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SOIL 101 REMEDIAL EXAMINATION

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best explains why dark soils are generally fertile?

a)

They contain high humus and nutrient-rich parent material.

b)

They are usually shallow soils.

c)

They indicate the soil is poorly drained.

d)

They always form under acidic conditions.

2.

Which statement best explains why the 16 nutrient elements are considered essential?

a)

Without them, plants cannot complete their life cycle.

b)

They can be substituted by other elements.

c)

They are always present in large quantities.

d)

They increase soil fertility.

3.

Which soil separate is sticky and plastic when moist, and forms plate-like or flake-like particles?

a)

Loam

b)

Sand

c)

Clay

d)

Silt

4.

The Textural Triangle is used to:

a)

Identify soil color

b)

Measure soil pH

c)

Determine soil texture class

d)

Estimate soil organic matter

5.

Which statement about metamorphism is MOST accurate?

a)

Metamorphism melts rock into magma

b)

Metamorphism alters rock by heat and pressure without melting.

c)

Metamorphism only occurs at Earth’s surface.

d)

Metamorphism always creates sedimentary layers.

6.

A mature soil on an old landscape has a thick solum, low base saturation, and acidic pH. Which factor most plausibly explains these properties?

a)

Recent deposition (young soil)

b)

Intensive liming in the past

c)

Parent material rich in carbonates

d)

Long time span allowing progressive leaching

7.

Which statement about the rock cycle is most accurate?

a)

The cycle occurs only at Earth’s surface.

b)

Every rock passes through all stages of the cycle.

c)

Rocks transform through heat, pressure, weathering, and erosion, but not all rocks pass every stage.

d)

The cycle was first proposed in the 20th century.

8.

Which of the following best describes the solum of a soil profile?

a)

A + B horizons

b)

A + B + C horizons

c)

Entire soil depth up to bedrock

d)

Only the A horizon

9.

Which process set best describes sedimentary rock formation?

a)

Fragmentation → transport → deposition → cementation

b)

Weathering → metamorphism

c)

Melting → crystallization

d)

Recrystallization under heat/pressure only

10.

Why do intrusive igneous rocks (like granite) usually have large, visible crystals?

a)

They are made of glassy material.

b)

They cool slowly underground, giving crystals time to grow.

c)

They form from lava at Earth’s surface.

d)

They are produced by metamorphism.

11.

Which of the following elements is classified as a micronutrient?

a)

Boron (B)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Sulfur (S)

d)

Potassium (K)

12.

Which set of soil characteristics best matches intense long-term leaching in hot, wet tropical environments (i.e., after soluble silica and bases are removed)?

a)

Thin solum with carbonate accumulation

b)

High montmorillonite, high CEC, high base saturation

c)

Dominance of kaolinite and sesquioxides, low CEC, acidic, often red/yellow colors

d)

High soluble salt accumulation and high pH

13.

Which of the following would be the best approach to improve soil fertility in a degraded agricultural area?

a)

Continuous monocropping

b)

Excessive pesticide use

c)

Integrated nutrient management

d)

Slash-and-burn farming

14.

A farmer complains of waterlogging. Which soil property should be analyzed first?

a)

Soil color

b)

Soil texture and porosity

c)

Soil pH

d)

Organic matter

15.

Which farming practice best supports beneficial soil microbial activity?

a)

Use of heavy machinery

b)

Application of synthetic herbicides

c)

Incorporation of compost and crop residues

d)

Over-irrigation

16.

If a soil is rich in organic matter and has dark coloration, it is likely classified as:

a)

Histosol

b)

Vertisol

c)

Entisol

d)

Aridisol

17.

What is the best land use strategy to balance agriculture and forest conservation?

a)

Convert forests into farmland

b)

Practice agroforestry

c)

Use chemical deforestation

d)

Expand irrigation without planning

18.

Increasing the microbial diversity in soil always leads to immediate increases in crop yield.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A soil with high swelling clay content is ideal for all types of crops.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Soil classification only considers soil color and not structure or origin.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which soil component primarily controls the exchange of CO₂ and O₂ at the root zone?

a)

Organic matter

b)

Air in pore spaces

c)

Mineral matter

d)

Water in the soil

22.

If a farmer wants to improve soil structure and permeability, which soil component should be increased?

a)

Mineral matter

b)

Organic matter

c)

Water content

d)

Soil acidity

23.

In a well-aerated loam soil, what condition best supports root respiration and healthy plant growth?

a)

All pore spaces filled with water

b)

About half the pore spaces filled with air

c)

Minimal organic matter

d)

Completely dry pore spaces

24.

Increasing organic matter in the soil can improve both its nutrient-holding capacity and structure.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Soil water plays no role in chemical weathering of minerals.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

A soil sample has many tiny particles that hold lots of water and need an electron microscope to see clearly. What fraction dominates?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Gravel

27.

Which statement best explains why clay affects water movement the most?

a)

Clay is newest and unweathered.

b)

Clay particles are largest and very heavy.

c)

Clay adsorbs water on its surface and has very small pores.

d)

Clay is made only of quartz.

28.

A soil is rich in quartz and keeps less water. Which fraction is likely dominant?

a)

Clay

b)

Silt

c)

Sand

d)

Colloids

29.

Which process explains how rock fragments become soil particles over time?

a)

Fertilization

b)

Weathering

c)

Irrigation

d)

Plowing

30.

Which element makes up the largest percentage of the Earth’s crust by volume?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Aluminum

c)

Silicon

d)

Iron

31.

Which element is the second most abundant in the Earth’s crust and is a major component of silicate minerals?

a)

Silicon

b)

Potassium

c)

Iron

d)

Calcium

32.

Which group of elements is associated with living organisms and plays a role in biological processes?

a)

Lithophile

b)

Atmosphile

c)

Chalcophile

d)

Biophile

33.

Excessive amounts of essential nutrients can cause toxicity in plants.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which soil type is most likely to be found in areas frequently flooded and covered with recent river deposits?

a)

Cambisols

b)

Vertisols

c)

Fluvisols

d)

Ferralsols

35.

Which of the following soil groups is considered very fertile because of its thick, humus-rich topsoil?

a)

Acrisols

b)

Chernozems

c)

Ferralsols

d)

Leptosols

36.

Pedology primarily focuses on:

a)

Fossil evolution

b)

Soil formation, classification, and mapping

c)

Volcanic hazards

d)

Ocean circulation

37.

Which statement about the rock cycle is most accurate?

a)

Every rock passes through all stages of the cycle.

b)

The cycle occurs only at Earth’s surface.

c)

The cycle was first proposed in the 20th century.

d)

Rocks transform through heat, pressure, weathering, and erosion, but not all rocks pass every stage.

38.

The dominant mineral in limestone is:

a)

Calcite (CaCO₃)

b)

Quartz (SiO₂)

c)

Feldspar

d)

Biotite

39.

If a granite-rich terrain undergoes metamorphism, which rock is it most likely to become?

a)

Marble

b)

Slate

c)

Gneiss

d)

Quartzite

40.

Which texture would you expect in an extrusive igneous rock formed during a fast lava flow?

a)

Coarse-grained (phaneritic)

b)

Fine-grained (aphanitic) or glassy

c)

Foliated with banding

d)

Composed of cemented pebbles

41.

Which chain correctly links heat sources to metamorphism?

a)

Tectonic pressure + friction + radioactive decay → increased heat → metamorphism

b)

Solar radiation → metamorphism

c)

Wind erosion → heat → metamorphism

d)

Ocean currents → metamorphism

42.

Radioactive decay inside Earth is one natural heat source that contributes to metamorphism.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which pairing correctly matches a mineral to a primary nutrient it supplies upon weathering?

a)

Quartz — Primary source of phosphorus

b)

Apatite — Source of phosphorus (P)

c)

Kaolinite — Major source of potassium (K)

d)

Gypsum — Source of sodium (Na)

44.

Primary minerals form at temperatures and pressures lower than normal surface conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Quartz significantly increases soil fertility because it releases many plant nutrients.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which weathering process explains the transformation of hematite into limonite?

a)

Hydration

b)

Solution

c)

Oxidation

d)

Carbonation

47.

In arid climates, which type of weathering tends to dominate?

a)

Chemical weathering

b)

Physical disintegration

c)

Solution by carbonic acid

d)

Hydrolysis of feldspars

48.

A soil scientist observed that soils on a steep slope are shallower than those on flat lowlands. Which factor of soil formation explains this difference?

a)

Parent material

b)

Relief/topography

c)

Time

d)

Living organisms

49.

Alluvial soils are considered young soils because they are constantly renewed by deposition.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which sequence correctly shows the stages of soil formation?

a)

Physical weathering → Rearranging minerals → Adding organic matter → Chemical weathering → Horizon formation

b)

Rearranging minerals → Adding organic matter → Chemical weathering → Physical weathering → Horizon formation

c)

Chemical weathering → Physical weathering → Horizon formation → Adding organic matter → Rearranging minerals

d)

Adding organic matter → Physical weathering → Horizon formation → Rearranging minerals → Chemical weathering