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60 Multiple-Choice Questions - Module 1: Performance Domains

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of a Performance Domain?

a)

A financial metric used to track budget overruns.

b)

A group of related activities critical for effective project delivery and outcomes.

c)

A planning tool used only in adaptive development approaches.

d)

A formal document outlining the project's entire history.

2.

How do performance domains align with project principles?

a)

They replace all prior process-based standards with new principles.

b)

They solely guide decision-making based on risk appetite.

c)

They link process-based activities with principle-based behaviors to guide decision-making.

d)

They mandate the use of predictive development approaches.

3.

In the context of performance domains, what is the role of a 'method'?

a)

A. A method is a template used for deliverables.

b)

B. A method explains processes.

c)

C. A method is a model used for analysis.

d)

D. A method is used to achieve outcomes.

4.

Are process-based approaches replaced by principle-based ones in the PMBOK® 7th Edition?

a)

Yes, they are entirely replaced.

b)

No, both are relevant and complementary.

c)

Yes, only when using adaptive development.

d)

No, but process-based approaches are now considered obsolete.

5.

Which of the following is given as an example of a model or tool used in a performance domain?

a)

Financial Closure.

b)

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

c)

Emotional Intelligence (EQ).

d)

Privity in contracts.

6.

What is an 'artifact' in the context of performance domains?

a)

A model that explains processes.

b)

A methodology used to achieve outcomes.

c)

A template or deliverable.

d)

A conflict resolution technique.

7.

What is the definition of a development approach?

a)

A plan for managing risk and uncertainty.

b)

A method used to acquire products or services.

c)

A method used to create and evolve a project deliverable (predictive, adaptive, or hybrid).

d)

A process for reviewing and approving change requests.

8.

What primarily determines the best development approach?

a)

Resource availability and stakeholder power.

b)

Type of deliverable and delivery cadence (timing/frequency).

c)

Expected Monetary Value (EMV) and risk exposure.

d)

The lowest level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

9.

The iterative planning approach where near-term work is detailed and future work is broadly outlined is known as:

4 lines
10.

What term describes adapting methods and processes to fit project needs and context?

a)

Administering.

b)

Leveling.

c)

Tailoring.

d)

Adjourning.

11.

When should Agile be selected over Waterfall (predictive)?

a)

When cost is the primary constraint.

b)

When change is low and requirements are stable.

c)

When change is high and frequent delivery is required.

d)

When the project team has low emotional intelligence.

12.

What are the three project baselines?

a)

Quality, Resource, and Communication baselines.

b)

Scope, Schedule, and Cost baselines.

c)

EV, PV, and AC baselines.

d)

Performance, Product, and Process baselines.

13.

What is the lowest level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

a)

The Activity, representing 4–8 hours of effort.

b)

The Work Package (~8–80 hours of effort).

c)

The Control Account, representing project milestones.

d)

The Deliverable, representing final product acceptance.

14.

Which scheduling technique identifies the longest path and minimum project duration?

a)

Resource Leveling.

b)

Critical Path Method (CPM).

c)

Rolling Wave Planning.

d)

Earned Value Analysis (EVA).

15.

What is resource leveling?

a)

Adjusting start/finish dates based on resource availability; may change the critical path.

b)

Calculating the final Estimate at Completion (EAC).

c)

Verifying deliverables are accepted and contracts are closed.

d)

Formally approving or rejecting change requests.

16.

What does the Cost Baseline represent?

a)

The total cost of nonconformance.

b)

The approved time-phased budget for measuring cost performance.

c)

The Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of all identified risks.

d)

The cumulative actual cost incurred to date.

17.

What are the three views of value delivery?

a)

Scope, Schedule, and Cost.

b)

Project (performance), Product (defect-free), and Process (quality activities).

c)

Explicit, Tacit, and Procedural.

d)

Manage Closely, Keep Satisfied, and Keep Informed.

18.

What is the goal of quality management in projects?

a)

To guarantee the lowest possible project cost.

b)

To ensure deliverables meet stakeholder and organizational quality requirements.

19.

What is the difference between QA and QC?

a)

QA = process-focused prevention; QC = product-focused detection

b)

QA = internal audit; QC = external audit.

c)

QA = schedule control; QC = cost control.

d)

QA = documentation; QC = implementation.

20.

Which of the following is considered a Cost of Nonconformance?

a)

Training costs for Quality Assurance personnel.

b)

Rework, scrap, warranty, or lost business from poor quality

c)

Costs associated with prevention activities.

d)

Administrative closure costs.

21.

What tool is used to identify quality causes (e.g., root cause analysis)?

a)

Critical Path Method (CPM).

b)

Power/Interest Grid.

c)

Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram

d)

Earned Value Analysis (EVA).

22.

What is Earned Value (EV)?

a)

The actual cost incurred for work performed (AC).

b)

The budgeted value of completed work

c)

The value of work planned to be completed (PV).

d)

The Estimate at Completion (EAC).

23.

Schedule Variance (SV) is calculated as:

a)

Earned Value (EV) minus Planned Value (PV)

b)

Planned Value (PV) minus Earned Value (EV)

c)

Actual Cost (AC) minus Earned Value (EV)

d)

Earned Value (EV) plus Planned Value (PV)

24.

What metric is calculated by EV/PV and measures schedule efficiency?

a)

Cost Performance Index (CPI).

b)

Schedule Performance Index (SPI).

c)

Schedule Variance (SV).

d)

Variance at Completion (VAC).

25.

When should Earned Value Analysis (EVA) be used?

a)

Only during project initiation.

b)

Continuously—during planning and throughout project monitoring.

c)

At project milestones to track progress.

d)

Only when using a Fixed Price (FP) contract.

26.

What are two key project Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) mentioned for measurement?

a)

WBS and CPM.

b)

BAC and EAC.

c)

SPI (schedule performance) and CPI (cost performance).

d)

QA and QC.

27.

What is project risk?

a)

An uncertain event or condition affecting project objectives.

b)

The total sum of all contract payments.

c)

The approved time-phased budget.

28.

What are the two main risk analysis types?

a)

Predictive and Adaptive.

b)

Qualitative (priority-based) and Quantitative (numerical impact).

c)

Explicit and Tacit.

d)

Administrative and Financial.

29.

What is the formula for calculating Expected Monetary Value (EMV)?

a)

EMV=EV/AC.

b)

EMV=BAC−EAC.

c)

EMV=Probability×Impact.

d)

EMV=Scope+Schedule+Cost.

30.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four listed risk responses for threats?

a)

Accept.

b)

Avoid.

c)

Exploit.

d)

Transfer.

31.

When should risk identification occur?

a)

Only during the planning phase.

b)

Continuously—during planning and throughout project monitoring.

c)

Only when a major change request is submitted.

d)

Only when the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is below 1.0.

32.

What does procurement management primarily involve?

4 lines
33.

What are the three main contract types?

a)

Scope, Schedule, and Cost.

b)

Fixed Price (FP), Cost Reimbursable (CR), Time & Materials (T&M).

c)

Acceptance, Avoidance, and Mitigation.

d)

Explicit, Tacit, and Procedural.

34.

In contracts, what is "privity"?

a)

The maximum penalty for contract violation.

b)

The legal relationship between buyer and seller.

c)

The confidentiality agreement regarding pricing.

d)

The final acceptance of deliverables.

35.

What protects buyer-seller relationships?

a)

Rolling wave planning and tailoring.

b)

Privity and incentives.

c)

The WBS and the CPM.

d)

The four steps of change control.

36.

Which of the following is a key procurement document?

a)

The Cost Baseline.

b)

Request for Proposal (RFP).

c)

The Lessons Learned Register.

d)

The Power/Interest Grid.

37.

What is Integrated Change Control?

a)

The process of calculating all final project funds.

b)

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests.

c)

The ongoing process of acquiring products externally.

d)

The method for managing team conflict.

38.

What are the four steps of change control?

a)

Form, Storm, Norm, Perform.

b)

Accept, Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer.

c)

Identify, Document, Analyze, Review.

d)

Scope, Schedule, Cost, Quality.

39.

What is the purpose of a Change Control Board (CCB)?

a)

To track the schedule performance index (SPI).

b)

To formally approve or reject change requests.

c)

To define the WBS Work Package.

d)

To facilitate team conflict resolution.

40.

What is the difference between change control and change management?

a)

Control = evaluate changes; Management = implement and sustain them.

b)

Control = internal process; Management = external communication.

c)

Control = mandatory; Management = optional.

d)

Control = WBS; Management = CPM.

41.

Which of the following is an area that a change request can impact?

a)

Stakeholder Power only.

b)

Scope, Schedule, Cost, Risk, Quality, and Procurement plans.

c)

Explicit Knowledge only.

42.

Who are stakeholders?

a)

Only the people on the project team.

b)

Individuals or groups impacted by or influencing a project.

c)

Only the members of the Change Control Board (CCB).

d)

Only those involved in the procurement process.

43.

What tool helps analyze stakeholder power and interest?

a)

Fishbone Diagram.

b)

Expected Monetary Value (EMV).

c)

Power/Interest Grid.

d)

Critical Path Method (CPM).

44.

Which of the following is one of the four stakeholder engagement categories?

a)

Keep Separate.

b)

Manage Closely.

c)

Analyze Closely.

d)

Review Formally.

45.

What is the main goal of stakeholder engagement?

a)

To keep communication channels to a minimum.

b)

To avoid all project uncertainty.

c)

To align expectations and foster project support.

d)

To define the work package effort range.

46.

The formula N×(N–1)/2, where N is the number of stakeholders, calculates what?

4 lines
47.

What are the key stages in team development (Tuckman model)?

a)

Plan, Execute, Monitor, Close.

b)

Identify, Document, Analyze, Review.

c)

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning.

d)

Explicit, Tacit, Procedural, Contextual.

48.

What is emotional intelligence (EQ) in project teams?

a)

The ability to calculate EVA metrics quickly.

b)

The ability to recognize, understand, and manage emotions to improve collaboration.

c)

The proficiency in using the Critical Path Method (CPM).

d)

The skill to write a Request for Proposal (RFP).

49.

What three factors primarily drive high-performing teams?

a)

High SPI, low AC, and a fixed price contract.

b)

Trust, clear communication, and shared goals.

c)

Explicit knowledge, procedural knowledge, and EQ.

d)

Scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline.

50.

How does conflict benefit teams when managed well?

a)

It eliminates the need for a Change Control Board (CCB).

b)

It ensures the lowest possible project cost.

c)

It encourages creativity and better decision-making.

d)

It guarantees formal acceptance of deliverables.

51.

What is the PM’s role in team performance?

a)

To strictly enforce project closure deadlines.

b)

Coach, facilitator, and motivator aligning the team to objectives.

c)

To solely write and manage all procurement documents.

d)

To replace process-based with principle-based approaches.

52.

What are the two types of knowledge?

a)

Formal and Informal.

b)

Explicit (documented) and Tacit (experiential).

c)

Scope and Quality.

d)

QA and QC.

53.

What is the purpose of lessons learned?

a)

To formally approve change requests.

b)

To capture insights for continuous improvement.

c)

To document the final Estimate at Completion (EAC).

d)

To define the lowest level of the WBS.

54.

How can knowledge be shared effectively?

a)

Through repositories, communities of practice, and mentoring.

b)

Only by archiving project records.

c)

Only by updating the Power/Interest Grid.

d)

Only through administrative closure.

55.

Why is knowledge management important?

a)

It prevents information loss and improves project outcomes.

b)

It guarantees the project will be ahead of schedule.

56.

What tool supports knowledge transfer?

a)

The Critical Path Method (CPM).

b)

Lessons Learned Register.

c)

The Cost Baseline.

d)

The Fishbone Diagram.

57.

What are the goals of project closure?

a)

EMV calculation and risk transfer.

b)

Final acceptance, documentation, and release of resources.

c)

Resource leveling and scope management.

d)

Rolling wave planning and tailoring.

58.

What is administrative closure?

a)

Final payment and reconciliation of project funds.

b)

Verifying deliverables are accepted and contracts are closed.

c)

Formal approval of change requests.

d)

Transferring risk to a third party.

59.

Why is lessons-learned documentation key during closing?

a)

It reduces the need for the Change Control Board (CCB) on future projects.

b)

It ensures future projects benefit from current experiences.

c)

It replaces the need for financial closure.

d)

It formally defines the three project baselines.

60.

What is the PM’s final responsibility during closure?

a)

Final acceptance

b)

Documentation

c)

Release of resources