wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

YL 2 PRACTICE EXAM

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 70/F with chronic kidney disease presents with acute worsening of renal function and denies any new medications or new systemic illness. Which of the following tests will least likely provide additional diagnostic information?

a)

Serum cystatin C

b)

Urine microscopy for casts

c)

Measurement of blood pressure and volume status

d)

MRI of the abdomen and pelvis

2.

50/M with multiple physical injuries from a vehicular crash status post fasciotomy for lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with oliguria. Laboratories are as follows: Crea 3.9 mg/dL; K 5.9 mmol/L; Phos 7.5 mg/dL (2.5–4.8 mg/dL); Uric acid 11.51 mg/dL (2.5–7.2 mg/dL); iCa 0.8 mg/dL (1.16–1.31 mg/dL); ABG: pH 7.3 / pCO2 32 mmol/L / pO2 90 / HCO3 10 / SpO2 93%; Urinalysis: CHON 1+, Urobilinogen (-), Bilirubin (-), Blood (+++), RBC 1-2/HPF (0-3/HPF), WBC 1-2/HPF (0-3/HPF). What will be the best intravenous fluid?

a)

D5NSS

b)

Plain LR

c)

Plain NSS

d)

Isotonic bicarbonate

3.

66/M referred for massive proteinuria and elevated creatinine. Past medical history is notable for osteoarthritis and hypertension. He has frequent intake of NSAIDs and is on olmesartan. Laboratories are as follows: Serum BUN 20 mmol/L; Serum creatinine 2.7 mg/dL; Serum sodium 140 meq/L; Serum potassium 4.9 mmol/L; Urine sodium 40 meq/L; Urine creatinine 30 mmol/L; Urinalysis: CHON+4, CHO negative, blood negative, specific gravity 1.010, WBC 0-1, RBC 0-1. Which of the following will be part of your additional diagnostics?

a)

Urine osmolality, 24-hour urine protein and creatinine, kidney biopsy

b)

Urine potassium, plasma aldosterone, plasma renin activity

c)

CT stonogram, 24-hour urine protein and creatinine, cystoscopy

d)

Serum p-ANCA and c-ANCA, serum C3, HIV screen

4.

60/F referred for elevated creatinine and edema. Patient has heart failure on bumetanide and sacubitril + valsartan. Laboratories are as follows: Serum BUN 15 mmol/L; Serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL; Serum sodium 140 meq/L; Serum potassium 3.7 mmol/L; Urine sodium 40 meq/L; Urine creatinine 30 mmol/L; Urine BUN 10 mmol/L; Urinalysis: CHON trace, CHO negative, specific gravity 1.015. Which of the following will best determine if acute kidney injury is prerenal or acute tubular necrosis?

a)

Fractional excretion of sodium

b)

BUN to creatinine ratio

c)

Fractional excretion of urea

d)

Urine specific gravity

5.

81/M post endovascular aortic repair (EVAR) of an infra-renal abdominal aortic aneurysm was referred for rising creatinine. Physical examination showed livedo reticularis of the lower extremities. Laboratory examinations showed elevated serum eosinophils and a FeNa of 1.8%. Which laboratory can help you know the cause of acute kidney injury?

a)

Serum ANA

b)

Serum C3

c)

Renal AV duplex scan

d)

Spot urine protein and creatinine

6.

25/M with known chronic liver disease develops worsening abdominal distension and tenderness, bipedal edema, and fever. Serum creatinine is elevated at 3 mg/dL (previously 1.2 mg/dL 1 month ago). He is maintained on spironolactone, furosemide, and carvedilol. What new medications will be included in your plan? I. Ceftriaxone II. Terlipressin III. Human albumin IV. Dopamine

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

I, II and III

d)

I, III, and IV

7.

Aminoglycosides are among the most nephrotoxic medications but are sometimes clinically warranted. What dosing strategy best prevents nephrotoxicity from aminoglycosides but ensures efficient antibiotic action?

a)

Once a day

b)

Smaller doses every 4 hours

8.

81/M with infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm was referred for renal risk stratification for a CT aortogram. He is hypertensive and post-stroke one year ago. Serum creatinine ranges from 1.5–1.8 mg/dL. What is the best strategy to prevent contrast-associated AKI?

a)

Increase N-acetylcysteine administration to 1.2 g two times a day per orem for five days prior to CT scan

b)

Admit the patient for intravenous hydration with plain NSS

c)

Start sodium bicarbonate per orem five days prior to the CT scan

d)

Use the least amount of iohexol (Omnipaque) as contrast medium

9.

A 44-year-old diabetic and hypertensive American female was referred due to increasing creatinine. Laboratory studies show eGFR of 40 ml/min/1.73 m² by CKD EPI, and hemoglobin A1c of 7%. Physical examination shows weight 80 kg, height 1.6 m, pulse rate 64/min, blood pressure 130/96 mmHg, and no other abnormalities. What predisposes her for the progression of her CKD?

a)

Gender

b)

Race and Ethnicity

c)

Nephron Endowment

d)

Obesity

10.

TR, a 50-year-old male, diagnosed case of CKD secondary to hypertension on HD two times a week has the following routine labs: total calcium = 12 mg/dL; albumin = 4 g/dL; phosphorus = 8 mg/dL; intact PTH = 800 pg/mL (NV: 10–65 pg/mL). What medications should the patient receive?

a)

CaCO₃ + Sevelamer + Calcitriol

b)

Sevelamer + Calcitriol + Cinacalcet

c)

Sevelamer + Cinacalcet

d)

Cinacalcet

11.

Renal osteodystrophy is best diagnosed with what test?

a)

Ionized calcium, Phosphorus

b)

Ionized calcium, Phosphorus, Calcidol

c)

Ionized calcium, Phosphorus, Calcidol, intact PTH

d)

Bone biopsy

12.

CKD patients have an increased risk of stroke due to multiple factors. All are associated with stroke through its blood pressure effect, except…

a)

High dietary sodium

b)

High dietary potassium

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Elevated serum phosphate

13.

A 50-year-old CKD G3 patient suffered a transient ischemic attack 3 months ago. Which of the following will reduce recurrent stroke rates according to guidelines?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Apixaban

c)

Darbepoetin

d)

Carotid Endarterectomy (CEA)

14.

A 20-year-old female with severe azotemia from ESKD was initiated on hemodialysis. After 30 minutes, she had headache, nausea, and started to become agitated. What can you do to minimize her symptoms?

a)

Increase dialysis duration

b)

Decrease dialysate sodium

c)

Give mannitol

d)

Terminate dialysis

15.

A 65-year-old college professor now suffers from memory loss and episodes of confusion especially after her regular hemodialysis sessions. What is the optimal therapy, if possible, for the management of CKD patients with cognitive impairment?

a)

Increasing hemodialysis treatment sessions

b)

Shifting hemodialysis to daily peritoneal dialysis

c)

Kidney transplantation

d)

Psychosocial therapy

16.

RL, 38-year-old male was referred due to 2+ proteinuria on his routine urinalysis. He reported bubbly urine for the past 3 months, on and off swelling of his lower extremities, and episodes of elevated blood pressure. What will be your target BP for him based on the KDIGO guidelines?

a)

140/80 and below

b)

125/75 and below

c)

130/80 and below

d)

130/75 and below

17.

Which indicates chronic changes in the fundoscopic exam in a hypertensive patient?

a)

Retinal infarcts

b)

Papilledema

c)

Copper wiring of blood vessels

d)

Flame hemorrhages

18.

Which clinical findings are better correlated with home blood pressure reading?

a)

LVH and incidence of hemorrhagic stroke

b)

LVH and proteinuria

c)

LVH and incidence of ischemic stroke

d)

LVH and rupture of abdominal aortic aneurysms

19.

Which is true of ambulatory BP monitoring?

a)

Better in detecting infrequent symptoms or paroxysms

b)

Useful in monitoring orthostatic hypotension

c)

Better evaluates hypotensive symptoms

d)

Better quantifies supine hypertension

20.

Which of the following would cause a false positive aldosterone–renin ratio (ARR)?

a)

CKD

b)

Diuretics

c)

CCB’s

d)

Sodium depletion

21.

Which patient would you suspect renovascular hypertension?

a)

Incidental finding of a small, unilateral left kidney on UTS in a 40-year-old male with a history of hemorrhagic stroke

b)

A 45-year old male CKD 5 patient developing frequent episodes of hypertensive emergencies with pulmonary edema on presentation despite adequate hemodialysis

c)

A 60-year old female chronic hypertensive patient admitted 5 times in the past month for hypertensive urgencies despite good compliance with medications

d)

All of the above

22.

What is considered an absolute contraindication to renal biopsy?

a)

Ureteropelvocaliectasia

b)

INR 1.15

c)

Left nephrectomy 1 year ago

d)

Two simple cysts per kidney

23.

A 40-year-old male consulted for hematuria on annual physical examination. What is the next best step?

a)

Advise for a kidney biopsy

b)

Send for CT stonogram

c)

Send for repeat urinalysis

d)

Send for urine RBC morphology

24.

A 50-year-old female on pamidronate for osteoporosis presents with new-onset nephrotic syndrome. What is your expected kidney biopsy electron microscopy finding?

a)

Tubuloreticular inclusion bodies

b)

Widespread and extensive podocyte foot process effacement

c)

Less extensive podocyte foot process effacement

d)

Well-defined mesangial electron-dense deposits in non-sclerotic glomerular segments

25.

A 70-year-old male came in for anorexia. His urinalysis showed 4+ proteinuria with subsequent kidney biopsy EM showing electron-dense subepithelial deposits. What is the next step in management?

a)

Schedule for a diagnostic laparoscopy

b)

Schedule for a PET scan

c)

Schedule for a bone marrow biopsy

d)

Schedule for low dose chest CT (LDCT)

26.

A 25-year-old male diagnosed with minimal change syndrome presented with 3+ proteinuria on home dipstick 2 weeks after last steroid dose. What medications can be started?

a)

Oral cyclophosphamide

b)

Oral azathioprine

27.

A 37-year-old female with bipedal edema and nephritic syndrome presented with the following kidney biopsy findings. Which test(s) will you be ordering on follow-up to document resolution? I. ANA II. C3 III. Creatinine IV. p-ANCA

a)

I, II

b)

II, III

c)

III, IV

d)

I, IV

28.

A 32-year-old male presents with episodic hematuria usually during bouts of upper respiratory tract infection. A diagnosis of IgA nephropathy was made. His 24-hour urine protein is 1.5 g and eGFR is 46 after four months of optimized supportive care. What is the next best step?

a)

Enrollment in a clinical trial

b)

Oral cyclophosphamide

c)

Enrollment to kidney transplant waitlist

d)

Azathioprine

29.

What is an appropriate starting fluid to use for replacement in patients with post-obstructive diuresis?

a)

0.9 Saline

b)

0.45 Saline

c)

Lactated Ringer’s

d)

0.3 Saline

30.

What maneuver traditionally defines the functional effect of upper urinary tract dilatation by measuring the hydrostatic pressures in the renal pelvis and bladder?

a)

Whitaker test (pressure-flow study)

b)

Diuretic renography (Lasix scintigraphy)

c)

Cystometry

d)

Intravenous pyelogram

31.

Which test is performed during infusion of saline and contrast mixture into the renal pelvis via a catheter?

a)

Retrograde pyelography

b)

Antegrade pyelography

c)

Whitaker test

d)

Isotopic renography

32.

What is the most common cause of ureteral obstruction in younger men?

a)

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

b)

Ureteral strictures

c)

Prostatic enlargement

d)

Nephrolithiasis

33.

Which fluoroquinolone could precipitate in the tubular fluid, resulting in crystalluria with stone formation and urinary tract obstruction?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Ofloxacin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Moxifloxacin

34.

Which imaging test is helpful in diagnosing upper urinary tract obstruction and provides information on the differential renal function (DRF) of both kidneys while avoiding the risk of contrast agents?

a)

Magnetic resonance imaging

b)

Positron emission tomography

c)

Intravenous pyelogram

d)

Isotopic renography

35.

Which is the natural inhibitor of stone formation that inhibits crystallization and increases the upper limit of metastability?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Citrate

c)

Pyrophosphate

d)

Osteopontin

36.

What is the most prevalent kidney stone, accounting for 70 to 80% of kidney stones?

a)

Calcium stone

b)

Uric acid stone

c)

Struvite stones

d)

Cysteine stones

37.

What systolic blood pressure (SBP) and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) levels in preeclampsia will make one start antihypertensives?

a)

SBP 140–160 or DBP 100–110

b)

SBP 150–160 or DBP 100–120

c)

SBP 140–160 or DBP 105–110

d)

SBP 150–160 or DBP 100–110

38.

Beta-blockers have been used in pregnancy without known teratogenic or adverse effects to the fetus. Which beta-blocker can cause teratogenic effects?

a)

Metoprolol succinate

b)

Metoprolol tartrate

c)

Atenolol

d)

Bisoprolol

39.

A 30-year-old pregnant patient was admitted for abnormal uterine bleeding and decreased fetal movements at 32 weeks AOG by LMP. The assessment is placental abruption. An emergency C-section was performed with massive intraoperative blood transfusion. The patient presented post-op with progressing oliguria, weakness, edema, and new-onset hypertension. Which of the following findings is consistent with this form of AKI post-partum?

a)

Renal failure is usually irreversible if renal necrosis is patchy

b)

Diagnoses can usually be established using renal ultrasound with doppler studies

c)

Return of renal function is usually variable after a period of oligoanuria

d)

Peritoneal dialysis preferred treatment of renal failure due to lesser chances of impairing uteroplacental blood flow

40.

Match the type of hypertensive emergency with its recommended treatment (0.5 point sub question). For Aortic dissection, which treatment is recommended?

a)

Magnesium sulfate, hydralazine, methyldopa

b)

Beta-blocker plus nitroprusside

c)

Nitroprusside, furosemide

d)

Nitroprusside

41.

Match the type of hypertensive emergency with its recommended treatment (0.5 point sub question). For Eclampsia or preeclampsia, which treatment is recommended?

a)

Magnesium sulfate, hydralazine, methyldopa

b)

Beta-blocker plus nitroprusside

c)

Nitroprusside, furosemide

d)

Nitroprusside

42.

Match the type of hypertensive emergency with its recommended treatment (0.5 point sub question). For Heart failure (or pulmonary edema), which treatment is recommended?

a)

Magnesium sulfate, hydralazine, methyldopa

b)

Beta-blocker plus nitroprusside

c)

Nitroprusside, furosemide

d)

Nitroprusside

43.

Match the type of hypertensive emergency with its recommended treatment (0.5 point sub question). For Hypertensive encephalopathy, which treatment is recommended?

a)

Magnesium sulfate, hydralazine, methyldopa

b)

Beta-blocker plus nitroprusside

c)

Nitroprusside, furosemide

d)

Nitroprusside

44.

FD, 29/F at 34 weeks gestation develops hypertension, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolysis, and AKI (creatinine 2.1 mg/dL). ADAMTS13 activity is <5% (NV: 50%-150%). What is the best treatment?

a)

Plasma exchange

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Emergent delivery

d)

IV immunoglobulin

45.

JM, 18/M diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) has just started chemotherapy. Shortly after starting treatment, his serum creatinine rises from 0.8 mg/dL to 1.9 mg/dL, and his urine output decreases significantly. His lab results show hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and elevated uric acid. What is the most likely cause of his renal dysfunction?

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) due to chemotherapy

c)

Nephrotic syndrome due to chemotherapy

d)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

46.

Which of the following best explains the mechanism of cisplatin-induced nephrotoxicity?

a)

Immune complex deposition in the glomeruli

b)

Direct tubular epithelial cell injury, particularly in the proximal tubule

47.

A 59-year-old metastatic colon cancer patient receiving bevacizumab presents with new-onset hypertension and proteinuria. Which renal pathology is most commonly associated with bevacizumab use?

a)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

b)

Minimal change disease

c)

Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA)

d)

Membranous nephropathy

48.

A 63-year-old man with a history of lung cancer develops new-onset nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy shows thickened capillary walls with subepithelial immune complex deposits. Which glomerular disease is most likely paraneoplastic in this setting?

a)

Minimal change disease

b)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

c)

Membranous nephropathy

d)

IgA nephropathy

49.

Which of the following is the most effective strategy to minimize cisplatin nephrotoxicity?

a)

Pre-treatment with amifostine

b)

Co-administration of high-dose loop diuretics

c)

Reducing the cisplatin dose by 50%

d)

Switching to a non-nephrotoxic chemotherapy agent

50.

A 40-year-old man with a large abdominal mass diagnosed with non-Hodgkin lymphoma starts chemotherapy. Within 48 hours, his uric acid level rises to 11 mg/dL and he develops oliguria. Which treatment is most appropriate to lower his uric acid level?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Rasburicase

c)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion

d)

Dialysis

51.

A 67-year-old man with acute decompensated heart failure presents with hyponatremia and volume overload. What is the expected urine sodium value?

a)

30 mmol/L

b)

20 mmol/L

c)

10 mmol/L

d)

5 mmol/L

52.

A 34-year-old woman has severe anasarca from nephrotic syndrome secondary to minimal change disease. Despite oral furosemide 40 mg once a day, she remains anasarcous. What diuretic strategy can be done next?

a)

Adding tolvaptan

b)

Giving furosemide bolus of 1.5 mg/kg IV then starting IV drip at 240 mg/day

c)

Adding chlorthalidone

d)

Performing ultrafiltration

53.

Which is the best example of osmotic thirst?

a)

Feeling thirsty after waking from an intraabdominal surgery with estimated blood loss of 1 L

b)

Polydipsia in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

c)

Polydipsia in a patient with schizophrenia

d)

Feeling thirsty after a marathon

54.

A 36-year-old woman with bipolar disorder presents with weakness and headaches after recently starting lithium and clonazepam. Laboratories: serum creatinine 1.3 mg/dL; BUN 10 mmol/L (2.1–8.5 mmol/L); serum sodium 149 mmol/L; serum potassium 3.0 mmol/L; serum ionized calcium 1.3 mg/dL (1.16–1.31 mg/dL); urinalysis: pH 7.0, specific gravity 1.006, CHO (−), CHON (−), hyaline casts 2–3/HPF; ABG: pH 7.36, pCO2 44, pO2 89, HCO3 24, SpO2 96%. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Administer desmopressin

b)

Administer furosemide

c)

Hold clonazepam

d)

Hold lithium

55.

A 55-year-old man with non–small cell lung cancer is referred for hyponatremia. Laboratories: serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL; serum BUN 8 mmol/L (2.1–8.5 mmol/L); serum sodium 120 mmol/L; serum ALT 250 U/L (4–36 U/L); plasma osmolality 270 mOsm/kg H2O (275–295 mOsm/kg H2O); urine osmolality 600 mOsm/kg H2O (500–850 mOsm/kg H2O); 24-hour urine studies: volume 1000 mL, sodium 10 mmol/L, creatinine 1.8 g. What is the next best step?

a)

Start sodium chloride tablets

b)

Start oral urea solution

c)

Start tolvaptan

d)

Start intensive fluid restriction (less than 500 mL/day)

56.

A patient presents with serum calcium of 11.8 mg/dL, inappropriately normal PTH, and urine calcium excretion less than 100 mg/day (normal value: 100–300 mg/24 hours). What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

b)

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

c)

Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia

d)

Vitamin D overdose

57.

A 70-year-old man with prostate cancer develops hypercalcemia and lytic bone lesions. Labs show suppressed PTH and low vitamin D levels. What explains his hypercalcemia?

a)

PTHrP secretion

b)

Osteolytic cytokine production by tumor

c)

Vitamin A toxicity

58.

A 60-year-old diabetic male with CKD Stage 4 was referred to you for hyperkalemia (5.8) by his primary care physician. Patient claims to be compliant with a low-potassium and low-protein diet. Medications include insulin glargine, aspirin, amlodipine, and ketoanalogues of amino acids all of which he takes religiously. Which laboratory parameter is characteristic of this cause of hyperkalemia?

a)

Urine pH 6.5

b)

AG = 9

c)

UAG = (-) 5

d)

Urine SG 1.022

59.

Which is true regarding hemodialysis in hyperkalemia?

a)

Rebound post-HD hyperkalemia is more likely if meals are given in the middle of the session

b)

Lower dialysate sodium content contributes to rebound post-HD hyperkalemia

c)

Standard bicarbonate baths are still preferred over high bicarbonate baths if no other contraindications

d)

Greatest removal of potassium is during the midway of dialysis

60.

The urine anion gap (UAG) is a surrogate measure of ammonium excretion by the renal tubules. What happens to the UAG in cases of acidosis due to diarrhea?

a)

More positive

b)

More negative

c)

Approaches zero

d)

Approaches one

61.

What acid base disorder can occur in a patient with increased pancreatic or biliary drainage secretions?

a)

HAGMA

b)

NAGMA

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

62.

What is the most common cause of acquired proximal RTA in adults?

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Sjögren syndrome

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

DM nephropathy

63.

35/M, person living with HIV admitted and currently on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia presents with the following laboratories: Crea 1.7 mg/dL; Na 138 mEq/L; K 6.8 mEq/L; ABG: pH 7.31, pCO2 30, pO2 65, HCO3 11.5. The management will include... I. Shifting TMP-SMX to atovaquone II. Increase intravenous hydration with plain saline III. Giving oral sodium bicarbonate IV. Shifting TMP-SMX to pentamidine

a)

I, II

b)

III, IV

c)

I, II, III

d)

II, III, IV

64.

Indications for dialysis in ethylene glycol intoxication... I. HCO3 20 mEq/L II. Osmolal gap 15 mOsm/kg III. Arterial pH 7.29 IV. Renal tubular casts in the urine

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

I, II and III

d)

II, III an IV

65.

What condition causing metabolic alkalosis will respond to chloride hydration?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Bartter’s syndrome

c)

Gitelman’s syndrome

d)

Cushing syndrome

66.

What metabolic profile will salicylate intoxication present with?

a)

HAGMA and respiratory acidosis

b)

HAGMA and respiratory alkalosis

c)

NAGMA and respiratory acidosis

d)

NAGMA and respiratory alkalosis

67.

23/M brought to the ER for suspected alcohol poisoning. Laboratory results are: Capillary blood glucose 60 mg/dL; Crea 2.3 mg/dL; Potassium 3.2 mEq/L; Albumin 2.5 g/dL; Phos 1.2 mg/dL; ABG: pH 7.2, pCO2 29 mmHg, pO2 89 mmHg, HCO3 9 mmol/L; Serum ketones (Nitroprusside method): negative to trace. What is the intravenous fluid of choice?

a)

plain NSS

b)

plain LR

c)

4% albumin

d)

D5NR

68.

What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is usually associated with nephrocalcinosis and recurrent nephrolithiasis?

a)

Proximal RTA

b)

Classical distal RTA

c)

Generalized distal tubular dysfunction

d)

Fanconi’s syndrome

69.

Which of the following is true regarding living kidney donation and cancer?

a)

A candidate with active cancer is eligible to donate as long as the course of treatment is completed before the time of the transplant surgery

b)

Candidates with a prior history of cancer with a low risk of recurrence are excluded because the transmission of cancer from the donor to the recipient can have serious consequences for the immunocompromised recipient

c)

Small renal cell carcinoma up to T2 may be acceptable for donation provided that resection is done at time of nephrectomy

d)

Donors should be evaluated for family history of renal cell carcinoma, breast cancer and colon cancer

70.

Which of the following options includes the pathologic findings of acute T-cell-mediated rejection?

a)

Peritubular capillaritis, tubulitis, interstitial inflammation

b)

Glomerulitis, peritubular capillaritis, arteritis

c)

Tubulitis, interstitial inflammation, arteritis

d)

Glomerulitis, tubulitis, interstitial inflammation

71.

Which B-cell development stages is not targeted by rituximab (anti-CD20 antibody)?

a)

Pro-B cell

b)

Pre-B cell

c)

Memory B cell

d)

T-regulatory cells

72.

Which one of the following co-stimulation molecules on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) has an inhibitory function on T cells?

a)

B7.1

b)

B7.2

c)

CD40

d)

PD-L1

73.

Which of the following is true regarding the nephrectomy procedure?

a)

The procedure of choice involves a left or right flank incision

b)

The kidney allograft is placed in the extraperitoneal iliac fossa

c)

Deceased and living donor transplant surgery each involves different techniques

d)

It is important to expose the common iliac vessels because this is where anastomoses will be done

74.

Which of the following is true of the vascular complications of kidney transplantation?

a)

Perirenal hematomas however small need prompt surgical intervention to ensure graft survival

b)

Acute arterial thrombosis is usually due to anastomotic problem or kink in the renal artery

c)
75.

Which of the following does not usually cause bone marrow suppression?

a)

Azathioprine

b)

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

c)

Cyclosporine

d)

Sirolimus

76.

Which of the following is true regarding mycophenolate acid?

a)

Drug exposure of MMF is decreased by approximately 40% when co-administered with Tacrolimus

b)

Most worrisome side effect is nephrotoxicity

c)

Associated with major fetal malformations hence switching to Azathioprine is necessary before expected delivery of baby

d)

Mycophenolate sodium has less GI side effects and has similar efficacy and side effect profile to MMF

77.

A post–kidney transplant patient with a calculated panel reactive antibody (cPRA) of 98.5% is about to be sent home. Which of the following medications, at an additional dose, must be administered to the patient in the hospital setting before discharge?

a)

Methylprednisolone pulse therapy (MPPT)

b)

Rabbit anti–thymocyte globulin (RATG)

c)

Rituximab

d)

Sirolimus

78.

How frequent should tacrolimus drug levels be monitored in the early posttransplant period?

a)

1–2 months: Weekly; 2–6 months: Every 3 weeks

b)

1–2 months: Twice weekly; 2–6 months: Every 2 weeks

c)

1–2 months: Weekly; 2–6 months: Every 2 weeks

d)

1–2 months: Twice weekly; 2–6 months: Every 3 weeks

79.

Which of the following may decrease the likelihood of delayed graft function (DGF)?

a)

ATG administration intraoperatively

b)

Intraoperative MAP of at least 65 mmHg in the recipient

c)

Peri-transplant EPO administration

d)

Intravenous beta-blockers administered perioperatively

80.

In acute transplant rejection, which category typically has timing of clinical onset greater than 5 days?

a)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR)

b)

Active antibody mediated rejection (ABMR)

c)

Both TCMR and ABMR

d)

Neither TCMR nor ABMR

81.

In acute transplant rejection, which category may present with timing of clinical onset greater than 0 days (i.e., can occur very early)?

a)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR)

b)

Active antibody mediated rejection (ABMR)

c)

Both TCMR and ABMR

d)

Neither TCMR nor ABMR

82.

For tubulitis/interstitial inflammation, which rejection category most characteristically shows this finding?

a)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR): Present; ABMR: Absent

b)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR): Absent; ABMR: Present

c)

Both TCMR and ABMR: Present

d)

Both TCMR and ABMR: Absent

83.

Regarding microvascular inflammation, which rejection category most characteristically shows this finding?

a)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR): Present; ABMR: Absent

b)

Acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR): Absent; ABMR: Present

c)

Both TCMR and ABMR: Present

d)

Both TCMR and ABMR: Absent

84.

Peritubular capillaritis and/or glomerulitis are most consistent with which rejection pattern?

a)

Characteristic of TCMR and absent in ABMR

b)

Characteristic of ABMR and absent in TCMR

c)

Characteristic of both TCMR and ABMR

d)

Absent in both TCMR and ABMR

85.

C4d staining of peritubular capillaries is most consistent with which scenario?

a)

Present in ABMR and absent in TCMR

b)

Present in TCMR and absent in ABMR

c)

Present in both ABMR and TCMR

d)

Absent in both ABMR and TCMR

86.

Donor-specific antibody in serum is most consistent with which scenario?

a)

Present in ABMR and absent in TCMR

b)

Present in TCMR and absent in ABMR

c)

Present in both ABMR and TCMR

d)

Absent in both ABMR and TCMR

87.

For therapy selection, which option is most appropriate for acute T-cell mediated rejection (TCMR)?

a)

Methylprednisolone pulse therapy (MPPT)

b)

Plasmapheresis

c)

Rituximab

d)

All of the above

88.

For therapy selection, which option is most appropriate for active antibody mediated rejection (ABMR)?

a)

Methylprednisolone pulse therapy (MPPT)

b)

Plasmapheresis

c)

Rituximab

d)

All of the above

89.

What can cause low arterial pressure alarms during hemodialysis (HD)? I. Kink in the arterial line II. Hypotension III. Access arterial outflow stenosis IV. Access venous outflow stenosis

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I, II and III

d)

II, III and IV

90.

Which is true of high flux dialyzers? I. Most effective with blood flow rates of up to 250 mL/min II. Greater clearance of vitamin B12 III. Greater clearance of beta-2 microglobulin IV. Higher ultrafiltration coefficient

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I, II and III

d)

II, III and IV

91.

Which of the following statements correctly describe the indications, advantages, and limitations of different extracorporeal blood purification techniques in critically ill patients?

a)

Intermittent hemodialysis (IHD): Provides greater hemodynamic tolerability

b)

Sustained low-efficiency dialysis (SLED): Limited data on appropriate dosing of antimicrobials

c)

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT): High cost of disposables and challenging administration without anticoagulation

d)

All of the above

92.

A critically ill patient in the ICU is experiencing persistent hypotension despite initial fluid resuscitation. The medical team decides to reassess the fluid management strategy. Based on principles of fluid resuscitation and current guidelines, which step should be considered next to manage this patient effectively?

a)

Initiate norepinephrine and titrate to a mean arterial pressure goal while reassessing perfusion

b)

Administer additional large-volume crystalloid boluses without reassessment

c)

Start vasodilators to reduce afterload

d)

Delay further interventions and observe for spontaneous improvement

93.

Critically ill patients often experience complex interactions between different organ systems. Which of the following statements accurately describe the relationship between liver failure, heart failure, and respiratory distress syndrome in the context of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

a)

AKI in liver failure is frequently associated with cerebral edema, requiring careful management of hyponatremia to prevent further complications.

b)

Volume overload is a critical factor in type 4 cardiorenal syndrome.

c)

Permissive hypocapnia is encouraged in ARDS to minimize ventilator-associated lung injury, but it may necessitate bicarbonate administration if metabolic acidosis occurs.

d)

The use of continuous versus bolus dosing of diuretics does not significantly impact outcomes in acute decompensated heart failure with AKI.

94.

In the context of renal replacement therapy (RRT) for critically ill patients with acute kidney injury (AKI), understanding the effects of therapy intensity is crucial. Which of the following statements accurately reflect findings related to RRT intensity?

a)

Intensive RRT strategies involve higher effluent volumes and more instances of hypokalemia in the intensive strategies.

b)

There is no significant mortality difference between intensive and less-intensive RRT strategies at 60 days.

c)

RRT intensity was associated with more occurrence of sepsis and hypotension.

d)

Intensive strategies work well in hypocatabolic patients with acute renal failure necessitating RRT.

95.

Which is true regarding regional citrate anticoagulation (RCA) in continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

a)

It results to extracorporeal hypercalcemia to prevent circuit clotting.

b)

It confers a lower risk of bleeding compared to unfractionated heparin (UFH).

c)

There is no difference in prolonging filter life with the use of RCA versus heparin.

d)

RCA can sometimes lead to metabolic acidosis which can be corrected by increasing the bicarbonate content of the replacement solution or dialysate.

96.

What kind of diagnostic tool can be used to assess the lung volume and inferior vena cava diameter in critically ill patients with acute kidney injury (AKI)?

a)

Bioelectric impedance analysis

b)

Central venous pressure monitor

c)

Point of care ultrasonography

d)

2-D electrocardiogram

97.

What is the target effluent flow in critically ill patients with acute kidney injury receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

a)

20 ml/kg/H

b)

25 ml/kg/H

c)

30 ml/kg/H

d)

35 ml/kg/H

98.

A 45-year-old female in the ICU is post–percutaneous biliary drainage (PTBD) insertion for acute cholangitis due to an obstructing cholelithiasis. Latest serum creatinine is 2.9 mg/dL with urine output of 0.8 cc/kg/hour. Medications being given are meropenem and metronidazole. What is the most appropriate supportive therapeutic strategy?

a)

Starting patient on essential amino acids intravenously

b)

Revising dietary protein to 0.7 g/kg/day

c)

Adding modular protein supplementation to morning and afternoon drinks

d)

Revising sodium intake to <3 g per day

99.

What is the main rationale for alkali therapy in a predialysis chronic kidney disease patient with metabolic acidosis?

a)

Increase distal tubular hydrogen ion secretion

b)

Prevent protein catabolism and muscle wasting

c)

Enhance potassium excretion

d)

Decrease bicarbonate synthesis

100.

What is the recommended protein intake in patients with hypercatabolic acute kidney injury on continuous veno-veno hemodiafiltration (CVVH)?

a)

0.8 g/kg/day

b)

1.2 g/kg/day

c)

1.5 g/kg/day

d)

1.7 g/kg/day

101.

A patient with acute kidney injury needs antibiotics for high-risk pneumonia (meropenem). Her GFR is 18 via Cockcroft and Gault equation. Urine output is 800 cc in 24 hours and the patient has clinical signs of volume overload. What is your recommendation regarding meropenem dosing?

a)

Give a full loading dose followed by a renally-adjusted maintenance dose

b)

Forego a loading dose and proceed with giving a renally-adjusted maintenance dose

c)

Give a full loading dose followed by the usual maintenance dose as with normal renal function

d)

Forego a loading dose and proceed with giving the usual maintenance dose as with normal renal function

102.

Why is the volume of distribution of water-soluble drugs often increased in chronic kidney disease?

a)

Decreased extracellular fluid volume

b)

Increased fat tissue

c)

Increased extracellular fluid volume and edema

d)

Decreased plasma protein binding

103.

Which pharmacokinetic parameter is least likely to be altered in chronic kidney disease, affecting drug dosing?

a)

Renal clearance

b)

Hepatic metabolism via cytochrome P450

c)

Volume of distribution of hydrophilic drugs

d)

Protein binding of acidic drugs

104.

Which is true regarding the pathophysiology of perioperative AKI?

a)

Renal hypoperfusion due to hypovolemia and hypotension intra- and post-operatively cause decreased angiotensin II release

b)

More prolonged hypoperfusion such as massive blood loss, lead to decrease in GFR by vasodilation of the afferent arterioles

c)

The systemic inflammation caused by surgery causes leukocyte migration and altered endothelium properties damaging cells within the nephron

d)

Renal epithelial cells thrive in hypoxic environments and are thus fairly resistant to prolonged periods of renal hypoperfusion

105.

Which surgical procedure generally produce the lowest risk for AKI?

a)

Mitral valve replacement under cardiopulmonary bypass

b)

Off-pump coronary artery grafting

c)

Laparoscopic radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma

d)

Double-barrel colostomy creation

106.

Which is true regarding preoperative risk factors for postoperative AKI?

a)

Anemia is associated with a 4-fold increase in AKI especially with hemoglobin levels <8 g/dL

b)

Preoperative use of diuretics has not been shown to be associated with AKI

c)

Preoperative insulin-requiring diabetes is the most important preoperative risk factor for the development of postoperative AKI

d)

Atorvastatin use preoperatively confers lower postoperative AKI risk especially in intracranial procedures

107.

What are the components of the Cleveland Clinic Score (Thakar) for Acute Renal Failure Requiring Dialysis Postoperatively?

a)

Type of cardiac surgery, history of COPD, gender, previous use of contrast agents

b)

Emergency surgery, history of diabetes requiring insulin, preoperative cystatin C, gender

c)

Previous cardiac surgery, preoperative use of intra-aortic balloon pump, EF <35%, history of COPD

d)

Peripheral vascular disease, preoperative use of ACE inhibitors, ethnicity of patient, EF <35%

108.

61/M with T2DM-IR and 2-vessel CAD for emergency CABG was referred for pre-operative renal risk stratification. Pre-operative creatinine is 1 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate post-operative monitoring strategy?

a)

Measuring intraoperative and immediate post-operative serum creatinine

b)

Measuring post-operative creatinine and electrolytes 6 hours post CABG to allow adequate equilibration of intra and extracellular components

c)

Measuring urine and blood TIMP-2:IGFBP7 (Nephro-Check) pre and postoperatively instead of serum creatinine

d)

Measuring serum creatinine and performing the furosemide stress test (FST) to measure both possible structural and functional damage postoperatively

109.

45/F post laparoscopic adrenalectomy for adrenal adenoma was referred for hypotension. A-line values ranged from 70-80/50-60 mmHg. Passive leg raise (PLR) test is positive. Which is the best strategy to address her hypotension?

a)

Start patient on dexamethasone 6 mg IV every 4 hours

b)

Start patient on norepinephrine at 0.1 mcg/kg/min

c)

Give the patient hypertonic saline solution as mainline

d)

Give the patient plain lactated ringer fluid bolus

110.

A 45/M with CKD G3B A2 has a kidney failure risk equation (KFRE) score of 10% risk of kidney failure in the next 2 years (high-risk). What is your recommended daily protein intake?

a)

0.8 g/kg/day

b)

1.2 g/kg/day

c)

1.5 g/kg/day

d)

1.7 g/kg/day

111.

Which is correct about sodium restriction in CKD patients?

a)

Use of salt substitutes is recommended

b)

Salt intake should be limited to 6g per day

c)

Salt restriction is applicable to all CKD patients regardless of cause

d)

Cooking food without salt then adding salt to the cooked food is advisable

112.

45/M with CKD G3A A3 from diabetes (insulin-requiring, uncontrolled) has a KFRE score of 10% risk of kidney failure in the next 2 years (high-risk). Which is true?

a)

Recommend a very low protein diet (0.4 g/kg/day) supplemented with ketoanalogues

b)

Recommend a low protein diet (0.8 g/kg/day) supplemented with ketoanalogues

c)

Recommend a low protein diet (0.8 g/kg/day) without ketoanalogues

d)

Do not recommend protein restriction

113.

A 70-year-old woman on thrice-weekly hemodialysis is prescribed digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What pharmacokinetic alteration is most relevant?

a)

Increased bioavailability due to reduced gastric acidity

b)

Decreased volume of distribution due to sarcopenia

c)

Enhanced clearance during hemodialysis sessions

d)

Reduced unbound fraction of digoxin

114.

A 78-year-old man with CKD is being considered for dose adjustment of an antibiotic. The pharmacist notes that body weight is missing from the record. Which equation is most appropriate to estimate kidney function in this case?

a)

Cockcroft–Gault (CG)

b)

Jelliffe

c)

MDRD

d)

Schwartz

115.

A CKD patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin for UTI and takes it with phosphate binders and omeprazole. What is the expected drug interaction?

a)

Increased ciprofloxacin absorption due to delayed gastric emptying

b)

Reduced ciprofloxacin absorption due to chelation and increased gastric pH

c)

No change in ciprofloxacin absorption due to ionic binding

d)

Increased ciprofloxacin clearance due to metabolic induction

116.

A 62-year-old with new rapidly progressive kidney dysfunction has hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs and red cell casts. Serology returns MPO-ANCA positive. There is no biopsy contraindication, and the center is experienced in AAV care. Which is the best next step? (MK, problem-solving, 0.6)

a)

Defer all immunosuppression until kidney biopsy confirms pauci-immune GN

b)

Start induction with glucocorticoids plus either rituximab or cyclophosphamide, and obtain a kidney biopsy as soon as feasible

c)

Begin plasma exchange immediately for all ANCA-positive patients with AKI

d)

Treat with glucocorticoids alone and recheck ANCA titers in 2 weeks

117.

28/F, non-pregnant, admitted for SLE flare, to include active nephritis. She was previously admitted 3x in the past year for flare of nephritis for which MPPT and cyclophosphamide regimens were given. What regimen can you give during this admission? (GK, problem-solving, 0.5)

a)

MPPT followed by oral cyclophosphamide and azathioprine

b)

Belimumab plus MPPT and MPAA or cyclophosphamide

c)

Rituximab alone

d)

Rituximab followed by plasma exchange

118.

A 45/F with idiopathic IgA nephropathy (Oxford M1 E1 S1 T0 C0) presents for follow-up. Baseline 6 months ago: eGFR 62 ml/min/1.73 m2, UPCR 1.8 g/g, BP 146/92. She completed 6 months of optimized supportive care: strict sodium restriction, weight loss counseling, and maximally titrated ARB achieving home BP ~122/74. Current labs: eGFR 58 ml/min/1.73 m2 (CKD EPI), UPCR 1.1 g/g on two measurements 4 weeks apart. She has well-controlled hypothyroidism, no diabetes, BMI 31 kg/m2, and a history of healed peptic ulcer disease 1 year ago. Hepatitis B/C, HIV negative. She asks whether to begin additional immunosuppression. What is the most appropriate next step? (MK, problem-solving, 0.8)

a)

Start a 6-month course of systemic glucocorticoids now

b)

Add mycophenolate mofetil as routine glucocorticoid-sparing therapy

c)

Continue maximal supportive care, reassess proteinuria trajectory, and avoid steroids for now given BMI >30 and prior ulcer history

d)

Begin dual RAS blockade by adding an ACE inhibitor to the ARB

119.

A 58/M with CKD G5 due to type 2 diabetes on hemodialysis for 10 months is referred for kidney transplant evaluation. He has HF NYHA class II dyspnea, a 35 pack-year smoking history (quit 2 years ago), and a prior treated pulmonary tuberculosis infection 20 years ago. BMI 29. Vitals: BP 138/78, HR 82. Exam unremarkable. Recent tests: echocardiogram LVEF 42% with no significant valvular disease; CT chest last year for lung nodule surveillance shows a stable 5-mm incidental pulmonary nodule with no cavitary lesions; HBsAg negative, anti-HCV negative, HIV negative; interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) positive, chest radiograph today is clear. Which is the best next step in his evaluation before listing? (MK, problem-solving, 0.6)

a)

Proceed to listing now; positive IGRA without radiographic findings requires no action

b)

Defer listing until he completes treatment for latent TB infection, started now per local protocols

c)

Exclude from transplantation due to LVEF 42%

d)

Require prophylactic nephrectomy for potential recurrent UTIs before listing

120.

A 58/M on PD for 10 months presents with 3 days of new purulent drainage at the catheter exit site and mild tenderness. He denies fever or abdominal pain and continues to dialyze without issues. On exam, there is purulent discharge at the exit site without surrounding erythema; no fluctuance is palpable along the tunnel. Ultrasound of the catheter tunnel shows no fluid collection. A Gram stain and culture of the purulent discharge are obtained. He has a history of MRSA nasal colonization documented 6 months ago. He has not been on recent antibiotics. There is no peritonitis. According to the ISPD 2023 recommendations for catheter-related infections, which is the most appropriate initial management? (MK, problem-solving, 0.7)

a)

Remove the PD catheter now and start intraperitoneal vancomycin plus ceftazidime

b)

Start oral first-line anti-staphylococcal therapy (e.g., dicloxacillin or cephalexin) while awaiting culture; add intraperitoneal antifungal prophylaxis

c)

Begin oral ciprofloxacin for presumed Pseudomonas and schedule catheter salvage if no improvement in 48 hours

d)

Start topical mupirocin only at the exit site and reassess in 72 hours

121.

You started dapagliflozin in your patient with CKD 3B A3 from diabetes. Her eGFR dropped from 40 to 30 mL/min per 1.73 m2 (CKD EPI) in a span of 6 weeks of use. There is no intercurrent illness between follow-up visits. What is the next best step? (MK, problem-solving, 0.8)

a)

Stop dapagliflozin

b)

Decrease dapagliflozin dose by 50%

c)

Continue dapagliflozin and reassure patient

d)

Start antibiotics for UTI

122.

58/F CKD G3B A3 from diabetes has recurrent urinary tract infection. What medications can be given as continuous prophylaxis for 6–12 months? (MK, problem-solving, 0.6)

a)

Nitrofurantoin 100 mg tab once a day at bedtime

b)

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg tab once a day at bedtime

c)

Fosfomycin 3 g sachet once a day at bedtime

d)

Cefalexin 250 mg tab once a day at bedtime

123.

A 28/M presents on day 6 of fever, myalgias, and conjunctival suffusion after wading through floodwater 10 days ago. He is icteric and mildly dyspneic. Vitals: temperature 38.5 °C, HR 112, MAP 58 mmHg (SBP 86, DBP 50), SpO2 93% RA. Urine output over the last 12 hours is 120 mL. Labs: WBC 12.5×109/L, platelets 78,000/μL, AST 64 U/L, ALT 58 U/L, total bilirubin 5.2 mg/dL, creatinine 4.6 mg/dL (baseline unknown), K 5.9 mEq/L, Na 132 mEq/L. UA: sterile pyuria, protein 2+, pigmented “tea-colored” urine. Chest X-ray: new bilateral patchy infiltrates. PT 18 s, aPTT 48 s. He is on norepinephrine at 0.08 μg/kg/min after fluid resuscitation. According to the 2019 leptospirosis renal guidelines, which of the following is the best next step in management? (MK, problem-solving, 0.8)

a)

Initiate broad-spectrum IV antibiotics active against Leptospira (e.g., IV penicillin G or ceftriaxone) and start renal replacement therapy with continuous modalities now

b)

Continue fluid resuscitation and observe urine output for the next 24 hours

c)

Start oral doxycycline and reassess in 48 hours

d)

Delay antibiotics until leptospira PCR confirms the diagnosis

124.

A 46/F with CKD G5D is listed for kidney transplant. She is HCV RNA–negative with prior treated HCV (sustained viral response 3 years ago). A kidney offer becomes available from an HCV RNA–positive deceased donor. The center has immediate access to directly active antiretrovirals (DAA). What is the next best evidence-based? (MK, problem-solving, 0.6)

a)

Decline the organ; prior HCV infection is a contraindication to HCV-viremic donors

b)

Accept the organ and plan pre-transplant DAA prophylaxis to prevent transmission

c)

Accept the organ with informed consent, proceed to transplant, and initiate DAA therapy early post-transplant while monitoring drug–drug interactions

d)

Accept only if the donor’s genotype matches the recipient’s prior genotype

125.

A 70/M with type 2 diabetes and CKD stage G4 has persistent albuminuria despite being on losartan, linagliptin and empagliflozin. Sugars are not controlled. According to KDIGO guidelines, which of the following treatment can be added? (MK, problem-solving, 0.6)

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Semaglutide

c)

Discontinue losartan and start finerenone

d)

Discontinue empagliflozin and start metformin

126.

A 50/F patient with stage 4 CKD has a serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level of 15 ng/mL and a parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 120 pg/mL. She has no history of hypercalcemia or vitamin D hypersensitivity and is currently not taking any vitamin D supplements. What is the appropriate approach to vitamin D supplementation for this patient? (MK, problem-solving, 0.7)

a)

Administer ergocalciferol at 50,000 IU weekly and monitor serum calcium and PTH levels monthly.

b)

Start cholecalciferol at 1,000 IU daily and monitor serum phosphate levels only.

c)

Prescribe calcitriol at 0.5 mcg daily and monitor for hypercalcemia and PTH levels every 3 months.

d)

Provide no vitamin D supplementation and recommend only dietary changes to increase vitamin D intake.