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chapter 24 nur 213

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Parkinson’s Disease (PD)? Fill in the blank: Parkinson’s Disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder caused by loss of _______-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain.

a)

dopamine

b)

serotonin

c)

acetylcholine

d)

glutamate

2.

Which neurotransmitter decreases in Parkinson’s Disease, leading to an imbalance between inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitters?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

GABA

3.

What motor dysfunctions are caused by the imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine in Parkinson’s Disease? Fill in the blank: This imbalance causes motor dysfunction such as _______

a)

rigidity

b)

paralysis

c)

spasticity

d)

ataxia

4.

Fill in the blank: The classic triad of symptoms for Parkinson's disease includes Tremor (resting, “pill-rolling”), Rigidity (stiffness, “cogwheel” resistance), and ________ (slowness of movement).

a)

Bradykinesia

b)

Ataxia

c)

Dyskinesia

d)

Chorea

5.

Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of symptoms for Parkinson's disease?

a)

A) Tremor

b)

B) Rigidity

c)

C) Bradykinesia

d)

D) Mask-like face

6.

Postural instability in Parkinson's disease is characterized by ________ gait and stooped posture.

a)

shuffling

b)

spastic

c)

ataxic

d)

festinating

7.

Which of the following is an 'Other Symptom' of Parkinson's disease?

a)

Mask-like face

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Tremor

d)

Aspiration pneumonia

8.

Fill in the blank: Late stages of Parkinson's disease may include ________ and dementia.

a)

depression

b)

hypertension

c)

rash

d)

fractures

9.

Which of the following is a complication of Parkinson's disease?

a)

Rigidity

b)

Falls

c)

Mask-like face

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

10.

Fill in the blank: Aspiration ________ is a complication of Parkinson's disease.

a)

pneumonia

b)

fracture

c)

hypertension

d)

diabetes

11.

Malnutrition is a complication of Parkinson's disease.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Fill in the blank: Diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is based on ________ symptoms.

a)

clinical

b)

radiological

c)

genetic

d)

laboratory

13.

Which of the following supports the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease?

a)

Negative response to dopaminergic drugs

b)

Positive response to dopaminergic drugs

c)

MRI showing brain tumor

d)

Presence of fever

14.

Which drug should be taken before meals and can cause hypotension & dyskinesia?

a)

Levodopa-Carbidopa (Sinemet)

b)

MAO-B Inhibitors (Selegiline, Rasagiline)

c)

Dopamine Agonists (Pramipexole, Ropinirole)

d)

Anticholinergics (Benztropine)

15.

Which drug requires you to avoid tyramine foods such as aged cheese and wine?

a)

Levodopa-Carbidopa (Sinemet)

b)

MAO-B Inhibitors (Selegiline, Rasagiline)

c)

Dopamine Agonists (Pramipexole, Ropinirole)

d)

Anticholinergics (Benztropine)

16.

Which drug should be watched for hallucinations and orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Levodopa-Carbidopa (Sinemet)

b)

MAO-B Inhibitors (Selegiline, Rasagiline)

c)

Dopamine Agonists (Pramipexole, Ropinirole)

d)

Anticholinergics (Benztropine)

17.

Which drug should be avoided in the elderly due to causing dry mouth and constipation?

a)

Levodopa-Carbidopa (Sinemet)

b)

MAO-B Inhibitors (Selegiline, Rasagiline)

c)

Dopamine Agonists (Pramipexole, Ropinirole)

d)

Anticholinergics (Benztropine)

18.

What is the purpose of Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) in surgical options for tremors?

a)

Device sends impulses to brain to reduce tremors

b)

Device removes affected brain tissue

c)

Device increases blood flow to the brain

d)

Device blocks nerve signals to the muscles

19.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing intervention for patients with tremors?

a)

Monitor swallowing; offer soft, small frequent meals

b)

Encourage lying down after meals

c)

Avoid physical therapy

d)

Limit time for ADLs

20.

Essential tremor is a benign, familial tremor not related to Parkinson’s; often inherited.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Fill in the blank: Tremor with movement (intention tremor) occurs ______, not at rest.

a)

with movement

b)

at rest

c)

during sleep

d)

only in infants

22.

Which of the following is NOT affected by intention tremor?

a)

A) Hands

b)

B) Head

c)

C) Voice

d)

D) Feet

23.

Fill in the blank: Intention tremor worsens with ______, caffeine, or fatigue.

a)

stress

b)

exercise

c)

sleep

d)

hydration

24.

Which medication is used to reduce tremor?

a)

Beta-blockers (Propranolol)

b)

Primidone (Mysoline)

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

25.

Fill in the blank: Primidone (Mysoline) is a(n) ______ used in the treatment of tremor.

a)

anticonvulsant

b)

antibiotic

c)

antidepressant

d)

antihistamine

26.

Which of the following should be avoided to help manage tremor?

a)

Caffeine

b)

Stress

c)

Sugar

d)

Both A and B

27.

Fill in the blank: Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disease where the ______ of CNS neurons is destroyed, slowing or blocking nerve impulses.

a)

myelin sheath

b)

axon terminal

c)

cell body

d)

synaptic cleft

28.

Which of the following is a pathophysiological feature of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

a)

Formation of sclerotic plaques

b)

Increased nerve conduction

c)

Decreased inflammation

d)

None of the above

29.

Which of the following is the most common type of Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Primary progressive

b)

Secondary progressive

c)

Relapsing-remitting

d)

Progressive-relapsing

30.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Primary progressive

b)

Secondary progressive

c)

Progressive-relapsing

d)

Acute relapsing

31.

Fill in the blank: The four types of Multiple Sclerosis are Relapsing-remitting, Primary progressive, Secondary progressive, and _________

a)

Progressive-relapsing

b)

Acute relapsing

c)

Chronic progressive

d)

Benign relapsing

32.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Fatigue

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Fever

33.

Muscle weakness and spasticity are signs and symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which visual disturbance is associated with Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Blurred vision

b)

Diplopia

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

35.

Fill in the blank: Paresthesia and ________ are common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis.

a)

numbness

b)

itching

c)

swelling

d)

rash

36.

Ataxia and tremor are signs and symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which of the following is a diagnostic finding for Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

MRI shows plaques in CNS

b)

High blood sugar

c)

Low hemoglobin

d)

Enlarged liver

38.

Fill in the blank: Lumbar puncture in Multiple Sclerosis shows increased _______ or oligoclonal bands.

a)

IgG

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Globulin

39.

Which medication is used to combat fatigue?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Amantadine / Modafinil

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Diazepam

40.

Which of the following is a purpose of Oxybutynin?

a)

Reduce spasticity

b)

Combat fatigue

c)

For bladder dysfunction

d)

Treat infection

41.

Fill in the blank: Muscle relaxants such as Baclofen are used to ________ spasticity.

a)

reduce

b)

increase

c)

cause

d)

ignore

42.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care strategy for patients?

a)

Encourage rest and energy conservation

b)

Avoid heat exposure

c)

Promote physical therapy

d)

Increase heat exposure

43.

Fill in the blank: Preventing infections, especially ________, is an important aspect of nursing care.

a)

UTIs

b)

headaches

c)

fractures

d)

allergies

44.

Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is:

a)

a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease causing weakness in the skeletal muscles

b)

a viral infection affecting the respiratory system

c)

a genetic disorder causing abnormal bone growth

d)

a bacterial infection of the skin

45.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

a)

Progressive muscle weakness (improves with rest)

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Weight gain

46.

Fill in the blank: Ptosis, a sign of Myasthenia Gravis, refers to ________ eyelids.

a)

drooping

b)

swollen

c)

itchy

d)

red

47.

Which test is used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis by showing brief improvement in strength after injection?

a)

EMG (electromyography)

b)

CT/MRI for thymus enlargement

c)

Tensilon (Edrophonium) test

d)

Blood test

48.

Fill in the blank: EMG (electromyography) is used in the diagnosis of _________.

a)

Myasthenia Gravis

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

49.

CT/MRI is used to check for ________ enlargement in Myasthenia Gravis diagnosis.

a)

thymus

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

spleen

50.

Which medication inhibits acetylcholinesterase and increases acetylcholine in Myasthenia Gravis treatment?

a)

Corticosteroids (Prednisone)

b)

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

c)

Immunosuppressants (Azathioprine)

d)

IVIG / Plasmapheresis

51.

Fill in the blank: Corticosteroids (Prednisone) are used to reduce ________ activity in Myasthenia Gravis.

a)

autoimmune

b)

muscular

c)

neural

d)

digestive

52.

In Myasthenic Crisis, giving Tensilon improves symptoms.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care action for Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

A) Administer meds on time

b)

B) Monitor for respiratory distress

c)

C) Encourage rest

d)

D) Give sedatives and opioids

54.

Fill in the blank: For Myasthenia Gravis nursing care, a ________ diet is recommended, and the patient should sit upright while eating.

a)

soft

b)

liquid

c)

high-protein

d)

spicy

55.

What is a progressive, irreversible dementia causing memory loss, cognitive decline, and personality changes called?

a)

Alzheimer's disease

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Epilepsy

56.

Pathophysiology: What are the two main pathological features of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

b)

Accumulation of dopamine

c)

Loss of myelin

d)

Increased serotonin

57.

Pathophysiology: What does the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles lead to in Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Neuron degeneration and brain atrophy

b)

Increased synaptic transmission

c)

Enhanced memory formation

d)

Reduced cerebral blood flow

58.

Which stage of Alzheimer's disease is characterized by severe memory loss, inability to communicate, incontinence, and immobility?

a)

Early

b)

Middle

c)

Late

59.

What are common features of the middle stage of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Confusion, wandering, trouble with ADLs, personality changes

b)

Complete loss of memory, inability to recognize family, total immobility

c)

No symptoms, only mild forgetfulness, full independence

d)

Sudden recovery, improved cognitive function, increased alertness

60.

What is the purpose of Donepezil (Aricept) in Alzheimer's disease treatment?

a)

Cholinestrase inhibitor – slows memory loss

b)

NMDA receptor antagonist – prevents neuronal death

c)

Dopamine agonist – improves motor function

d)

Beta-blocker – reduces blood pressure

61.

Which medication is used for depression/anxiety in Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Donepezil (Aricept)

b)

Memantine (Namenda)

c)

SSRIs (Sertraline)

d)

Antipsychotics (low-dose)

62.

For agitation/hallucinations in Alzheimer's disease, which type of medication is used with caution?

a)

Antipsychotics (low-dose)

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Cholinesterase inhibitors

d)

Beta-blockers

63.

What is the definition of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

a)

A progressive, fatal motor neuron disease that causes loss of voluntary muscle control.

b)

A chronic respiratory disease.

c)

A genetic disorder affecting cognitive function.

d)

A viral infection causing muscle pain.

64.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of ALS?

a)

Progressive muscle weakness and atrophy

b)

High fever

c)

Skin rash

d)

Joint pain

65.

Fill in the blank: In ALS, cognitive function remains _____

a)

intact

b)

impaired

c)

progressive

d)

declining

66.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care strategy for ALS?

a)

Provide a structured, safe environment

b)

Use clocks, calendars, labels

c)

Reorient gently, don’t argue

d)

Ignore family support and education

67.

ALS causes degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons leading to muscle wasting.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Which of the following is a symptom of ALS?

a)

Respiratory failure

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Hair loss

d)

Skin dryness

69.

Fill in the blank: Nursing care for ALS includes maintaining _____ routines.

a)

familiar

b)

irregular

c)

sporadic

d)

unpredictable

e)

random

70.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing care strategy for ALS?

a)

Reduce overstimulation

b)

Increase overstimulation

c)

Avoid using clocks and calendars

d)

Discourage family support

71.

Cognitive function is severely impaired in ALS.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What is the purpose of Riluzole (Rilutek) in ALS treatment?

a)

Slows progression (protects motor neurons)

b)

Cures ALS completely

c)

Improves memory function

d)

Reduces inflammation in joints

73.

What is the purpose of Edaravone (Radicava) in ALS treatment?

a)

Slows functional decline

b)

Cures ALS completely

c)

Improves muscle strength instantly

d)

Prevents respiratory infections

74.

What is the purpose of Baclofen in ALS treatment?

a)

Reduces spasticity

b)

Improves memory

c)

Cures ALS

d)

Increases muscle strength

75.

What is the purpose of mechanical ventilation in ALS treatment?

a)

End-stage support

b)

Pain management

c)

Muscle strengthening

d)

Cognitive improvement

76.

Which nursing care intervention helps promote airway clearance in ALS patients?

a)

Promote airway clearance

b)

Encourage bed rest

c)

Limit fluid intake

d)

Restrict coughing

77.

Which nursing care intervention encourages the use of communication tools for ALS patients?

a)

Encourage communication tools (speech board)

b)

Restrict verbal communication

c)

Discourage use of assistive devices

d)

Limit patient interaction

78.

Which nursing care intervention supports nutrition in ALS patients?

a)

Support nutrition (PEG tube)

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Encourage fasting

d)

Limit protein intake

79.

Which nursing care intervention helps prevent aspiration in ALS patients?

a)

Prevent aspiration

b)

Encourage rapid eating

c)

Position patient flat during meals

d)

Avoid monitoring swallowing ability

80.

Which nursing care intervention provides emotional and family support for ALS patients?

a)

Emotional and family support

b)

Physical therapy and exercise

c)

Nutritional counseling

d)

Medication management

81.

What is the key feature of Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Dopamine deficiency

b)

Serotonin excess

c)

Acetylcholine deficiency

d)

GABA excess

82.

What is the key feature of MS (Multiple Sclerosis)?

a)

Demyelination in CNS

b)

Loss of acetylcholine receptors

c)

Destruction of peripheral nerves

d)

Deficiency of dopamine

83.

What is the key feature of MG (Myasthenia Gravis)?

a)

ACh receptor destruction

b)

Excess dopamine production

c)

Myelin sheath formation

d)

Increased serotonin levels

84.

What is the key feature of Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Progressive memory loss

b)

Sudden onset of paralysis

c)

Rapid mood swings

d)

Acute chest pain

85.

What is the key feature of ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)?

a)

Motor neuron degeneration

b)

Sensory neuron degeneration

c)

Cognitive impairment

d)

Autoimmune response

86.

Which treatment is used for Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Levodopa-Carbidopa, MAO-B inhibitors

b)

Ibuprofen, Paracetamol

c)

Metformin, Insulin

d)

Omeprazole, Ranitidine

87.

Which treatment is used for MS (Multiple Sclerosis)?

a)

Corticosteroids, Interferon-beta

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Insulin

d)

Beta-blockers

88.

Which treatment is used for MG (Myasthenia Gravis)?

a)

Pyridostigmine, IVIG

b)

Aspirin, Beta-blockers

c)

Metformin, Insulin

d)

Warfarin, Heparin

89.

Which treatment is used for Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Donepezil, Memantine

b)

Ibuprofen, Paracetamol

c)

Metformin, Insulin

d)

Amoxicillin, Ciprofloxacin

90.

Which treatment is used for ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)?

a)

Riluzole, Edaravone

b)

Levodopa, Carbidopa

c)

Donepezil, Rivastigmine

d)

Interferon beta-1a, Glatiramer acetate

91.

What is the nursing focus for Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Prevent falls, promote mobility, soft diet

b)

Increase fluid intake, high protein diet, bed rest

c)

Encourage weight loss, limit mobility, high fat diet

d)

Promote isolation, restrict movement, low fiber diet

92.

What is the nursing focus for MS (Multiple Sclerosis)?

a)

Avoid heat, prevent infection

b)

Encourage high-impact exercise, increase sun exposure

c)

Restrict fluids, promote bed rest

d)

Administer antibiotics routinely, limit mobility

93.

What is the function of Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) in the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

A. Reduces autoimmune activity

b)

B. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → increases acetylcholine

c)

C. Reduces antibody production

d)

D. Used for severe or crisis management

94.

What is the function of Corticosteroids (Prednisone) in the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

A. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → increases acetylcholine

b)

B. Reduces antibody production

c)

C. Reduces autoimmune activity

d)

D. Used for severe or crisis management

95.

What is the function of Immunosuppressants (Azathioprine) in the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

A. Reduces antibody production

b)

B. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → increases acetylcholine

c)

C. Used for severe or crisis management

d)

D. Reduces autoimmune activity

96.

What is the function of IVIG / Plasmapheresis in the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

A. Reduces antibody production

b)

B. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → increases acetylcholine

c)

C. Used for severe or crisis management

d)

D. Reduces autoimmune activity

97.

Which of the following best describes the Early stage of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. Severe memory loss, inability to communicate, incontinence, immobility

b)

B. Confusion, wandering, trouble with ADLs, personality changes

c)

C. Mild forgetfulness, trouble with names, disorganization

d)

D. Complete unawareness of surroundings and total physical dependence

98.

Which of the following best describes the Middle stage of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. Confusion, wandering, trouble with ADLs, personality changes

b)

B. Mild forgetfulness, trouble with names, disorganization

c)

C. Difficulty with complex problem-solving only

d)

D. Complete immobility and inability to recognize family

99.

Which of the following best describes the Late stage of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. Confusion, wandering, trouble with ADLs, personality changes

b)

B. Mild forgetfulness, trouble with names, disorganization

c)

C. Severe memory loss, inability to communicate, incontinence, immobility

d)

D. Occasional forgetfulness but mostly independent

100.

What is the purpose of Donepezil (Aricept) in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. NMDA receptor antagonist – protects neurons

b)

B. For depression/anxiety

c)

C. For agitation/hallucinations (with caution)

d)

D. Cholinesterase inhibitor – slows memory loss

101.

What is the purpose of Memantine (Namenda) in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. For depression/anxiety

b)

B. NMDA receptor antagonist – protects neurons

c)

C. Cholinesterase inhibitor – slows memory loss

d)

D. For agitation/hallucinations (with caution)

102.

What is the purpose of SSRIs (e.g., Sertraline) in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. For depression/anxiety

b)

B. For agitation/hallucinations (with caution)

c)

C. NMDA receptor antagonist – protects neurons

d)

D. Cholinesterase inhibitor – slows memory loss

103.

What is the purpose of low-dose antipsychotics in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

A. NMDA receptor antagonist – protects neurons

b)

B. For depression/anxiety

c)

C. For agitation/hallucinations (with caution)

d)

D. Cholinesterase inhibitor – slows memory loss

104.

What does Fasciculations refer to in ALS?

a)

A. Difficulty speaking

b)

B. Muscle twitching

c)

C. Rapid mood changes

d)

D. Loss of coordination

105.

What does Dysarthria refer to in ALS?

a)

A. Rapid mood changes

b)

B. Loss of muscle tone

c)

C. Difficulty speaking

d)

D. Muscle twitching

106.

What does Emotional lability refer to in ALS?

a)

A. Muscle twitching

b)

B. Sudden weakness in limbs

c)

C. Difficulty swallowing

d)

D. Rapid mood changes

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