.

During the early proliferative phase, the normal endometrial thickness typically measures:

a)

1–3 mm

b)

4–8 mm

c)

10–14 mm

d)

15–18 mm

12.

Right before ovulation, the endometrial thickness usually measures:

a)

2–4 mm

b)

4–6 mm

c)

6–10 mm

d)

12–16 mm

13.

During the secretory phase, the endometrium typically measures:

a)

1–5 mm

b)

4–8 mm

c)

6–10 mm

d)

7–14 mm

14.

A bicornuate uterus results from:

a)

Failure of Müllerian duct resorption

b)

Incomplete fusion of the Müllerian ducts

c)

Excessive fusion of the Müllerian ducts

d)

Complete agenesis of the paramesonephric ducts

15.

Oogenesis is best described as:

a)

Production of eggs beginning at puberty and ending at menopause

b)

Ovum production that begins before birth and resumes at puberty

c)

A continuous reproductive process throughout life

d)

Egg production triggered only after the first menstrual cycle

16.

Where are the uterine arteries located?

a)

Within the suspensory ligament

b)

Lateral to the uterus within the broad ligament layers

c)

Inside the ovarian hilum

d)

Between the uterus and bladder

17.

The arcuate arteries are characterized as:

a)

Straight vessels entering the endometrium

b)

Spiral vessels supplying the basal layer

c)

Arclike vessels encircling the outer myometrium

d)

Branches running through the ovarian medulla

18.

Radial arteries are best described as:

a)

Branches of the uterine artery that supply the ovaries

b)

Vessels extending from the arcuate arteries toward the endometrium

c)

Arteries running parallel to the ovarian ligament

d)

Vessels located only in the cervix

19.

The ovarian arteries originate from the:

a)

Common iliac artery

b)

Internal iliac artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Inferior epigastric artery

20.

Which statement about ovarian venous drainage is correct?

a)

Both ovarian veins drain directly into the IVC

b)

Right into IVC; left into left renal vein

c)

Left into IVC; right into left renal vein

d)

Both drain into the portal system

21.

The uterine artery arises from the:

a)

Aorta

b)

Internal iliac artery

c)

External iliac artery

d)

Ovarian artery

22.

A backup blood supply to the uterine artery can be provided by the:

a)

Mesenteric artery

b)

Vaginal and pudendal arteries

c)

Splenic artery

d)

Renal artery

23.

Which potential space is located between the bladder and the uterus?

a)

Space of Retzius

b)

Posterior cul-de-sac

c)

Anterior cul-de-sac (vesicouterine)

d)

Peritoneal recess of Morrison

24.

The posterior cul-de-sac (pouch of Douglas) lies between which structures?

a)

Uterus and rectum

b)

Bladder and cervix

c)

Pubic bone and bladder

d)

Ovaries and sigmoid colon

25.

The Space of Retzius is found between the:

a)

Uterus and rectum

b)

Ovaries and pelvic sidewall

c)

Bladder and pubic symphysis

d)

Cervix and vagina

26.

GnRH is secreted by the:

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Ovaries

d)

Adrenal cortex

27.

FSH and LH are released from the:

a)

Adrenal medulla

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Corpus luteum

28.

Estrogen and progesterone are primarily produced by the:

a)

Ovaries

b)

Pituitary

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Fallopian tubes

29.

A fibroid in a postmenopausal patient becomes suspicious for malignancy when:

a)

It becomes calcified

b)

It causes mild pain

c)

It fails to shrink after menopause

d)

It shifts position in the pelvis

30.

Which of the following is a common symptom of endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Heavy cycles in adolescents

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding

c)

Intermittent urinary frequency

d)

Abdominal bloating only

31.

A possible symptom of endometrial carcinoma that is not always present is:

a)

Uterine distention

b)

Breast tenderness

c)

Hot flashes

d)

Constipation

32.

Which clinical finding is most strongly associated with endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Dyspareunia

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding

c)

Elevated WBC count

d)

Severe dysuria

33.

Which condition is commonly associated with endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Ovarian carcinoma

b)

Polycystic liver disease

c)

Kidney stones

d)

Tubal occlusion

34.

Endometrial carcinoma may be linked to which therapy?

a)

Progesterone-only contraceptives

b)

Replacement estrogen therapy

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Thyroid medication

35.

A typical ultrasound appearance of endometrial carcinoma includes:

a)

Thin, smooth endometrium

b)

Homogeneous endometrial texture

c)

Heterogeneous endometrium with irregular boundaries

d)

Distorted cervix only

36.

Cystic changes within the endometrium on ultrasound may indicate:

a)

Normal ovulation

b)

Endometrial carcinoma

c)

Hydrosalpinx

d)

Simple cervical polyp

37.

Hydrometra or hematometra in a postmenopausal patient may be associated with:

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Normal involution

c)

Ovarian torsion

d)

Nabothian cysts

38.

A postmenopausal endometrial measurement greater than 4–5 mm should be considered:

a)

Normal variation

b)

Cancer until proven otherwise

c)

A sign of recent ovulation

d)

A likely ovarian cyst

39.

The correct method to measure the uterine length in ultrasound is:

a)

In transverse from fundus to cervix

b)

In sagittal from fundus to cervix

c)

In coronal from sidewall to sidewall

d)

Using the shortest sagittal distance

40.

Which of the following is a contraindication for a transvaginal ultrasound?

a)

Suspected ovarian cyst

b)

Premenarchal patient

c)

History of cesarean section

d)

Mild bloating

41.

A patient with an intact hymen and no sexual activity history should:

a)

Proceed with transvaginal ultrasound as usual

b)

Only undergo TVUS if sedation is used

c)

Not undergo transvaginal ultrasound

d)

Be evaluated only with CT

42.

A larger field of view is best obtained with which imaging approach?

a)

Transvaginal

b)

Transabdominal

c)

Doppler-only scan

d)

3D reconstruction only

43.

Transvaginal ultrasound may be limited in a patient with:

a)

A retroverted uterus

b)

Large fibroids or significantly enlarged uterus

c)

Normal-sized uterus

d)

A history of ovulation induction

44.

What is the most common gynecologic malignancy in the United States?

a)

Cervical carcinoma

b)

Ovarian carcinoma

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Vulvar carcinoma

45.

What is the typical uterine length in a premenarchal patient?

a)

1–3 cm

b)

4–6 cm

c)

6–8 cm

d)

3.5–5.5 cm

46.

A menarchal, nulliparous uterus typically measures:

a)

2–4 cm long

b)

3–5 cm long

c)

6–8 cm long

d)

8–10 cm long

47.

In multiparous women, the uterus usually:

a)

Decreases by 1–2 cm

b)

Increases by 1–2 cm

c)

Remains exactly the same

d)

Shrinks to premenarchal size

48.

A postmenopausal uterus generally measures:

a)

1–3 cm long

b)

3.5–5.5 cm long

c)

6–8 cm long

d)

7–10 cm long

49.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of fibroids?

a)

Pelvic pain

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Infertility

d)

Hot flashes

50.

Fibroids may cause bladder or rectal symptoms primarily because:

a)

They trigger hormonal fluctuations

b)

They can create mass effect/pressure

c)

They cause nerve damage

d)

They increase systemic blood flow

51.

Which fibroid symptom is possible but not guaranteed?

a)

Severe fever

b)

Asymptomatic

c)

Cyclic breast pain

d)

Hypertension

52.

Patient prep for a transabdominal pelvic ultrasound includes:

a)

Fasting for 4 hours

b)

Drinking 32 ounces of water and holding it

c)

Emptying the bladder completely

d)

Taking a diuretic

53.

A postmenopausal patient prepping for a TA ultrasound should drink:

a)

8 oz

b)

12 oz

c)

24 oz

d)

40 oz

54.

Before a transvaginal ultrasound, the patient must:

a)

Drink as much water as possible

b)

Confirm sexual activity

c)

Avoid lying in lithotomy position

d)

Stay fully clothed

55.

For a transvaginal exam, the bladder should be:

a)

Overly full

b)

Moderately full

c)

Completely empty

d)

Filled halfway

56.

The proper patient positioning for a TV ultrasound is:

a)

Prone

b)

Left lateral decubitus

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Trendelenburg

57.

Which of the following bones is part of the female pelvis?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

Innominate bone

d)

Radius

58.

The female pelvis consists of the innominate bones plus the:

a)

Sternum and ribs

b)

Sacrum and coccyx

c)

Carpals and metacarpals

d)

Femurs

59.

A primary treatment for molar pregnancy is:

a)

Endometrial ablation

b)

Dilation & curettage (D&C)

c)

Hysteroscopy only

d)

Oral progesterone therapy

60.

After evacuation of a molar pregnancy, patients are advised to:

a)

Conceive immediately

b)

Avoid contraception for 6 months

c)

Use oral contraceptives for 1 year

d)

Stop all hormone use permanently

61.

Monitoring after a molar pregnancy typically includes:

a)

Weekly LH tests

b)

Serial beta-hCG measurements

c)

Estrogen-level monitoring

d)

Thyroid function testing

62.

A Graafian follicle is best described as:

a)

A follicle present only in menopause

b)

A ruptured follicle

c)

The mature pre-ovulatory follicle

d)

The smallest follicle in the ovary

63.

At which point in the menstrual cycle is the endometrium thickest?

a)

Menstrual phase

b)

Early proliferative

c)

Late proliferative

d)

Secretory phase

64.

Which group has the highest prevalence of fibroids?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Caucasian women

c)

Dark-skinned women

d)

Postmenopausal women

65.

In a molar pregnancy, hCG levels typically:

a)

Stay low and stable

b)

Rise only slightly

c)

Rise rapidly for about 100 days beyond expected

d)

Drop immediately after conception

66.

Exposure to DES in utero is associated with:

a)

T-shaped uterus and cervical carcinoma

b)

Early menopause

c)

Ovarian hyperstimulation

d)

Polycystic ovarian morphology

67.

DES exposure in pregnancy most strongly affected:

a)

Male fertility

b)

The thyroid gland

c)

Reproductive tract development in female fetuses

d)

Placental size

68.

The internal os connects the:

a)

Cervical canal to the vagina

b)

Uterine cavity to the cervical canal

c)

Fallopian tube to the uterus

d)

Cervix to the vulva

69.

The external os connects the:

a)

Cervical canal to the vagina

b)

Uterine cavity to the cervix

c)

Bladder to the urethra

d)

Uterus to the fallopian tube

70.

Which ligament anchors the uterine corpus and cervix to the lateral pelvic wall?

a)

Round ligament

b)

Broad ligament

c)

Cardinal ligament

d)

Suspensory ligament

71.

Which uterine ligament anchors the cervix to the sacrum?

a)

Uterosacral ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Ovarian ligament

d)

Iliolumbar ligament

72.

The round ligaments primarily serve to:

a)

Support the ovaries laterally

b)

Anchor the uterine fundus anteriorly

c)

Hold the uterus posteriorly

d)

Support the bladder roof

73.

The broad ligament is best described as:

a)

A thick fibrous band that suspends the ovaries

b)

A peritoneal fold dividing the pelvis into anterior and posterior compartments

c)

A ligament that anchors the uterus to the sacrum

d)

A structure that carries the ureter to the bladder

74.

Anteversion of the uterus refers to:

a)

Bending of the fundus toward the rectum

b)

Forward tipping of the entire uterus toward the anterior abdominal wall

c)

Displacement of the uterus to the left

d)

Dropping of the uterus into the vaginal canal

75.

Anteflexion describes:

a)

Tilting backward toward the sacrum

b)

Bending of the fundus toward the abdominal wall

c)

Rightward displacement

d)

A neutral uterine position

76.

A uterus that is bent toward the right is called:

a)

Dextroposition

b)

Dextroflexion

c)

Levoposition

d)

Retroflexion

77.

A uterus that is displaced to the right (not bent) is termed:

a)

Dextroflexion

b)

Dextroposition

c)

Levoflexion

d)

Anteflexion

78.

A uterus that bends toward the left is described as:

a)

Levoposition

b)

Levoflexion

c)

Retroversion

d)

Left rotation

79.

A uterus displaced to the left is called:

a)

Levoflexion

b)

Levoposition

c)

Retrocession

d)

Mesoposition

80.

Retroversion refers to:

a)

Bending of the fundus posteriorly

b)

Backward tipping of the entire uterus toward the sacrum

c)

Dropping of the uterus into the vagina

d)

Displacement to the right

81.

Retroflexion means:

a)

Forward bending of the fundus

b)

Entire uterus tipped backward

c)

Fundus bending toward the rectum

d)

Uterus rotated laterally

82.

Retrocession indicates:

a)

Backward displacement of the entire uterus

b)

Prolapse of the cervix

c)

Lateral flexion

d)

Fixed uterine immobility

83.

Uterine prolapse refers to:

a)

Bending of the uterus toward one side

b)

Uterus descending into the vaginal canal

c)

Posterior displacement of the fundus

d)

Anterior rotation of the cervix

84.

Before performing a transvaginal scan, the MOST important question is:

a)

When was their last meal?

b)

Are they sexually active?

c)

Do they have a history of fibroids?

d)

Are they allergic to latex?

85.

Gravidity refers to:

a)

Number of live births

b)

Number of pregnancies reaching viability

c)

Number of pregnancies regardless of outcome

d)

Number of miscarriages

86.

When a uterine mass is identified on ultrasound, the sonographer must document:

a)

Patient's menstrual cycle phase only

b)

Blood flow only

c)

Location, size, contour, and internal characteristics

d)

Age and parity only

87.

Hydatidiform mole is classified as:

a)

Malignant metastatic GTD

b)

Malignant but non-metastatic

c)

Benign trophoblastic disease

d)

Always invasive

88.

An invasive mole (chorioadenoma destruens) is:

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant and metastatic

c)

Malignant but typically non-metastatic

d)

A type of ovarian tumor

89.

Choriocarcinoma is defined as:

a)

Benign trophoblastic hyperplasia

b)

Malignant metastatic trophoblastic disease

c)

A harmless postpartum condition

d)

A cystic ovarian tumor

90.

Theca lutein cysts are caused by:

a)

Low FSH

b)

Elevated hCG levels

c)

Low progesterone

d)

Estrogen excess

91.

Theca lutein cysts typically appear as:

a)

Single thick-walled unilateral cysts

b)

Bilateral, multiple cysts prone to hemorrhage

c)

Solid ovarian tumors

d)

Calcified ovarian foci

92.

Theca lutein cysts are most commonly associated with:

a)

Tubal ectopic pregnancy

b)

PCOS

c)

Gestational trophoblastic disease such as molar pregnancy

d)

Endometriosis

93.

Theca lutein cysts may also appear after which procedure?

a)

Hysterectomy

b)

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

c)

Tubal ligation

d)

Myomectomy

94.

Which condition is much more common but can be mistaken for cervical carcinoma?

a)

Endometrial polyp

b)

Cervical fibroid

c)

Ovarian cyst

d)

Endometrioma

95.

Another common benign lesion of the cervix that could mimic carcinoma is:

a)

Nabothian cyst

b)

Cervical ectropion

c)

Leiomyoma

d)

Adenomyosis

96.

Which ultrasound pattern is most characteristic of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

a)

Uniform hypoechoic uterus

b)

Snowflake or lacey pattern

c)

Thin endometrium

d)

Homogeneous ovarian cysts

97.

The most helpful imaging technique to rule out a bicornuate uterus is:

a)

Transabdominal ultrasound

b)

3D transvaginal ultrasound

c)

MRI of the kidneys

d)

Hysterosalpingogram only

98.

Hematometra refers to:

a)

Blood accumulation in the vagina

b)

Blood accumulation in the uterus

c)

Blood in the fallopian tube

d)

Menorrhagia with clots

99.

Hematocolpos is defined as:

a)

Blood retention in the uterus

b)

Blood retention in the vagina

c)

Blood retention in the ovaries

d)

Blood in the broad ligament

100.

A complete mole occurs when:

a)

Fertilization of a defective ovum by a single sperm that duplicates

b)

Fertilization of a normal ovum by one sperm

c)

Fertilization of a normal ovum by two sperm

d)

Fertilization fails to occur

101.

An incomplete mole results from:

a)

Fertilization of defective ovum by one sperm

b)

Fertilization of normal ovum by two sperm

c)

Fertilization by a single normal sperm

d)

A spontaneous abortion

102.

An invasive mole (chorioadenoma destruens) is characterized by:

a)

Benign proliferation of trophoblasts

b)

Malignant, non-metastatic trophoblastic disease

c)

Metastatic choriocarcinoma

d)

Benign ovarian cyst

103.

Invasive moles represent:

a)

Primary ovarian tumors

b)

Malignant transformation of a hydatidiform mole

c)

Normal placental tissue

d)

Simple uterine polyps

104.

Which hormone is elevated during pregnancy and in molar pregnancies?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Progesterone

d)

hCG

105.

A major risk factor for cervical carcinoma is:

a)

Late menarche

b)

Infection with HPV

c)

High calcium diet

d)

Nulliparity only

106.

Which lifestyle factor increases the risk of cervical carcinoma?

a)

Smoking

b)

High physical activity

c)

Vitamin D supplementation

d)

Low caffeine intake

107.

Early sexual activity contributes to cervical carcinoma risk because:

a)

It causes hormonal imbalance

b)

It increases exposure to HPV

c)

It decreases ovulation

d)

It reduces estrogen levels

108.

Exposure to DES in utero is a risk factor for:

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Cervical carcinoma

c)

Uterine fibroids

d)

PCOS

109.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for initiating thickening of the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

LH

d)

FSH

110.

Which hormone prepares the endometrium for implantation?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

GnRH

d)

HCG

111.

The menstrual cycle begins with:

a)

Ovulation

b)

Menstrual bleeding

c)

LH surge

d)

Corpus luteum formation

112.

The hypothalamus triggers the release of which hormone to start the follicular phase?

a)

Progesterone

b)

LH

c)

GnRH

d)

Estrogen

113.

What triggers the LH surge that causes ovulation?

a)

Low FSH

b)

High estrogen

c)

Low progesterone

d)

High GnRH

114.

If pregnancy does not occur, what happens to progesterone and the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone rises, endometrium thickens further

b)

Progesterone drops, endometrium sheds

c)

Progesterone remains high, endometrium remains thick

d)

Progesterone rises, endometrium sheds

115.

What is this?

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Adenomyosis

c)

Endometrial Carcinoma

d)

Cervical Carcinoma

116.

What pathology is this?

a)

Cervical Carcinoma

b)

Leiomyosis

c)

Endometrial Carcinoma

d)

Adenomyosis

117.

What pathology is this?

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Cervical Carcinoma

c)

Endometritis

d)

Adenomyosis

118.

What pathology is seen here?

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

hydatiform mole

c)

molar pregnancy

d)

cervical carcinoma

119.

What pathology is seen here?

a)

Molar pregnancy

b)

hydatiform mole

c)

incomplete mole

d)

Cervical carcinoma

120.

What pathology is seen here?

a)

Hydatiform mole

b)

Molar pregnancy

c)

Incomplete mole

d)

Complete mole

121.

What pathology is seen here?

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Cervical carcinoma

c)

Nabothian Cyst

d)

Endometrial Carcinoma

122.

What pathology is seen here? And what sign is it showing?

a)

Incomplete mole w/lace pattern

b)

Hydatiform mole w/lace pattern

c)

Cervical carcinoma w/snowstorm sign

d)

Endometrial Carcinoma w/3 beads sign

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