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final exam review

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected abruptio placentae. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

a)

Dark vaginal bleeding or concealed bleeding in the uterus

b)

Low back pain

c)

Uterus firm and boardlike

d)

Irritability with frequent, brief contractions

e)

Bright red painless vaginal bleeding

2.

A nurse is assessing a client's amniotic fluid during rupture of membranes. Which finding indicates normal amniotic fluid?

a)

Green, foul-smelling fluid

b)

Clear or slightly yellow fluid with no odor

c)

Thick, white fluid with strong odor

d)

Pink-tinged fluid with a sweet odor

3.

A postpartum nurse notes that a client's fundus is soft upon palpation. What is the nurse's first intervention?

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Administer oxytocin

c)

Massage the uterus

d)

Start oxygen therapy

4.

A provider orders a biophysical profile (BPP) for a pregnant client at 36 weeks' gestation. What is the purpose of this test?

a)

To assess for maternal blood type and antibody status

b)

To determine whether the fetus is in good condition and if there is adequate amniotic fluid

c)

To evaluate cervical readiness for induction of labor

d)

To measure fetal head circumference for growth assessment

5.

A newborn assessment reveals swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp that crosses suture lines. Which condition does this indicate?

a)

Cephalohematoma

b)

Caput succedaneum

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Subgaleal hemorrhage

6.

A newborn assessment reveals a collection of blood beneath the scalp that does not cross suture lines. Which condition does this indicate?

a)

Caput succedaneum

b)

Hydrocephalus

c)

Cephalohematoma

d)

Subdural hematoma

7.

A nurse is teaching a parent about proper car seat use for their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

Place the car seat in the front passenger seat with airbags disabled.

b)

Position the infant semi-reclining in the back seat, facing the rear until 2 years of age.

c)

Place the infant forward-facing at 12 months of age.

d)

Recline the infant fully flat in the back seat until 6 months of age.

8.

A nurse is caring for a client with a cast on the lower extremity. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority?

a)

Risk for constipation due to immobility

b)

Inadequate tissue perfusion due to cast constriction

c)

Risk for infection related to cast application

d)

Impaired urinary elimination due to restricted mobility

9.

A nurse is providing care for a pregnant client with a history of incompetent cervix. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Administration of magnesium sulfate

b)

Application of a cervical cerclage

c)

Induction of labor at 37 weeks

d)

Bedrest with external fetal monitoring

10.

A nurse is reviewing Erikson’s developmental stages with a group of parents. Which developmental task is expected of a preschooler?

a)

Industry vs. inferiority

b)

Identity vs. role confusion

c)

Initiative vs. guilt

d)

Autonomy vs. shame and doubt

11.

A postpartum nurse is planning care for a client at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include?

a)

Encourage early ambulation.

b)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema.

c)

Apply ice packs to the lower extremities.

d)

Maintain bedrest for the first 48 hours.

12.

A nurse is reviewing risk factors with a client diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. Which statement best describes this condition?

a)

The fertilized ovum implants in the lower uterine segment.

b)

The fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

c)

The fertilized ovum implants in the endometrium, but fails to develop normally.

d)

The fertilized ovum implants on the cervix.

13.

The nurse is explaining umbilical cord anatomy to a group of students. Which statement is correct?

a)

The umbilical cord contains one artery and two veins.

b)

The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein.

c)

The umbilical cord contains two arteries and two veins.

d)

The umbilical cord contains one artery and one vein.

14.

A fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor shows variable decelerations. Using VEAL CHOP, the nurse knows the likely cause is:

a)

Head compression

b)

Placental insufficiency

c)

Cord compression

d)

Fetal well-being

15.

Which finding on the fetal monitor would the nurse interpret as reassuring and requiring no intervention?

a)

Variable decelerations

b)

Accelerations

c)

Early decelerations

d)

Late decelerations

16.

The nurse observes late decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. Which is the appropriate nursing action?

a)

Document as expected and continue monitoring.

b)

Reposition the client, administer oxygen, and notify the provider immediately.

c)

Encourage the client to ambulate to improve circulation.

d)

Perform a sterile vaginal exam to determine cervical dilation.

17.

A toddler presents with a fever of 39.2°C (102.5°F). Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Dress the child in heavy clothing to promote sweating

b)

Encourage fluid intake and administer antipyretics as prescribed

c)

Place the child under a warming blanket

d)

Alternate between warm baths and heating pads

18.

A nurse is providing parental education for a toddler diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which statement by the parent indicates understanding?

a)

I will feed my child large meals three times a day.

b)

I will place my child supine immediately after feeding.

c)

I will offer small, frequent meals and keep my child upright after feeding.

d)

I will avoid burping my child during feedings to prevent vomiting.

19.

The nurse is reviewing hormones of pregnancy with a client. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the endometrium during pregnancy?

a)

A. Estrogen

b)

B. Progesterone

c)

C. Oxytocin

d)

D. Prolactin

20.

The nurse is monitoring hydration status in a pediatric client with gastroenteritis. Which is the best indicator of hydration?

a)

Presence of tears when crying

b)

Daily weight

c)

Capillary refill time

d)

Mucous membrane moisture

21.

The nurse is calculating urine output for a child weighing 12 kg. The child voided 240 mL over 8 hours. What is the child’s urine output in mL/kg/hr?

a)

2.5 mL/kg/hr

b)

3.0 mL/kg/hr

c)

2.0 mL/kg/hr

d)

1.5 mL/kg/hr

22.

A nurse is assessing a newborn who has not passed meconium within the expected time frame. The nurse should recognize that which of the following conditions may prevent passage of meconium?

a)

Hirschsprung disease

b)

Meconium ileus

c)

Imperforate anus

d)

Tracheoesophageal fistula

e)

Pyloric stenosis

23.

A newborn weighed 3,400 g at birth. At a follow-up visit, the infant weighs 3,060 g. What percentage of weight loss has occurred?

a)

8%

b)

10%

c)

12%

d)

15%

24.

A nurse is educating parents about iron-rich foods for their toddler. Which food should the nurse recommend?

a)

Whole milk

b)

Chicken and leafy green vegetables

c)

Applesauce and bananas

d)

White bread and pasta

25.

A child is admitted with Kawasaki disease. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

a)

IV immunoglobulin and aspirin

b)

Antibiotics and corticosteroids

c)

Oxygen therapy and bronchodilators

d)

Fluid restriction and diuretics

26.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which medication should the nurse keep available as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Calcium gluconate

27.

A postpartum nurse is teaching a client about ways to prevent mastitis. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

I should breastfeed every 4 to 6 hours.

b)

I should wash my nipples with soap after each feeding.

c)

I should empty each breast completely during feedings.

d)

I should wear a tight-fitting bra to support my breasts.

28.

A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Vaginal bleeding

b)

Higher-than-expected hCG levels

c)

Rapid uterine growth

d)

A “snowstorm” pattern on ultrasound with no evidence of a fetus

e)

Signs of hyperemesis gravidarum

29.

A nurse is assessing a child with suspected Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which of the following manifestations are expected?

a)

Progressive muscle degeneration

b)

Delayed motor development

c)

Abnormal gait

d)

Early speech development

e)

ECG abnormalities

30.

A newborn is delivered with spina bifida (myelomeningocele). Which immediate nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Place the newborn prone with the sac covered by a moist, sterile dressing

b)

Place the newborn supine and apply warm compresses to the sac

c)

Begin range-of-motion exercises for the lower extremities

d)

Cover the sac with a dry dressing and position side-lying

31.

A client’s last normal menstrual period (LNMP) was September 8. Using Nägele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

a)

May 1

b)

June 15

c)

June 8

d)

July 1

32.

A nurse is caring for a premature newborn diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). The nurse should recognize that the infant is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Severe diarrhea and weight gain

b)

Intestinal tissue death and bowel perforation

c)

Esophageal atresia and reflux

d)

Congenital heart defect

33.

Why is oxytocin commonly administered to postpartum clients?

a)

To stimulate lactation

b)

To relieve pain

c)

To promote uterine contractions and prevent hemorrhage

d)

To prevent infection

34.

What is the initial nursing intervention immediately after the delivery of a newborn?

a)

Place the infant under a radiant warmer

b)

Administer vitamin K and erythromycin

c)

Dry and stimulate the newborn to prevent heat loss and initiate breathing

d)

Apply identification bands

35.

A nurse is assessing an infant suspected of having pyloric stenosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

a)

Projectile vomiting

b)

Palpable olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen

c)

Weight gain with adequate feedings

d)

Constant hunger/irritability

e)

Visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen

36.

The nurse is caring for a child with rheumatic fever. Which of the following are expected manifestations?

a)

Polyarthritis

b)

Subcutaneous nodules

c)

Carditis

d)

Chorea (involuntary movements)

e)

Rash (erythema marginatum)

37.

A nurse is providing education to the parents of a child prescribed a Milwaukee brace for scoliosis. Which statements indicate understanding?

a)

The brace should be worn for 23 hours a day.

b)

I should place clothing under the brace to protect the skin.

c)

If my child is uncomfortable, they can skip wearing the brace for a day.

d)

We should regularly check the skin for irritation.

e)

Compliance with the brace is important to prevent curve progression.

38.

A nurse is caring for a child admitted with sickle cell crisis. Which medication is contraindicated?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Morphine

d)

Meperidine (Demerol)

39.

Which medication is most appropriate for pain management in a child experiencing a sickle cell crisis?

a)

Morphine

b)

Aspirin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

40.

The nurse is teaching a group of parents about spina bifida. Which type is considered the most severe?

a)

Spina bifida occulta

b)

Spina bifida meningocele

c)

Spina bifida myelomeningocele

d)

Spina bifida cystica

41.

The nurse is reviewing characteristics of spina bifida with a student. Which statement is correct about spina bifida occulta?

a)

The spinal cord and meninges protrude through a sac.

b)

The meninges protrude through the sac but not the spinal cord.

c)

There is no visible sac; the defect is hidden.

d)

It always results in complete paralysis of the lower extremities.

42.

A nurse is providing education to adolescents about the best way to prevent both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which response is correct?

a)

Use of oral contraceptives

b)

Use of condoms with every sexual encounter

c)

Use of a diaphragm with spermicide

d)

Abstinence from sexual intercourse

43.

A nurse is assessing a newborn suspected of having a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Which manifestation is most concerning?

a)

Excessive oral secretions and frothing

b)

Loud, strong cry

c)

Regular bowel movements

d)

Pink color after feeding

44.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a child recovering from a tonsillectomy. Which food should the nurse recommend?

a)

Hot chicken soup

b)

Citrus juice

c)

Popsicles

d)

Potato chips

45.

A client is pregnant for the third time. She has had one spontaneous abortion, one living child born at 39 weeks, and is currently 16 weeks pregnant. What is her GTPAL?

a)

G3 T1 P0 A1 L1

b)

G2 T1 P0 A0 L1

c)

G3 T0 P1 A1 L1

d)

G2 T0 P0 A1 L1

46.

A nurse is caring for a child in skeletal traction. What is the most important assessment?

a)

Intake and output

b)

Neurovascular status of the affected extremity

c)

Level of consciousness

d)

Skin turgor

47.

The nurse is assessing a child with Down syndrome. Which manifestations are expected?

a)

Tall stature, hypertonia, large hands and feet

b)

Short stature, hypotonia, small ears, protruding tongue

c)

Normal muscle tone, long face, large jaw

d)

Tall stature, thick neck, enlarged extremities

48.

A nurse is assessing a toddler suspected of having a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which manifestation is most consistent with this condition?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Burning with urination and foul-smelling urine

c)

Constipation and abdominal rigidity

d)

Pink skin and increased appetite

49.

Which of the following is a contraindication for a vaginal delivery?

a)

Maternal history of gestational diabetes

b)

Cephalopelvic disproportion

c)

Induction of labor

d)

Multiple gestation

50.

A pregnant client at 30 weeks’ gestation reports dizziness and lightheadedness while lying flat on her back. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as supine hypotension, which is caused by:

a)

Dehydration from vomiting

b)

Pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava

c)

Hormonal changes that lower vascular resistance

d)

Fetal movements that increase maternal heart rate

51.

A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with Wilms’ tumor. Which nursing action is contraindicated?

a)

Measuring abdominal girth daily

b)

Palpating the abdomen for mass changes

c)

Monitoring intake and output

d)

Preparing the child for surgery

52.

Which statement best describes growth in pediatric nursing?

a)

The progressive increase in function of the body

b)

The total way in which a person grows and develops, influenced by genetics

c)

An increase in physical size, measured in inches and pounds

d)

A child’s ability to learn new skills

53.

Which statement best defines development?

a)

The progressive increase in the function of the body

b)

The total influence of genetics on growth

c)

The ability to gain weight and height

d)

The achievement of reproductive maturity

54.

Which term refers to the total way in which a person grows and develops, as dictated by genetics?

a)

Growth

b)

Development

c)

Maturation

d)

Regression

55.

What is the first sign of hypovolemic shock?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Decreased urine output

d)

Restlessness

56.

Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postpartum client?

a)

Encourage strict bedrest for 12 hours

b)

Apply warm compresses to the calves

c)

Encourage early ambulation

d)

Increase oral fluid intake only

57.

The nurse identifies which amount of blood loss as expected for a vaginal delivery?

a)

250 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

750 mL

d)

1000 mL

58.

During a cesarean section, the nurse recognizes that blood loss up to which volume is considered within normal limits?

a)

300 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

 1000 mL

d)

 1200 mL

59.

Which type of shock is most commonly associated with obstetric delivery complications?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Septic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

60.

A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately after delivery. Which intervention helps prevent heat loss through evaporation?

a)

Keep the newborn dry after birth

b)

Avoid placing the newborn near windows

c)

Place a hat on the newborn’s head

d)

Warm the crib mattress before placing the newborn in it

61.

The nurse notes a white, cheesy substance covering the skin of a newborn at birth. What is this finding called?

a)

Lanugo

b)

Vernix caseosa

c)

Milia

d)

Mongolian spot

62.

The nurse is assessing an infant with hyperbilirubinemia. Which complications can occur if the condition is left untreated?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Kernicterus

c)

Hearing loss

d)

Developmental delays

e)

Hypoglycemia

63.

Which of the following are expected manifestations of a post-term newborn?

a)

Dry, cracked, and peeling skin

b)

Loose skin around thighs and buttocks

c)

Long nails possibly stained with meconium

d)

Long and thin body appearance

e)

Thick head of hair

64.

The nurse is monitoring a newborn for signs of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which findings should alert the nurse?

a)

Nasal flaring

b)

Grunting

c)

Retractions (intercostal/sternal)

d)

Tachypnea (>60/min)

e)

Cyanosis

65.

Which of the following are appropriate treatments for an infant diagnosed with galactosemia?

a)

Stop breastfeeding

b)

Provide lactose-free formula

c)

Provide soy protein–based formula

66.

A nurse is assessing an infant suspected of having neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Which manifestations and interventions should be expected?

a)

Poor feeding

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Body tremors

d)

Wakefulness

e)

Hyperirritability

67.

A new mother is concerned that her small breast size may affect her ability to breastfeed. Which response by the nurse is correct?

a)

Smaller breasts produce less milk, so supplementation will be needed.

b)

Breast size does not determine your ability to produce milk.

c)

Larger breasts always produce more milk than smaller breasts.

d)

You should only breastfeed if your breasts are medium to large.

68.

Which intervention can help prevent barotrauma in infants?

a)

Swaddling the infant tightly during sleep

b)

Allowing infants to bottle-feed juice or water to promote swallowing and autoinflation

c)

Positioning the infant supine for all feedings

d)

Using pacifiers instead of bottles

69.

Which diagnostic test provides detailed images of soft tissues, the brain, and spinal cord without using radiation?

a)

X-ray

b)

Bone scan

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

70.

Which diagnostic test is most useful for detecting problems in bones not always seen on x-rays?

a)

X-ray

b)

Bone scan

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

71.

A patient presents with a ligament injury at the knee with swelling, disability, and pain after trauma. What type of injury does the nurse suspect?

a)

Sprain

b)

Strain

c)

Contusion

d)

Fracture

72.

A patient has pain and edema in a muscle or tendon due to microscopic tears from repetitive activity over time. What type of injury is this?

a)

Sprain

b)

Strain

73.

A client has high blood pressure with no identifiable underlying disease. Which type of hypertension does the nurse identify?

a)

Secondary hypertension

b)

Essential hypertension

c)

Malignant hypertension

d)

Gestational hypertension

74.

A nurse is reviewing a patient’s echocardiogram and notes narrowing of the pulmonary artery. This finding is associated with which congenital heart defect?

a)

Ventricular septal defect

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot

c)

Transposition of the great arteries

d)

Patent ductus arteriosus

75.

A patient with Tetralogy of Fallot has right ventricular hypertrophy. What is the primary reason for this?

a)

Right ventricle pumps blood against increased resistance due to pulmonary artery narrowing

b)

Left ventricle is failing

c)

Right atrium is enlarged

d)

Pulmonary valve is incompetent

76.

Which anomaly is characterized by the aorta being displaced to the right and receiving blood from both ventricles?

a)

Pulmonary stenosis

b)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Dextroposition of the aorta

d)

Ventricular septal defect

77.

A patient has a hole between the right and left ventricles. Which congenital heart defect does this describe?

a)

Atrial septal defect

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus

c)

Ventricular septal defect

d)

Tetralogy of Fallot

78.

A newborn is noted to have a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Which condition does the nurse identify?

a)

Epispadias

b)

Hypospadias

c)

Phimosis

d)

Cryptorchidism

79.

A newborn is noted to have a urethral opening on the upper (dorsal) surface of the penis. Which condition does this describe?

a)

Hypospadias

b)

Epispadias

80.

Which condition is characterized by the foreskin being unable to retract over the glans penis?

a)

Hypospadias

b)

Epispadias

c)

Phimosis

d)

Paraphimosis

81.

Which hormone is primarily used to detect pregnancy?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

82.

Which statement accurately describes monozygotic twins?

a)

Two ova fertilized by two sperm; can be different sexes

b)

One zygote splits; identical; chorionicity depends on day of split

c)

Always di-chorionic and di-amniotic

d)

Two separate placentas and two separate amniotic sacs

83.

Which statement accurately describes dizygotic twins?

a)

Two ova fertilized by two sperm; can be different sexes

b)

One zygote splits; identical; chorionicity depends on day of split

c)

Always di-chorionic and di-amniotic

d)

Two separate placentas and two separate amniotic sacs

84.

Which classic symptoms are associated with diabetes mellitus?

a)

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

b)

Bradycardia, hypotension, constipation

c)

Edema, jaundice, bruising

d)

Hyperactivity, insomnia, tremors

85.

A nurse is providing education to parents of a child prescribed oral iron supplements. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Take with milk to reduce stomach upset

b)

Take with orange juice to increase absorption

c)

Avoid using a straw to prevent staining

d)

Crush tablets and mix with honey

86.

Which instruction should the nurse include to prevent teeth staining when a child is taking liquid iron supplements?

a)

Swallow without water

b)

Drink through a straw

c)

Brush immediately after taking

d)

Mix with milk

87.

A nurse is caring for a pregnant client diagnosed with placenta previa. Which finding is most consistent with this condition?

a)

Painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding

b)

Severe abdominal pain with dark-red bleeding

c)

Fever and purulent discharge

d)

Hyperemesis and dehydration

88.

A Rh-negative mother delivers a Rh-positive baby. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Administer RhoGAM to the mother

b)

Give vitamin K to the baby

c)

Delay vaccination until 6 months

d)

Encourage breastfeeding immediately

89.

The nurse is teaching a client about TORCH infections. Which of the following is included in TORCH?

a)

A. Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis, gonorrhea, varicella, HIV), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes

b)

B. Tuberculosis, Otitis, RSV, Chickenpox, Hepatitis

c)

C. Typhoid, Oral candidiasis, Ringworm, Coxsackie virus, Hepatitis

d)

D. Tetanus, Osteomyelitis, RSV, Chlamydia, Herpes

90.

Which maternal exposure can lead to congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn?

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella infection

c)

 Herpes simplex virus

d)

Toxoplasmosis

91.

Which TORCH infection is most associated with mental retardation, seizures, and blindness in the newborn?

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

Herpes simplex virus

d)

Syphilis

92.

Which intervention is recommended for a pregnant woman with active genital herpes lesions at term?

a)

Vaginal delivery

b)

Cesarean section

c)

Delay delivery until lesions heal

d)

Administer oral antibiotics only

93.

When a nurse measures the time of a contraction, what is being assessed?

a)

The resting period between contractions

b)

When the contraction starts and ends

c)

How often contractions occur

d)

The intensity of the contraction

94.

A nurse calculates the frequency of contractions. This measurement represents:

a)

the time interval between the start of one contraction and the start of the next

b)

the strength of each contraction

c)

the duration of each contraction

d)

the number of contractions in ten minutes

95.

Which measurement describes the duration of a contraction?

a)

The resting time between contractions

b)

How long one contraction lasts

c)

The time from the start of one contraction to the start of the next

d)

The strength of contraction

96.

A nurse is assessing the interval between contractions. What does this represent?

a)

Time from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next

b)

The length of a single contraction

c)

The total number of contractions in 10 minutes

d)

The peak intensity of the contraction

97.

What is the normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range?

a)

80–120 bpm

b)

90–150 bpm

c)

110–160 bpm

d)

120–180 bpm

98.

Cervical dilation from onset to full dilation occurs during which stage of labor?

a)

First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Latent stage

99.

 Which stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation and ends with the birth of the infant?

a)

 First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Fourth stage

100.


Which stage of labor involves the delivery of the placenta?

a)

 First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Fourth stage

101.


The fourth stage of labor refers to which time period?

a)

Onset of contractions to full cervical dilation

b)

Full cervical dilation until the birth of the infant

c)

Delivery of the placenta

d)

Immediate post-birth recovery period, 1–4 hours after placental delivery

102.

 Which of the following is an example of a gate control theory intervention for labor pain?

a)

Administering IV oxytocin

b)

Stroking or massaging the abdomen

c)

Performing continuous fetal monitoring

d)

Administering antibiotics prophylactically

103.

Which type of uterine incision allows a woman to attempt a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?

a)

Classic vertical incision

b)

Low transverse incision

c)

 High vertical incision

d)

T-incision

104.

 Which of the following are contraindications for induction of labor?

a)

 Placenta previa, umbilical cord prolapse, breech presentation

b)

Full cervical dilation, spontaneous rupture of membranes

c)

Maternal desire for pain-free delivery

d)

Previous low transverse cesarean section

105.

 Which tocolytic medication is commonly administered subcutaneously to stop uterine contractions within minutes?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Terbutaline (Brethine)

c)

Nifedipine (Procardia)

106.

 A postpartum nurse is performing a BUBBLE-HE assessment. Which of the following areas is being evaluated?

a)

Breasts, uterus, bladder, bowels, lochia, episiotomy, Homan’s sign, emotions/bonding

b)

Blood pressure, urine output, bowel sounds, liver function

c)

Breasts, urinary tract, bowel sounds, heart sounds, extremities

107.

Which of the following represents normal newborn vital signs?

a)

HR: 90–120 bpm; RR: 20–40 breaths/min; BP: 100/60 mm Hg

b)

HR: 110–160 bpm; RR: 30–60 breaths/min; BP: 80/46 mm Hg

c)

 HR: 120–180 bpm; RR: 40–70 breaths/min; BP: 90/50 mm Hg

d)

HR: 100–140 bpm; RR: 25–50 breaths/min; BP: 70/40 mm Hg