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POP01

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the operating system zoo, what is the main priority of a time-sharing system over a multiprogramming system?

a)

The cost of managing smaller processes

b)

Increase the CPU's performance

c)

Response time is smaller

d)

Reduce the burst time of the process

2.

According to the five generations of computers listed, what operating system did users use to control their computer in the first generation?

a)

This stage does not have an operating system

b)

Users use the FM operating system

c)

Users use the OS/360 operating system

d)

Users use the UNIX operating system

3.

The CPU retrieves and runs instructions using a simple model. Which sequence best describes this model?

a)

Fetch, decode, and execute

b)

Fetch, execute, and decode

c)

Decode, fetch, and execute

d)

Execute, decode, and fetch

4.

Many popular operating systems run on multiprocessors. What is the main advantage of multiprocessor systems?

a)

Increase throughput

b)

Decrease throughput

c)

Low-speed communication

d)

Reduced reliability

5.

Which of the following is not a part of the operating system?

a)

Performance monitor

b)

Input/output control program

c)

Job control program

d)

Supervisor

6.

In Windows OS, which command is used to create a new directory?

a)

Mkdir

b)

Rmdir

c)

Chdir

d)

Chmod

7.

In the FIFO page replacement algorithm, which data structure is commonly used to implement the page replacement queue?

a)

Stack

b)

Queue

c)

Linked list

d)

Array

8.

A computer has 4GB RAM of which the operating system occupies 2GB. The processes are all 1024 MB and have the same characteristics. How much percent is CPU utilization when these programs are idle waiting for I/O 50% of the time?

a)

75%

b)

90%

c)

1%

d)

50%

9.

What is the primary purpose of process control blocks (PCBs) in process management?

a)

To display information about running processes on the screen

b)

To store the user's program and data

c)

To maintain information about each process, including its state, program counter, and CPU registers

d)

To allocate memory for new processes

10.

Which of the following process state transitions (from-to) is illegal?

a)

Ready, Blocked (waiting)

b)

Running, Blocked (waiting)

c)

Blocked, Ready

d)

Running, Ready

11.

Which statement best describes the relationship between threads within a single process?

a)

Threads are completely independent and do not share any resources.

b)

Threads share the same memory space but have their own registers.

c)

Threads are separate and isolated from one another.

d)

Threads are tightly integrated, and they all have their own separate memory space.

12.

When using the Critical Regions solution, which of the following conditions is NOT necessary?

a)

Processes entering critical regions must set their speed or number of CPUs.

b)

Two processes are not in critical regions at the same time.

c)

A process outside the staging area must not prevent other processes from entering critical regions.

d)

Processes do not have to wait indefinitely to enter critical regions.

13.

Which information bit in the page table entry is used to indicate the types of access that are permitted?

a)

Present/absent bit

b)

Caching disabled

c)

Protection bit

d)

Modified bit

14.

In the Dining Philosophers problem, what do the philosophers represent?

a)

Real-world philosophers dining in a restaurant

b)

Concurrent processes that compete for access to shared resources

c)

Philosophical concepts unrelated to computing

d)

A form of computer virus

15.

Which memory management technique involves dividing memory into fixed-sized partitions to accommodate varying process sizes?

a)

Paging Management

b)

Contiguous Allocation

c)

Segmentation

d)

Virtual Memory Management

16.

Suppose the free memory area has sizes in the order: 10KB, 4KB, 15KB, 18KB, 7KB, 9KB, 13KB, and 20KB. A process needs 12KB of memory and has been placed into a 20KB block. Which Memory Management algorithm is applied to the selection?

a)

Worst-fit

b)

First-fit

c)

Best-fit

d)

Next-fit

17.

Which technique is not used in the implementation of Virtual Memory?

a)

Paging

b)

Mapping

c)

Segmentation

d)

Partition

18.

Which statement best describes the function of virtual memory in the Windows operating system?

a)

Virtual memory is used to store temporary files created by applications to free up physical RAM.

b)

Virtual memory allows a larger address space than the physical memory available, by using a combination of RAM and hard disk space.

c)

Virtual memory is a reserved area on the hard disk used exclusively for storing system files.

d)

Virtual memory enables the operating system to manage the computer's display settings for multiple monitors.

19.

In which page replacement algorithm can the page fault rate increase even when the number of allocated frames increases?

a)

FIFO

b)

LRU

c)

NRU

d)

OPT

20.

What is the primary disadvantage of using a fixed-size page table in a paging system?

a)

It limits the number of pages a process can have.

b)

It results in excessive memory consumption.

c)

It requires a complex page replacement algorithm.

d)

It leads to inefficient page allocation.

21.

Which option best describes the difference between a process and a thread in the context of the Windows operating system?

a)

A process contains multiple threads and shares resources, while a thread is an independent execution unit within a process.

b)

A process is a program in execution, while a thread is a sequence of instructions that can execute independently.

c)

A process and a thread are essentially the same in Windows OS, with no significant difference between them.

d)

A process represents system resources, while a thread is responsible for user interface interactions in Windows OS.

22.

In memory management, what is the primary advantage of segmented memory over paging?

a)

Simplified address translation

b)

Efficient use of memory space

c)

Reduced overhead in memory management

d)

Elimination of fragmentation

23.

In file access systems, random access files are essential for many applications. Which two methods are used to specify where to start reading?

a)

Write and Read

b)

Write and Seek

c)

Read and Seek

d)

Read and Write

24.

In the context of a file system, how many letters do all current operating systems allow as legal file names?

a)

Zero to eight

b)

One to ten

c)

One to eight

d)

One to nine

25.

Multiuser operating systems often enforce a limit on individual user disk space. What is this mechanism called?

a)

Disk Quota

b)

Allocation Limit

c)

Disk Space Limit

d)

Disk Allocation Limit

26.

After reading a directory, which operation should be performed to free up internal table space?

a)

Close

b)

Closedir

c)

Delete

d)

Opendir

27.

What is fragmentation in the context of file-system implementation?

a)

A technique for managing directory structures.

b)

The allocation of memory for file storage.

c)

The splitting of files or free space into smaller, non-contiguous blocks.

d)

The arrangement of files on storage devices.

28.

When the computer is booted, what components are used to read in and execute the initial boot sequence?

a)

BIOS, Boot Block

b)

CPU, BIOS

c)

BIOS, MBR

d)

MBR, BIOS

29.

Sector 0 of the disk is called the ____ and is used to boot the computer.

a)

DMA

b)

MBR

c)

FAT

d)

NTFS

30.

Which file access method is often used to optimize access to large files in a file system?

a)

Sequential access

b)

Direct access

c)

Indexed access

d)

Linked access

31.

In Linux, what is the primary purpose of the /etc directory?

a)

To store temporary files.

b)

To manage system boot files.

c)

To house system configuration files and scripts.

d)

To store user home directories.

32.

In a DMA transfer cycle, what is the form of operation called when the DMA controller tells the device to acquire the bus, perform a series of transfers, and then release the bus?

a)

Fly-by mode

b)

Word-at-a-time mode

c)

Burst mode

d)

Caching mode

33.

_____ include(s) every peripheral unit in the system such as disks, clocks, keyboards, displays, and so on.

a)

I/O devices

b)

Memory

c)

CPU

d)

Software

34.

What is the purpose of Direct Memory Access (DMA) in I/O hardware?

a)

To manage device controllers.

b)

To allocate memory for device drivers.

c)

To enable devices to transfer data to and from memory without CPU intervention.

d)

To provide user interfaces for I/O devices.

35.

In memory-mapped I/O, which mechanism prevents software from entering an infinite loop while waiting for a device to become ready?

a)

Selectively able caching

b)

Selectively disable buffer

c)

Selectively able buffer

d)

Selectively disable caching

36.

Which are identified as important issues for I/O software? Choose the best single option that lists only correct items.

a)

Error handling; Device independence; Synchronous and Asynchronous; Buffering

b)

Error handling; Device dependence; Synchronous only; Uniform naming

c)

Uniform naming; Device independence; Asynchronous only; Buffering

d)

Error handling; Device independence; Synchronous only; Buffering

e)

Error handling only

37.

In device-independent I/O software, what happens to characters that arrive while the page with the user buffer is being brought in from disk?

a)

The buffer is full, there is no place to put them

b)

The buffer is ready, there is more places to put them

c)

The buffer is clear, there is more places to put them

d)

They are written directly to disk

38.

What is a key weakness of RAID 0?

a)

Requires the highest number of disks in RAID modes

b)

There is no data recovery mechanism

c)

The unit of data is at the BIT level

d)

It does not improve read and write speeds

39.

Which clock in a computer system tracks current time and date and is typically battery-powered to retain data when the system is off?

a)

System clock

b)

CPU clock

c)

Real-time clock (RTC)

d)

Network clock

40.

The first general-purpose electronic computer, ENIAC, used 18,000 vacuum tubes and consumed how many watts of power?

a)

1,400,000

b)

140,000

c)

14,000

d)

1,400

41.

If a process has begun to burn a Blu-ray, taking the Blu-ray recorder away and giving it to another process will garble the disc. What does this indicate about the resource?

a)

Un-preemptable resource

b)

Preemptable resource

c)

Non-sharable resource

d)

Non-preemptable resource

42.

What is a nonpreemptable resource?

a)

One that can be taken away from its current owner with potentially causing failure

b)

One that cannot be taken away from its current owner with potentially causing failure

c)

One that can be taken away from its current owner without potentially causing failure

d)

One that cannot be taken away from its current owner without potentially causing failure

43.

In resource allocation models, what does an arc directed from a process to a resource mean?

a)

The process is currently waiting for that resource

b)

The process is ready and waiting for that resource

c)

The process is blocked waiting for that resource

d)

The process is currently running for that resource

44.

In the context of deadlocks, what does 'no preemption' imply?

a)

Resources can be preempted from one process to another

b)

Resources cannot be preempted once allocated

c)

Processes can be terminated to free resources

d)

Resources are allocated in a circular manner

45.

What is the Ostrich algorithm?

a)

A deadlock recovery algorithm

b)

A deadlock dealing algorithm that ignores rare deadlocks

c)

A deadlock detection algorithm

d)

A deadlock avoidance algorithm

46.

What does a resource allocation graph represent for deadlock detection?

a)

The number of resources allocated to each process

b)

Processes, resources, and their relationships

c)

The execution order of processes

d)

A diagram of CPU scheduling

47.

Who proposed the Banker's algorithm?

a)

Dijkstra

b)

Zobel

c)

Newton

d)

Ostrich

48.

Which condition, if absent in a system, can help prevent deadlocks?

a)

Mutual exclusion

b)

Hold and wait

c)

No preemption

d)

Circular wait

49.

Which deadlock condition does the "Take resources away" attack target?

a)

Hold and wait

b)

Mutual exclusion

c)

No preemption

d)

Circular wait

50.

Which of the following is NOT an operating system mode?

a)

System mode

b)

User mode

c)

Kernel mode

d)

Supervisor mode

51.

Which early operating system was designed for the UNIVAC I and is considered one of the first operating systems?

a)

MS-DOS

b)

UNIX

c)

COBOL

d)

EDVAC

52.

Which bus was invented to attach slow I/O devices, such as the keyboard and mouse, to the computer?

a)

ISA

b)

PCI

c)

DMI

d)

USB

53.

In Linux, the command ps -aux gives the equivalent of which action in MS Windows?

a)

Start/shutdown

b)

Start/Run input CMD

c)

Open program Task Manager

d)

Open Add/Remove program

54.

In the Linux OS terminal, which key combination stops the ping command?

a)

Ctrl+Break

b)

Ctrl+D

c)

Ctrl+C

d)

Ctrl+Z

55.

Many popular operating systems run on multiprocessors. What is a main advantage of multiprocessor systems?

a)

Increase throughput

b)

Decrease throughput

c)

Low-speed communication

d)

Reduced reliability

56.

A key concept in all operating systems is the _______.

a)

Files

b)

Process

c)

Input/Output

d)

The Shell

57.

Which statement is not a main feature of a monolithic operating system?

a)

Information hiding: Every procedure is hiding from every other procedure

b)

The operating system runs as a single program in kernel mode

c)

The operating system is organized as a hierarchy

d)

The operating system is written as a collection of procedures linked into a single large executable

58.

In the FIFO page replacement algorithm, which data structure is commonly used to implement the page replacement queue?

a)

Stack

b)

Queue

c)

Linked list

d)

Array

59.

In Round-robin scheduling, what happens to a process when it runs out of its time slice allocated by the system?

a)

The process switches from running to a ready state

b)

The process switches from running to a blocked state

c)

The process switches from running to a suspended-ready state

d)

The process switches from running to a suspended state

60.

Which of the following is an Operating System component?

a)

Process Management

b)

Speed Management

c)

Space Management

d)

Time Management

61.

Which description best characterizes the relationship between threads within a single process?

a)

Threads are completely independent and do not share any resources

b)

Threads share the same memory space but have their own registers

c)

Threads are separate and isolated from one another

d)

Threads are tightly integrated with separate memory spaces

62.

In Windows OS, which statement is true about the blocked state of a process?

a)

Waiting for an event triggered by the CPU's scheduling mechanism

b)

Waiting for an event that has not happened yet

c)

Waiting to input/output and Waiting for an event that has not happened yet

d)

The CPU and Memory are waiting to other events

63.

What defines a critical section in the context of the Windows operating system?

a)

A section of code where the processor prioritizes executing multiple threads simultaneously

b)

A section of code where hardware interrupts are disabled to ensure uninterrupted execution

c)

A segment of code that only one thread can execute at a time to avoid data inconsistency or conflicts

d)

Part of the kernel where system-level processes are given higher priority over user-level processes

64.

Which action does the operating system take to execute a new process?

a)

Provide immediate CPU for process

b)

Delivery the resources must be process

c)

Create immediate PCB blocks for process

d)

Provide immediate Register for process

65.

Which page table entry bit indicates the types of access that are permitted?

a)

Present/absent bit

b)

Caching disabled

c)

Protection bit

d)

Modified bit

66.

In the Dining Philosophers problem, what do the philosophers represent?

a)

Real-world philosophers dining in a restaurant

b)

Concurrent processes that compete for access to shared resources

c)

Philosophical concepts unrelated to computing

d)

A form of computer virus

67.

Which memory management technique divides memory into fixed-sized partitions to accommodate varying process sizes?

a)

Paging Management

b)

Contiguous Allocation

c)

Segmentation

d)

Virtual Memory Management

68.

There are six memory blocks B1=300KB, B2=600KB, B3=380KB, B4=750KB, B5=125KB, B6=200KB, and five processes P1=115KB, P2=500KB, P3=358KB, P4=200KB, P5=375KB. Using the best-fit algorithm, which block is P5 assigned to?

a)

B5

b)

B3

c)

B2

d)

B4

69.

Suppose there are four memory blocks B1=600K, B2=500K, B3=200K, and B4=300K. Four processes P1=250K, P2=420K, P3=150K, and P4=450K arrive. Under the best-fit allocation, which mapping of processes to blocks occurs?

a)

P1→B4, P2→B2, P3→B3, P4→B1

b)

P1→B4, P2→B1, P3→B3, P4→B2

c)

P1→B1, P2→B2, P3→B4, P4→none

d)

P1→B1, P2→B2, P3→B3, P4→none

70.

A free memory list contains blocks: 10KB, 4KB, 15KB, 18KB, 7KB, 9KB, 13KB, and 20KB. A 12KB request is placed into the 20KB block. Which memory management algorithm matches this selection?

a)

Worst-fit

b)

First-fit

c)

Best-fit

d)

Next-fit

71.

Most virtual memory systems use a technique called _______.

a)

Page Fault

b)

Page Frames

c)

Page Table

d)

Paging

72.

A 32-bit virtual address uses a two-level page table: 10-bit PT1 field, 10-bit PT2 field, and an offset. For virtual address 0x00403008, how many PT1, PT2 indices and offset bits are present?

a)

PT1=1; PT2=3; offset=8

b)

PT1=1; PT2=1; offset=8

c)

PT1=4; PT2=3; offset=8

d)

PT1=4; PT2=1; offset=8

73.

When a virtual memory system manages memory in fixed-length units, which term correctly represents the unit?

a)

Frame

b)

Page

c)

Block

d)

Segment

74.

Which statement best describes a page fault in paging?

a)

A page removed from main memory to secondary storage

b)

An error when accessing data not present in the page table

c)

A condition due to excessive fragmentation corrupting the page table

d)

An interrupt when accessing a page not currently in main memory

75.

Using FIFO page replacement with four frames initially empty and reference string 0172327103, how many page faults occur?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

76.

Using Optimal page replacement with four frames initially empty and reference string 7,0,1,2,0,3,0, iframes=4, how many page faults occur?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

4

d)

7

77.

In a paging system, at which time is it appropriate to determine program size and create the page table for a new process?

a)

Process creation time

b)

Process execution time

c)

Page fault time

d)

Process termination time

78.

Which statement best describes the difference between a process and a thread in Windows?

a)

A process contains multiple threads and shares resources; a thread is an independent execution unit within a process

b)

A process is a program in execution; a thread is a sequence of instructions that can execute independently

c)

A process and a thread are essentially the same in Windows

d)

A process represents system resources; a thread handles user interface interactions

79.

What is a disadvantage of segmentation in memory management?

a)

It can have external fragmentation

b)

Average segment size is larger than page size

c)

Relocating segments is easier than relocating the entire address space

d)

Segment table is smaller than the page table

80.

In file metadata, what does the file size typically represent?

a)

Physical size of the storage medium

b)

Number of characters in the file

c)

Number of pages in the file

d)

Amount of space the file occupies on the storage medium

81.

Which operation is appropriate when system calls notify the OS that a file is coming and set some of its attributes?

a)

Delete

b)

Create

c)

Read

d)

Write

82.

Random access files are essential for applications like database systems. Which two methods specify where to start reading?

a)

Write and Read

b)

Write and Seek

c)

Read and Seek

d)

Read and Write

83.

Which of the following is NOT a common directory attribute/property?

a)

Directory name

b)

Directory structure

c)

Directory owner

d)

Directory path

84.

Which file access method is often used to optimize access to large files in a file system?

a)

Sequential access

b)

Indexed access

c)

Direct access

d)

Hashed access

85.

Which access method retrieves records using a computed position rather than sequential traversal?

a)

Sequential access

b)

Direct access

c)

Indexed access

d)

Linked access

86.

In Windows 95, what is the maximum partition size if the FAT type is FAT-16 and the block size is 4 KB?

a)

128MB

b)

256MB

c)

512MB

d)

1024MB

87.

In memory-mapped I/O, what is each controller primarily used for?

a)

Perform any error correction necessary

b)

Communication with memory

c)

Communication with the CPU

d)

Perform read and write with I/O devices

88.

During a DMA transfer cycle, many buses operate in which two modes?

a)

Word-at-a-time mode and byte mode

b)

Word-at-a-time mode and block mode

c)

Word-at-a-time mode and bit mode

d)

Word-at-a-time mode and page mode

89.

In I/O software, what does the term "blocking" refer to?

a)

A technique for managing device drivers

b)

A mechanism for ensuring device synchronization

c)

The process of stopping a process until an I/O operation is completed

d)

A method of allocating memory for I/O operations

90.

Which of the following are basic ways that I/O operations can be performed in a computer system? Select the set that best matches the list.

a)

Programmed I/O, Interrupt-driven I/O, I/O using DMA

b)

Memory-mapped I/O, Programmed I/O, I/O using DMA

c)

Interrupt-driven I/O, Memory-mapped I/O, I/O using DMA

d)

Programmed I/O, Memory-mapped I/O, Interrupt-driven I/O

91.

How many layers are there in the I/O software system?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

92.

In device-independent I/O software, what happens to characters that arrive while the page with the user buffer is being brought in from the disk?

a)

The buffer is full, there is no place to put them

b)

The buffer is ready, there is more places to put them

c)

The buffer is clear, there is more places to put them

d)

They are immediately written to disk

93.

What is a key weakness of RAID 0?

a)

Requires the highest number of disks in RAID modes

b)

There is no data recovery mechanism

c)

The unit of data transmitted is at the BIT level

d)

Does not improve read and write speeds

94.

Which clock in a computer system keeps track of current time and date and is battery-powered to retain data even when the system is off?

a)

System clock

b)

CPU clock

c)

Real-time clock (RTC)

d)

Network clock

95.

In a thin client setup, where is most software and data processing performed?

a)

Locally on the thin client device

b)

On a central server or cloud infrastructure

c)

On a central server or client infrastructure

d)

On a dedicated network switch

96.

Which statement best defines a preemptable resource?

a)

The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects

b)

The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects

c)

The one that cannot be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects

d)

The one that cannot be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects

97.

A process has begun to burn a Blu-ray. Suddenly taking the Blu-ray recorder away and giving it to another process results in a garbled disc. What does this scenario indicate?

a)

It's an Un-preemptable resource

b)

It's a Preemptable resource

c)

It's a Non-sharable resource

d)

It's a Non-preemptable resource

98.

"Each resource is either currently assigned to exactly one process or is available." Which deadlock-related condition does this statement describe?

a)

No-preemption

b)

Hold-and-wait

c)

Mutual exclusion

d)

Circular wait

99.

Who is responsible for the Banker’s algorithm?

a)

Dijkstra

b)

Zobel

c)

Newton

d)

Ostrich

100.

Select the correct statement about the Windows operating system.

a)

Mouse is a unique tool to interface between user and computer

b)

Windows operating system does not provide a work in network environment

c)

The Windows operating system is viewed as an object that performs tasks

d)

The Windows operating system has a graphical interface

101.

In operating systems, what is the main priority of a time-sharing system over a multiprogramming system?

a)

The cost of managing smaller processes

b)

Increase the CPU's performance

c)

Response time is smaller

d)

Reduce the burst time of the process