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Chapter 12

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The liver is located primarily in the    of the abdomen.

a)

LLQ

b)

RLQ

c)

RUQ

d)

LUQ

2.

The liver performs more than 100 different functions.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The liver is divided into          major and minor lobes.

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Two

d)

Six

4.

The liver secretes approximately          mL of bile per day.

a)

100 to 250

b)

500 to 700

c)

800 to 1000

d)

12000 to 1500

5.

The main function of bile is to:

a)

break down cholesterol.

b)

emulsify fats.

c)

begin the digestion of proteins.

d)

begin the digestion of complex sugars.

6.

Which aspect of the gallbladder is located most posterior within the abdomen?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body

c)

Neck

d)

Apex

7.

The average adult gallbladder is__cm long and_____cm wide.

a)

7 to 10; 3

b)

4 to 6; 2

c)

12 to 15; 5 to 6

d)

2 to 3; 1

8.

What is the primary purpose of the membranous folds located within the cystic duct?

a)

Produces cholecystokinin

b)

Prevents gallstones from entering the gallbladder

c)

Provides blood supply to the gallbladder

d)

Prevents distention or collapse of the cystic duct

9.

Where is bile formed?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Duodenal mucosa

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

10.

Which of the following functions are performed by the gallbladder?

a)

Storage of bile

b)

Concentration of bile

c)

Contraction and release of bile

d)

All of the above

11.

What is a primary function of cholecystokinin?

a)

Serves as an enzyme to break down certain food nutrients

b)

Stimulates the production of bile

c)

Stimulates the gallbladder to contract

d)

Inhibits the formation of gallstones

12.

Where is cholecystokinin produced?

a)

Duodenal mucosa

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Pancreas

13.

What is an older term for the pancreatic duct?

a)

Duct of Wirsung

b)

Hepatopancreatic duct

c)

Duct of Langerhans

d)

Ampulla of Vater

14.

In 80% of all individuals, the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct unite before entering the duodenum.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What is an older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter?

a)

Duodenal papilla

b)

Sphincter of Vater

c)

Duodenal sphincter

d)

Sphincter of Oddi

16.

Which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1?

a)

Neck

b)

Fundus

c)

Body

d)

Apex

17.

Which biliary structure is labeled 4?

a)

Cystic duct

b)

Common bile duct

c)

Common hepatic duct

d)

Right hepatic duct

18.

Which structure is labeled 6?

a)

Cystic duct

b)

Pancreatic duct

c)

Right hepatic duct

d)

Left hepatic duct

19.

Which structure is labeled 9?

a)

Pancreatic duct

b)

Common bile duct

c)

Cystic duct

d)

Common hepatic duct

20.

The region of the biliary system labeled 10 is:

a)

Common bile duct

b)

Cystic duct

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Hepatic duct

21.

Which structure is labeled as number 11?

a)

Duct of Vater

b)

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

c)

Duct of Wirsung

d)

Hepatopancreatic sphincter

22.

"Chole-" is a prefix for terms pertaining to the:

a)

gallbladder.

b)

ducts.

c)

bile.

d)

liver.

23.

Radiographic examination of the biliary ducts only is termed:

a)

cholecystography.

b)

cholangiography.

c)

cholelithiasis.

d)

cholecystocholangiography.

24.

Which of the following structures is not considered to be an accessory organ of digestion?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Kidneys

25.

Saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of:

a)

starch.

b)

minerals.

c)

proteins.

d)

lipids.

26.

The act of swallowing is termed:

a)

mastication.

b)

digestion.

c)

deglutition.

d)

aphasia.

27.

Which of the following structures is not one of the salivary glands?

a)

Parotid

b)

Sublingual

c)

Submandibular

d)

All of the above are salivary glands.

28.

The esophagus is located___to the larynx.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

inferior

d)

proximal

29.

The aortic arch and the          create a normal indentation seen along the lateral border of the esophagus.

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Left Primary Bronchus

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Superior Vena Cava

30.

Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus?

a)

Peristalsis and gravity

b)

Peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation

c)

Gravity and deglutition

d)

Deglutition and mastication

31.

The opening between the stomach and esophagus is termed the:

a)

cardiac antrum.

b)

cardiac notch.

c)

esophagogastric junction.

d)

esophagocardiac junction.

32.

Part ii refers to the:

a)

soft palate.

b)

tonsils.

c)

Hard Palate

d)

Epiglotis

33.

Part iv refers to the:

a)

laryngopharynx.

b)

nasopharynx.

c)

oropharynx.

d)

posterior oral cavity.

34.

Part ix refers to the:

a)

soft palate.

b)

tonsils.

c)

uvula.

d)

epiglottis.

35.

Refer to the diagram of the head and neck region. Which part is labeled as 'i'?

a)

nasopharynx.

b)

laryngopharynx.

c)

oropharynx.

d)

nasal cavity.

36.

Refer to the diagram of the head and neck region. Part vii refers to the:

a)

esophagus.

b)

trachea.

c)

spinal cord.

d)

larynx.

37.

What is labeled as part III?

a)

nasal sinus.

b)

maxillary sinus.

c)

nasal cavity.

d)

upper oral cavity.

38.

Refer to the diagram. Part V refers to the:

a)

nasopharynx.

b)

larynx.

c)

oropharynx.

d)

laryngopharynx.

39.

The dilated portion of the distal esophagus is termed the:

a)

cardiac antrum.

b)

cardiac notch.

c)

fundus.

d)

incisura cardiaca.

40.

Which of the following is not a main subdivision of the stomach?

a)

Fundus

b)

Cardium

c)

Pylorus

d)

Body

41.

Which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach?

a)

Lesser curvature

b)

Incisura angularis

c)

Gastric border

d)

Greater curvature

42.

What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach?

a)

Gastric canal

b)

Valvulae conniventes

c)

Haustra

d)

Rugae

43.

Toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position?

a)

Body and pylorus

b)

Fundus

c)

Cardia

d)

Greater curvature

44.

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body

c)

Pylorus

d)

Cardiac

45.

Which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the C-loop of the duodenum?

a)

Tail

b)

Body

c)

Head

d)

Neck

46.

Which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap?

a)

First (superior)

b)

Third (horizontal)

c)

Second (descending)

d)

Fourth (ascending)

47.

What structure indicates the junction between the duodenum and jejunum?

a)

Duodenal cap

b)

Suspensory muscle of the duodenum

c)

Valvulae conniventes

d)

C-loop of the duodenum

48.

Which part of the stomach is referred to as the body and pylorus?

a)

Body and pylorus

b)

Fundus

c)

Cardiac

d)

Fundus and body

49.

Which part of the stomach is labeled 6?

a)

Body

b)

Pyloric portion

c)

Pyloric antrum

d)

Pyloric canal

50.

Which part of the stomach is labeled 2?

a)

Esophagogastric junction

b)

Incisura angularis

c)

Incisura cardiaca

d)

Cardiac antrum

51.

The part of the stomach labeled 9 is:

a)

Cardia

b)

Fundus

c)

Body

d)

Pylorus

52.

Which part of the stomach is labeled 3?

a)

Cardiac notch

b)

Angular notch

c)

Pyloric orifice

d)

Incisura cardiaca

53.

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

a)

bile.

b)

lipids.

c)

chyme.

d)

biologic catalysts.

54.

Which of the following substances are not digested chemically?

a)

a. Minerals

b)

b. Carbohydrates

c)

c. Proteins

d)

d. Lipids

55.

Enzymes that aid in chemical digestion are classified as:

a)

lipids.

b)

biologic catalysts.

c)

digestive acids.

56.

Lipids (fats) are broken down to fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

a)

stomach and small bowel.

b)

stomach only.

c)

small bowel only.

d)

None of the above (are not digested).

57.

Which aspect of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Pancreas

58.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n)____patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

sthenic

d)

hypersthenic

59.

A stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-2 would be found in a(n)____patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

sthenic

d)

hypersthenic

60.

What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media?

a)

Radiopaque

b)

Radiolucent

c)

Isodense

d)

Negative contrast media

61.

What type of solution is formed when barium is mixed with water?

a)

Water-soluble solution

b)

Isotonic solution

c)

Hypotonic solution

d)

Colloidal suspension

62.

Sodium bicarbonate is often used as a negative contrast medium during an upper GI series.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Swallowed air can be used as a negative contrast medium during an upper GI series.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?

a)

It should be discarded if not used within an hour after mixing.

b)

The patient may become ill if it is not prepared with sterile water.

c)

It rarely produces an allergic reaction.

d)

It is soluble in water.

65.

Which of the following clinical indications would mandate the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast agent?

a)

Patient with esophageal reflux

b)

Patient with a bezoar

c)

Patient with a possible perforated bowel

d)

Patient with a possible peptic ulcer

66.

What type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach?

a)

Double-contrast barium/negative contrast agent

b)

Single-contrast barium sulfate

c)

Water soluble

d)

Radiolucent

67.

Which of the following patient care concerns would prevent the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast medium?

a)

The patient has a possible ulcer.

b)

The patient is sensitive to iodine.

c)

The patient has esophageal reflux.

d)

The patient has dysphasia.

68.

Digital fluoroscopy does not require the use of an image intensifier.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

No cassettes are required for imaging with a digital fluoroscopy unit.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Digital fluoroscopy has distinct advantages but produces a slightly higher patient dose as compared with conventional fluoroscopy.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

With digital fluoroscopy edge enhancement, brightness and contrast can be manipulated both during the procedure and also at a later time.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?

a)

Time

b)

Distance

c)

Intensity

d)

Shielding

73.

Which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?

a)

Time

b)

Distance

c)

Intensity

d)

Shielding

74.

Which of the following devices reduces scatter exposure during fluoroscopy from the fluoroscopy tube?

a)

Compression paddle

b)

Bucky tray

c)

Bucky slot cover

d)

Lead gloves

75.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least mm lead equivalency.

a)

0.25

b)

0.5

c)

0.75

d)

1

76.

Which of the following conditions involves dilated veins in the distal aspect of the esophagus, which in some cases can lead to internal bleeding?

a)

Esophageal Varices

b)

Esophageal Reflux

c)

Esophageal Hypertension

d)

Esophageal thrombosis

77.

A large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed:

a)

Barrett esophagus.

b)

esophageal varices.

c)

esophageal reflux.

d)

Zenker diverticulum.

78.

Achalasia is generally defined as:

a)

difficulty in swallowing.

b)

a common malignancy of the esophagus.

c)

motor disorder of the esophagus.

d)

large outpouching of the esophagus.

79.

Which of the following definitions would describe a bezoar?

a)

Inflammation of the gastric lining

b)

Outpouching of the stomach wall

c)

Mass of undigested material

d)

Stomach neoplasm

80.

Duodenal ulcers are rarely malignant.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Only 5% of all ulcers lead to bowel perforation.

a)

True

b)

Flase

82.

Research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by:

a)

Smoking

b)

Bacteria

c)

Alcohol

d)

Antibiotics

83.

Gastritis is defined as inflammation of the:

a)

Pancreas

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small Intestine

d)

Stomach

84.

Which of the following conditions is an example of GERD?

a)

Esophageal varices

b)

Gastric carcinoma

c)

Esophageal reflux

d)

Bezoar

85.

What is the most common radiographic procedure performed to diagnose GERD?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Esophagogram

c)

Upper GI series

d)

CT

86.

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is the most common form of intestinal obstruction found in infants.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Which of the imaging modalities or procedures is most effective and preferred in diagnosing HPS?

a)

Nuclear medicine

b)

CT

c)

Upper GI series

d)

Ultrasound

88.

 

What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, especially for geriatric patients?

a)

Bowel obstruction

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Dehydration

d)

Shock

89.

When using computed radiography (CR), inadequate kV or mAs will produce a          image.

a)

Dark

b)

Light

c)

Blurry

d)

Mottled

90.

Which of the following technical factors will best enhance a digital image taken during an upper GI series?

a)

Collimation

b)

Low kV techniques

c)

Long SID

d)

Use of compensation (wedge) filter

91.

Patient preparation for an esophagram includes NPO          before the procedure.

a)

4 to 6 hours

b)

30 minutes to 1 hour

c)

4 to 6 hours and no gum chewing or smoking

d)

None of the above; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow.

92.

Most esophagograms begin with the patient:

a)

recumbent-supine.

b)

erect.

c)

recumbent-prone.

d)

in a left lateral decubitus position.

93.

Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram?

a)

To demonstrate possible esophageal varices

b)

To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux

c)

To demonstrate possible esophagitis

d)

To demonstrate a possible bezoar

94.

Which of the following procedures will not demonstrate possible esophageal reflux?

a)

Toe-touch maneuver

b)

Water test

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg method

d)

Compression technique

95.

Which of the following positions is not normally considered to be part of the esophagogram basic routine?

a)

Posteroanterior (PA)

b)

Left lateral

c)

Right anterior oblique (RAO)

d)

Anteroposterior (AP)

96.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

nothing; no patient preparation is required.

b)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure.

c)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure.

d)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure.

97.

Which of the following kV ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate (single contrast study)?

a)

80 to 90 kV

b)

90 to 100 kV

c)

100 to 125 kV

d)

125 to 140 kV

98.

1.       Which of the following imaging modalities is an alternative to an esophagogram for detecting esophageal varices?

a)

a.      Sonography

b)

CT

c)

a.      Nuclear medicine

d)

a.      MRI

99.

Which of the following imaging modalities is ideal for demonstrating signs of Barrett esophagus?

a)

Nuclear medicine

b)

MRI

c)

Sonography

d)

CT

100.

How much barium is typically given to a 3- to 10-year-old child during an upper GI series?

a)

4 to 6 ounces

b)

14 to 16 ounces

c)

6 to 12 ounces

d)

1 cup

101.

Gastric emptying studies are performed using:

a)

intraesophageal sonography.

b)

radionuclides.

c)

MRI.

d)

CT.

102.

CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of:

a)

the sternal angle.

b)

T3 or T4

c)

T5 or T6

d)

T7

103.

How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus?

a)

10 to 15

b)

20 to 30

c)

35 to 40

d)

45 to 60

104.

The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the left anterior oblique (LAO) because it:

a)

is a more comfortable position for the patient.

b)

increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart.

c)

reduces thyroid exposure to the patient.

d)

is easier for the patient to hold the cup of barium in his or her left hand.

105.

What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient during an esophagogram using a thin barium mixture?

a)

Suspended respiration while continuing to swallow

b)

Suspended inspiration after the last swallow

c)

Shallow breathing and continued swallowing during exposure

d)

Exposure immediately after last bolus is swallowed (patient will not be breathing immediately after swallow)

106.

Other than the esophagogram, what other imaging modality is performed to diagnose Barrett’s esophagus?

a)

Computed tomography

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

Magnetic resonance

d)

Sonography

107.

Which of the following upper GI projections and/or positions will best demonstrate the pylorus and duodenal bulb in profile during a double-contrast study?

a)

AP

b)

LAO

c)

PA

d)

LPO

108.

At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on a sthenic-body type of patient?

a)

Lower costal margin

b)

L2

c)

L3-4

d)

Iliac crest

109.

A radiograph taken during an upper GI series demonstrates poor visibility of the gastric mucosa. The following factors were used: 80 kV, 30 mAs, 1/40-second exposure time, and high-speed image receptors. Barium sulfate was used during the procedure. Which of the following factors needs to be modified during the repeat exposure?

a)

Use of detail-speed screens (adjust mAs accordingly)

b)

Shortened exposure time (increase mAs accordingly)

c)

Use of a water-soluble contrast medium

d)

Increased kV (decrease mAs as needed)

110.

A PA radiograph taken on a hypersthenic patient during an upper GI series reveals that the pylorus and duodenal bulb are superimposed. Which of the following modifications will best eliminate the superimposition between these structures?

a)

Roll the patient into a slight RAO position.

b)

Angle the CR 35 to 45 cephalad.

c)

Place a rolled towel or a filled compression paddle under the patient’s abdomen before exposure.

d)

Increase the kV.

111.

A patient comes to radiology for an upper GI series. Her clinical history indicates that there may be a tumor posterior to the stomach. Which one of the following projections and/or positions will best demonstrate this condition?

a)

RAO

b)

PA

c)

Right Lateral

d)

LPO

112.

A pediatric patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a small, plastic object stuck in her esophagus. PA and lateral chest radiographs fail to demonstrate the foreign body. Which of the following procedures would be most effective in demonstrating the location of the object?

a)

Upper GI series

b)

Esophagogram with the water test

c)

Esophagogram using very thick barium

d)

Esophagogram using shredded cotton soaked in barium

113.

A patient comes to radiology with a history of a gastric ulcer. Which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic to demonstrate this lesion?

a)

Double-contrast upper GI series

b)

Single-contrast barium sulfate upper GI series

c)

Oral, water-soluble upper GI series

d)

Carbon dioxide upper GI series

114.

A patient comes to radiology for an esophagogram. The radiologist is concerned about the upper portion of the esophagus, near the level of T1, which did not visualize well on the previous routine projection-position esophagogram. Which of the following special projections and/or positions would be most helpful in demonstrating this region?

a)

Soft tissue lateral

b)

LAO

c)

Swimmer’s lateral position

d)

AP with 25 to 30 cephalad CR angle

115.

One radiograph of an upper GI series needs repeating. The technologist is unsure which projection and/or position is seen on this radiograph. The fundus is filled with barium, and the pylorus and duodenal bulb are profiled and air filled. The patient was recumbent for all projections. Which projection and/or position needs to be repeated?

a)

PA

b)

LPO

c)

RAO

d)

Right Lateral

116.

A patient comes to radiology for an upper GI series. The patient has a clinical history of hiatal hernia. Which of the following positions may be helpful in demonstrating this condition?

a)

AP Trendelenburg position

b)

Left lateral decubitus, AP projection

c)

Dorsal decubitus, lateral projection

d)

LAO with compression technique

117.

A PA projection taken during an upper GI series performed on an infant reveals that the body and pylorus of the stomach are superimposed. What modification needs to be made during the repeat exposure to separate these two regions?

a)

Perform the AP projection instead.

b)

Angle the CR 20 to 25 cephalad.

c)

Angle the CR 30 to 45 cephalad.

d)

Use the AP Trendelenburg position.

118.

During an upper GI series, the “halo” sign appears in the duodenum. Which of the following conditions will produce this radiographic sign?

a)

Ulcer

b)

Bezaor

c)

Diverticulum

d)

Tumor

119.

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of HPS. Which of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate this condition?

a)

CT

b)

Nuclear Medicine

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Upper GI Series